Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IF1 - Insurance, Legal and Regulatory > Chapter 9 - Legal & Regulatory Environment > Flashcards

Chapter 9 - Legal & Regulatory Environment Flashcards

1
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

  1. What types of insurance has the UK Government tended to make compulsory? Why?
A

Risks relating to legal liability or negligence.

To make sure funds are available to compensate innocent victims of accidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

  1. What type of compulsory insurance are private individuals required to have?
A

Third-party motor insurance.

Public liability insurance in respect of dangerous wild animals and dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

  1. What type of compulsory insurance are professionals and businesses required to have?
A

Motor insurance

Employers Liability Insurance

Public Liability Insurance for specific trades and professions

Professional Indemnity for professions like Solicitors

Marine Pollution Liability Insurance

Liability insurance for Nuclear operators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

  1. What are the main reasons certain forms of insurance are compulsory?
A

To provide funds for compensation

In response to national concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A1 Motor Insurance

  1. What types of motor insurance are compulsory?
A

Third-party property damage

Third-party bodily injury or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A1 Motor Insurance

  1. What changes did the Deregulation Act 2015 make to the Road Traffic Act regarding motor insurance?
A

Insurance certificates must still be delivered, but delivery is no longer required for the policy to be effective

When a policy is cancelled mid-term, the policyholder is no longer required to return the certificate or make a statutory declaration acknowledging the policy has ceased to have effect

Insurers are relieved of the burden of requesting policyholders to surrender certificates for cancelled policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A2 Liability insurance for dangerous wild animals and dogs

  1. Is the nature and scope of liability insurance for dangerous wild animals and dogs defined in the Dangerous Wild Animals Act 1976 and the Dangerous Dogs Act 1991?
A

No. But local authorities who issue licenses must be satisfied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A2 Liability insurance for dangerous wild animals and dogs

  1. Can liability insurance for dangerous wild animals and dogs be sold as individual policies?
A

No, generally they are sold as an extensions to other policies. e.g. household insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A3 Employers’ Liability Insurance

  1. Which act made it compulsory for employers to have Employers Liability Insurance?
A

Employers Liability (Compulsory Insurance) Act 1969

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A3 Employers’ Liability Insurance

  1. What is the minimum required limit of indemnity with employers liability insurance?
A

£5m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A4 Public Liability Insurance for Riding Establishments

  1. What type of insurance must proprietors of riding establishments have?
A

Public liability insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A4 Public Liability Insurance for Riding Establishments

  1. What does public liability insurance for riding establishments cover?
A

Claims arising from the use of insured horses. This includes injuries to those riding the horse and members of the public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

  1. Who is required to have PI insurance?
A

Solicitors
Accountants
Independent Intermediaries who are authorised by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5A Solicitors

  1. Which act states Solicitors must have PI Insurance?
A

Solicitors (Amendment) Act 1974

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5A Solicitors

  1. What does Professional Indemnity Insurance cover Solicitors against?
A

Negligence in making all the necessary enquiries in relation to the purchase of a property

Errors or omissions in the preparation of legal documents resulting in the completion of defective contracts and consequent financial loss to the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5B Insurance Intermediaries

  1. What does Professional Indemnity Insurance cover for Independent Intermediaries?
A

Financial loss suffered by a third party caused by their professional negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5B Insurance Intermediaries

  1. Do Appointed Representatives and Introducer Appointed Representatives need Professional Indemnity Insurance?
A

No, since everything they do is undertaken for an insurer that is responsible for their actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5B Insurance Intermediaries

  1. What is the minimum level of professional indemnity an Independent Intermediary must have?
A

€1,300,380 for a single claim

€1,924,560 for aggregate losses or 10% of annual income (up to £30m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5C Growing need for PI Cover

  1. Why is there a growing need for PI cover?
A

The rising cost of legal services

Retrospective legislation may move goalposts

Adverse judicial decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A - Compulsory Insurance

A5 Professional Indemnity Insurance

A5C Growing need for PI Cover

  1. Is there a compulsory requirement for manufacturers to have liability cover of defective or dangerous products?
A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B1 Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999

  1. What does the concept of Privity of Contract mean?
A

A person can only enforce a contract if they are a party to it.

Consequently, even if a contract is made with the purpose of benefiting someone who is not a party to it, that person has no right to sue for breach of contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B1 Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999

  1. What change did the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 make to the concept of Privity of Contract?
A

Third parties can claim for damages, injunction or special performance if

The contract makes express provision for the enforcement

The third party is expressly identified in the contract by name, class or description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B2 Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010

  1. What does the Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010 set out to protect?
A

Insurance proceeds from the effects of insolvency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B2 Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010

  1. How does the 2010 Act differ from the 1930 Act?
A

The 1930 Act requires the insured to make an application to the court to restore a dissolved insured company to the Register of Companies in order to establish liability and bring a claim against it. This is costly and time consuming.

The 2010 Act permits a third party to bring a claim directly against the insurer, without having to restore the insolvent company to the register. This prevents insurance monies from being paid to general creditors as part of insolvency proceedings instead of to the intended beneficiaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B2 Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010

  1. What is necessary for the 2010 Act to apply?
A

The insured must:

Incur a liability to a third party for which they have insurance

Be insolvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B2 Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010

  1. Break down the Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010 with a simple example.
A

Billy-Bob Joe Jenkins works for a company. He’s gets cancer from asbestos exposure years after working for the company. The company had employers liability insurance he could claim on. Billy-Bob Joe finds out that since he left the company became insolvent. Billy-Bob Joe is entitled to issue a claim directly against the insurer, rather than having to seek permission from the courts to do so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

B - Legislation concerning Third Parties

B Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010

  1. When did the Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act 2010 come into effect?
A

1st August 2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. Name the 3 regulatory bodies that the UK regulatory framework for financial services consists of?
A

Prudential Regulatory Authority (PRA)

Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

Financial Policy Committee (FPC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. What is the PRA part of?
A

The Bank of England

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. What is the PRA responsible for?
A

The stability and resolvability of systemically important financial institutions such as banks, building societies and insurers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. Will the PRA seek to prevent all firm failures?
A

No, but it will seek to ensure that firms can fail without bringing down the entire financial system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. What type of approach does the PRA focus on?
A

A ‘judgment based’ approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. What is the FCA responsible for?
A

Conduct of business
Prudential regulation of small firms e.g. insurance brokerages and financial advisory firms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. When will the FCA take action?
A

Early, before consumer detriment occurs

35
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. Does the FCA have the ability to ban products where necessary?
A

Yes.

36
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. What is the Financial Policy Committee part of?
A

The Bank of England

37
Q

C - Overview of the UK Regulatory Framework

  1. What is the FPC responsible for?
A

Monitoring emerging risks to the financial system as a whole

Providing strategic direction for the entire regulatory regime

38
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

  1. What are the two primary objectives of the PRA?
A

Promote the safety and soundness of the firms it regulates

Contribute to ensuring policyholders are appropriately protected

39
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

  1. What is the secondary objective of the PRA?
A

Facilitate effective competition in the markets

40
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D2 Threshold Conditions

  1. What are the PRA’s Threshold Conditions?
A

The minimum requirements that firms must meet to be permitted to carry out regulated activities.

41
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D2 Threshold Conditions

  1. At a high level, the PRA’s Threshold Conditions require…?
A

Head office in the UK

Business to be conducted in a prudential manner

Appropriate financial and non-financial resources

Appropriate staffing

Capable of being effectively supervised

42
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D3 Approach to Supervision

  1. What is the PRA’s approach to supervision?
A

Judgement-based

Forward looking

Focused on key risks

43
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D4 Risk Assessment Framework

  1. The PRA’s risk assessment framework operates in a way that reflects the PRA’s additional objection to…what?
A

Protect policyholders as well as the financial system.

44
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D4A The Intensity of Supervision

  1. What factors determine the level of supervision the PRA takes with firms?
A

The level of risk

The threat of harm to policyholders

45
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D4A The Intensity of Supervision

  1. What is involved in the ‘baseline level of monitoring’ that all firms face from the PRA?
A

Ensuring compliance with prudential standards for capital

Liquidity, asset valuation, provisioning and reserving

Annual review of the risks posed by the firm

Examine individual firms when a risk crystallizes

Assess the firms recovery plan and how it might exit the market

46
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D5 Proactive Intervention Framework (PIF)

  1. A firms proximity to failure will be captured in the firm’s position in…what?
A

The PRA’s Proactive Intervention Framework (PIF)

47
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D5 Proactive Intervention Framework (PIF)

  1. How many stages are there in the PRA’s Proactive Intervention Framework (PIF)? How do companies fit in it?
A

Five.

The higher the stage, the more the company’s viability has deteriorated in the eyes of the PRA and the more supervision they will receive.

48
Q

D - Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

D6 Firms’ culture and prudential supervision

  1. Does the PRA have a specific culture in mind that firms must aim towards?
A

No, so long as management are acting prudently.

49
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E1 FCA Objectives

  1. What is the overarching strategic objective of the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)?
A

Make sure the relevant markets function well.

50
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E1 FCA Objectives

  1. What are the three operational objectives of the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)?
A

Consumer protection

Integrity

Competition

51
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E2A Product Intervention and Governance

  1. Which organisations is more pro-active, the PRA or FCA? What powers do they have?
A

FCA

Temporary intervention rules
Product Pre-Approval

52
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E2B Super-Complaints

  1. Is the FCA able to review and react to detailed submissions or super-complaints by consumer groups that highlight systematic problems in particular markets that previously only the Office of Fair Trading (OFT) could receive?
A

Yes.

53
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E2B Super-Complaints

  1. Give examples of when super-complaints have been used?
A

Payment Protection Insurance

Extended warranties

54
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E2B Super-Complaints

  1. What is the aim of the Competition and Markets Authority (CMA)?
A

Promote fair competition for the benefit of consumers

55
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E2B Super-Complaints

  1. Does the Competition and Markets Authority (CMA) supersede the Competition Commission and consumer functions of the Office of Fair Trading?
A

Yes.

56
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E2C Competition Powers

  1. What is the FCA’s competition objective?
A

Promote effective competition in the interests of consumers.

57
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E3A General Principles

  1. What is the FCA’s high-level standards for business called?
A

Principles for Businesses (PRIN)

58
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E3C Supervisory Work

  1. What are the eight principles which guide the FCA’s supervisory work?
A

Forward-looking

Focus on strategy and business models

Focus on culture and governance

Focus on accountability

Proportionate and risk-based

Two-way communication

Coordinated

Stop systematic harm

59
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E3D Supervision Model

  1. The FCA’s supervision model is based on three types of work. What are they?
A

Proactive

Reactive

Thematic

60
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E4 Intervention

  1. The Financial Services Act 2012 gave the FCA powers to intervene. True or False?
A

True.

61
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E4 Intervention

  1. Can the FCA ban products?
A

If it identifies a serious problem, yes.

62
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E4 Intervention

  1. Can the FCA enforce temporary product bans in the retail sector without prior cost-benefit analysis or consultation?
A

Yes, for up to 12 months.

63
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E4 Intervention

  1. Can the FCA take action against misleading financial products? Can it vary permissions granted to firms?
A

Yes.
Yes.

64
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E4 Intervention

  1. Are the FCA required to alert a firm to its proposed course of action?
A

Yes.

65
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E4 Intervention

  1. Can the FCA use product intervention with any type of customer?
A

No, only retail customers.

66
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E5 Publication of Enforcement Action

  1. Is the FCA allowed to publish the fact that a warning notice has been issued about a firm or individual as well as make a summary of the notice publically available?
A

Yes, the PRA can too.

67
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E5 Publication of Enforcement Action

  1. Which branch of the FCA is responsible for conducting research into what is happening in the market and how the market can provide consumers with better analysis of the types of risks where they appear?
A

Policy, Risk and Research Division.

68
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E7 Authorisation and Approvals

  1. What does the FCA’s authorisation function focus on?
A

Proposed business models

Governance and culture

Systems and Controls

69
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E8 Accountability

  1. What is the FCA required to submit annually?
A

A report to the Government

70
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E8 Accountability

  1. Who should the FCA make reports to in the event of a regulatory failure and where this failure was due to the FCA’s actions?
A

The Treasury.

71
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E9 Engagement with Consumers

  1. Why does the FCA engage with consumers directly?
A

To build a better understanding of consumer behaviour, needs and experiences so it can shape how it designs its interventions.

72
Q

E - Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)

E10 Transparency and Disclosure

  1. The FCA is required to have four statutory panels representing the views of who?
A

Consumers

Regulated Firms

Smaller Regulated Firms

Market Practitioners

73
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

  1. What are the FCA’s 12 Principles of Business?
A

Integrity

Care and Due Diligence

Management and Control

Financial Prudence

Market Conduct

Consumers’ Interests

Communications with Clients

Conflicts of Interest

Customers: Relationships of Trust

Clients assets

Relations with Regulators

Consumer Duty

74
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Integrity

A

Firms must act with integrity

75
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Care and Due Diligence

A

Firms must conduct business with Care and Due Diligence

76
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Management and Control

A

Firms must organize and control their affairs responsibly and effectively

77
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Financial Prudence

A

Firms must maintain adequate financial resources

78
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Market Conduct

A

Firms must observe proper standards of market conduct

79
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Customers’ Interests

A

Firms must respect the interests of its customers and treat them fairly

80
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Conflicts of Interest

A

Firms must manage conflicts of interest fairly

81
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Customers: Relationships of Trust

A

Firms must ensure the suitability of its advice for any customer relying on its judgement.

82
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Clients’ Assets

A

Firms must arrange adequate protection for clients assets if responsible for them

83
Q

F - Operation of the PRA and FCA

F1 Principles of Business (PRIN)

Explain the PRIN of Consumer Duty

A

Firms must deliver good outcomes for retail customers

84
Q

Ethical standards

What are they?

A

Integrity
Compliance
Client’s Interest
Fairness
Service

IF1 - Insurance, Legal and Regulatory (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions