Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead SY0-501 > Chapter 9 Implementing Controls to Protect Assets > Flashcards

Chapter 9 Implementing Controls to Protect Assets Flashcards

1
Q

____ ____ _____ help protect access to secure areas

A

Physical security controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ and ____ _____ strategies help eliminate single points of failure for critical systems.

A

Redundancy and fault-tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ ensure that data remains available even after data is lost.

A

Backups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ ______ strategies help ensure mission critical functions continue to operate even if a disaster destroys a primary business location

A

Business continuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ ___ _____ refers to the security practice of implementing several layers of protection.

A

Defense in depth (aka layered security)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: You must implement security at several different layers so if one layer fails you still have additional layers to protect you.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

____ _____ is the use of different security control types, such as technical controls, administrative controls, and physical controls.

A

Control diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ ____ such as vulnerability assessments and penetration tests can help verify that these controls are working as expected

A

Administrative controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ ________ is the practice of implementing security controls from different vendors to increase security.

A

Vendor diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False: Many DMZs use two firewalls and vendor diversity dictates the use of firewalls from different vendors.

A

True

Example: One firewall could be a Cisco firewall and the other one could be a Check Point firewall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_____ _______ also helps provide defense in depth.

A

User training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: If users engage in risky behaviors, such as downloading and installing files from unknown sources or responding to phishing emails, they can give attackers a path into an organization’s network.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: Providing regular user training on common threats, and emerging threats, helps them avoid these types of attacks.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A _____ ____ _____ is something you can physically touch, such as a hardware lock, a fence, an identification badge, and a security camera.

A

Physical security control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______ _____ _____ ______ attempt to control entry and exits, and organizations commonly implement different controls at different boundaries

A

Physical security access controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List some physical security access controls

A
  1. Perimeter - Border around land
  2. Buildings
  3. Secure work areas - i.e. SOCC, NOC
  4. Hardware - Cabinet locks, cable locks, etc.
  5. Airgap
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An ______ is a physical security control that ensures that a computer or network is physically isolated from another computer or network.

A

Airgap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: A complex physical security control is a sign

A

False

It is a simple physical security control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False: It is common to secure access to controlled areas of a building with door locks, and there are many different lock types.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A ____ ____ ____ is one that only opens after some access control mechanism is used

A

Door access system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or False: When implementing door access systems, it’s not important to limit the number of entry and exit points.

A

False

It is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: In the event of a fire, door access systems should allow personnel to exit the building without any form of authentication.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____ ____ often have four or five buttons labeled with numbers.

A

Cipher locks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cipher locks can be ______ or ______

A

Electronic or manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An _____ _____ _____ automatically unlocks the door after you enter the correct code into the keypad

A

Electronic cipher lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A _____ _____ _____ requires a user to turn a handle after entering the code.

A

Manual cipher lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False: To add complexity and reduce brute force attacks, many manual cipher locks include a code that requires two numbers entered at the same time.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False: One challenge with cipher locks is that they don’t identify the users.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Uneducated users cannot give out the cipher code to unauthorized individuals without understanding the risks

A

False

They can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

_______ _____ are small credit card-sized cards that activate when they are in close proximity to a card reader.

A

Proximity cards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False: Many self-serve gasoline stations and fast-food restaurants use proximity card readers embedded in credit cards.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False: The proximity card does not require its own power source.

A

True
The electronics in the card include a capacitor and a coil that can accept a charge from the proximity card reader. When you pass the card close to the reader, the reader excites the coil and stores a charge in the capacitor. Once charged, the card transmits the information to the reader using a radio frequency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False: Some door access systems include details on the user and record when the user enter or exists the area

A

True

When used this way, it’s common to combine the proximity card reader with a keypad requiring the user to enter a personal identification number (PIN). This identifies and authenticates the user with multifactor authentication. The user has something (proximity card) and knows something (PIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

It is also possible to use _______ methods as an access control system.

A

Biometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True or False: One of the benefits with using a biometric method for access control is that it provides both identification and authentication

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or False: It’s important to ensure you use an accurate biometric system and configure it to use a low false acceptance rate.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

_______ occurs when one user follows closely behind another user without using credentials.

A

Tailgating (also called piggybacking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or False: If authorized users routinely do tailgating, it indicates the environment is susceptible to a social engineering attack where an unauthorized user follows closely behind an authorized user.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

True or False: Social engineers take advantage of people’s polite and courteous manners

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

______ ______ areas are most susceptible to tailgating attacks.

A

High traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or False: The best solution for preventing tailgating is a mantrap

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A ____ is a physical security mechanism designed to control access to a secure area through a buffer zone.

A

Mantrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or False: Because they only allow one person through at a time, mantraps prevent tailgating

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_______ get their name due to their ability to lock a person between two areas, such as an open access area and a secure access area, but not all of them are that sophisticated.

A

Mantraps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

True or False: It’s also possible to require identification and authentication before allowing passage through a mantrap.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cameras are connected to a _____ ____ ______ system which transmits signals from video cameras to monitors that are similar to TVs

A

Closed circuit televisions (CCTVs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False: In addition to providing security, CCTV can also enhance safety by deterring threats.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

______ _________ provides the most reliable proof of a person’s location and activity.

A

Video surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True or False: Access logs provide a record, but it’s possible to circumvent the security of an access log.

A

True
Ex. someone can use another’s proximity card to enter an area but it will be recorded as the card owner not the person who used it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False: When using video surveillance in a work environment, it’s important to respect privacy and to be aware of privacy laws.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

List some things to consider with video surveillance and privacy

A
  1. Only record activity in public areas. It is often illegal to record activity in locker rooms and restrooms
  2. Notify employees of the surveillance - If employees aren’t notified of the surveillance, legal issues related to the video surveillance can arise.
  3. Do not record audio - Recording audio is illegal in many jurisdictions, without the express consent of all parties being recorded.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

_____ provide a barrier around a property and deter people from entering.

A

Fences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

True or False: When using a fence, it’s common to control access to the area via specific gates.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or False: When additional security is required, organizations sometimes configure dual gates, allowing access into one area where credentials are checked before allowing full access.

A

True

This effectively creates a cage preventing full access, but also prevents unauthorized individuals from escaping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

True or False: Many organizations use a combination of automation, light dimmers, and motion sensors to save on electricity costs without sacrificing security.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Installing _____ at all entrances to a building can deter attackers from trying to break in.

A

Lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

_______ provide an additional physical security protection

A

Alarms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or False: You cannot combine motion detection systems with burglary prevention systems

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

_____ ______ sense infrared radiation sometimes called infrared light, which effectively sees a difference between objects of different temperatures

A

Infrared detectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False: The use of infrared detectors can help eliminate false alarms by sensing more than just motion, but motion from objects of different temperatures

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

______, ______, and _____ (when combined) all provide layered physical security

A

Fencing, lighting, and alarms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Organizations often use _____, which are short vertical posts, composed of reinforced concrete and/or steel.

A

Bollards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

True or False: Orgs often place the bollards in front of entrances about three or four feet apart.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or False: Companies that don’t have the resources to employ advanced security systems often use hardware locks to prevent access to secure areas

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

___ _______ is an important concept to consider when using hardware locks.

A

Key management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or False: Proper key management ensures that only authorized personnel can access the physical keys

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

____ ____ are a great theft deterrent for mobile computers, and even many desktop computers at work.

A

Cable locks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

True or False: Another common use of a cable lock is for computers in unsupervised labs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

True or False: Often in server rooms, administrators use locking cabinets or enclosures to secure equipment mounted within bays.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

You can store smaller devices such as external USB drives or USB flash drives in an ______ ____ or _______ _______ when they aren’t in use

A

Office safe or locking cabinet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

____ _______ is the process of tracking valuable assets throughout their life cycles.

A

Asset management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

True or False: An effective asset management system can help reduce several vulnerabilities

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or False: Asset management helps reduce architecture and design weaknesses by ensuring that purchases go through an approval process.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

____ ____ occurs when an organization has more systems than it needs, and systems it owns are underutilized

A

System sprawl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

True or False: Asset management begins before the hardware is purchased and helps prevent system sprawl by evaluating the purchase

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or False: Additionally after the asset is purchased, the process ensures the hardware is added into the asset management tracking system.

A

True

This ensures that the assets are managed and tracked from cradle to grave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

___ _____ ________ methods can track the movement of devices

A

Radio frequency identification (RFID)

Same as what stores use to prevent shoplifting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

True or False: Mobile devices are easy to lose track of, so organizations often use asset tracking methods to reduce losses.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

True or False: Environmental controls directly contribute to the availability of systems

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

True or False: Environmental controls include ensuring temperature and humidity controls are operating properly, fire suppression systems are in place, and proper procedures are used when running cables.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

______, _________, and ___ ________ systems are important physical security controls that enhance the availability of systems.

A

Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

True or False: If systems overheat, chips can actually burn themselves out.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

_____ ______ HVAC systems provide more cooling capacity. This keeps server rooms at lower operating temperatures and results in fewer failures.

A

Higher tonnage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

___ ___ ____ _____ help regulate the cooling in data centers with multiple rows of cabinets.

A

Hot and cold aisles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

True or False: With hot and cold aisles, the back of all cabinets in one row faces the back of all the cabinets in an adjacent row. The same for the front of the cabinets. This way hot air for two row cabinets and cold air for two row cabinets flows through the same aisle

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

An HVAC also includes a _________ as a temperature control and additional humidity controls

A

Thermostat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In HVAC, the _______ ensures that the air temperature is controlled and maintained

A

Thermostat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

_____ humidity can cause condensation on the equipment, which causes water damage

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

___ humidity allows a higher incidence of electrostatic discharge (ESD)

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

True or False: HVAC systems are not often integrated with fire alarm systems.

A

False

They often are to prevent a fire from spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

One of the core elements of a fire is ______

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

True or False: If an HVAC continues to operate normally while a fire is active, it continues to pump oxygen, which feeds the fire

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

True or False: When the HVAC is integrated with the fire alarm system, it controls the airflow to help prevent the rapid spread of the fire.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A _____ fire system can detect a fire and automatically activate to extinguish the fire

A

Fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The different components of a fire are ____, ______, ____, and a ______ ______ creating the fire

A

heat, oxygen, fuel, and a chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

True or False: Fire suppression methods attempt to remove or disrupt one of these elements to extinguish a fire.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

List methods of extinguishing a fire

A
  1. Remove the heat. Fire extinguishers but not water for electrical fires
  2. Remove the oxygen. Many methods use CO2 to displace oxygen. Common for fighting electrical fires because harmless to equipment.
  3. Remove the fuel
  4. Disrupt the chain reaction. Some chemicals can disrupt the chain reaction of fires to stop them.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

True or False: When using CO2 to displace oxygen in a fire, it’s important to ensure that personnel can get out before the oxygen is displaced

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

True or False: It is important to ensure that an alternative allows personnel to exit even if the proximity card reader loses power.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

True or False: Administrators can review HVAC system logs to review the performance.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

________ helps prevent electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) from interfering with normal signal transmissions.

A

Shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

_______ also protects against unwanted emissions and helps prevent an attacker from capturing network traffic.

A

Shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

____ comes from different types of motors, power lines, and even fluorescent lights.

A

EMI

104
Q

____ comes from radio frequency(RF) sources such as AM or FM transmitters.

A

RFI

105
Q

True or False: Shielding used to block interference from both EMI and RFI is often referred to as simply EMI shielding.

A

True

106
Q

True or False: EMI shielding fulfills the dual purpose of keeping interference out and preventing attackers from capturing network traffic

A

True.

107
Q

What is the difference between shielded twisted pair and unshielded twisted pair cabling?

A

STP has shielding to prevent attackers from capturing network traffic and helps block interference from corrupting data

108
Q

True or False: one method of reducing an attacker from splicing cable and connecting a hug using a protocol analyzer to capture traffic is to run cables through cable troughs or wiring ducts

A

True

109
Q

True or False: In addition to considering physical security, it’s important to keep cables away from EMI sources

A

True

110
Q

True or False: If techs run cables over or through fluorescent lighting fixtures, the EMI from the lights can disrupt the signals on the cables.

A

True

111
Q

A ________ ____ is typically a room that prevents signals from emanating beyond the room

A

Faraday cage

112
Q

A Faraday cage includes electrical features that cause ____ signals that reach the boundary of the room to be reflected back, preventing signal emanation outside of it.

A

RF

113
Q

True or False: A Faraday cage also provides shielding to prevent outside interference such as EMI and RFI from entering the room

A

True

114
Q

True or False: The metal shielding around an elevator acts as a Faraday cage, preventing signals from emanating out or signals from entering in.

A

True

115
Q

________ adds duplication to critical system components and networks and provides _____ _______

A

Redundancy, fault tolerance

116
Q

True or False: A system with fault tolerance can suffer a fault, but it can tolerate it and continue to operate.

A

True

117
Q

Organizations often add redundancies to eliminate _____ ______ of ______

A

Single points of failure

118
Q

List different levels redundancies can be added

A
  1. Disk redundancies using RAID
  2. Server redundancies by adding failover clusters
  3. Power redundancies by adding generators or an UPS
  4. Site redundancies by adding hot, cold, or warm sites
119
Q

A _______ _____ of ______ is a component within a system that can cause the entire system to fail if the component fails.

A

Single point of failure

120
Q

True or False: Some examples of single points of failure are disk, server, and power

A

True

121
Q

Any system has four primary resources: _____, _____, ___, and _____

A

Processor
Memory
Disk
Network interface

122
Q

True or False: The disk is the slowest and most susceptible failure

A

True

123
Q

______ _____ of ______ _____ subsystems provide fault tolerance for disks and increase the system availability

A

Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID)

124
Q

True or False : RAID-0 doesn’t provide any redundancy or fault tolerance

A

True

It includes two or more physical disks. Files are spread across each of the disks.

125
Q

What is the benefit of a RAID-0?

A

Increased read and write performance

126
Q

True or False: RAID-1 uses two disks

A

True

127
Q

In RAID-1 data is written to _____ disks so if one fails the other disk still has all the data and the system can operate without any data loss.

A

Two

128
Q

True or False: You can add an additional disk controller to a RAID-1 configuration to remove the disk controller as a single point of failure

A

True

129
Q

Adding a second disk controller to a mirror is called _____ ________

A

Disk duplexing

130
Q

If you have two 500 GB drives used in a RAID-1 how much storage space do you have?

A

500 GB since the other 500 GB is dedicated to fault tolerant, mirrored volume.

131
Q

True or False: RAID-2, RAID-3, and RAID-4 are the most commonly used

A

False

They are rarely used

132
Q

_______ is three or more disks that are striped together similar to RAID-0

A

RAID-5

133
Q

______ _______ is striped across each of the drives in a RAID-5 and is used for fault tolerance

A

Parity information

134
Q

True or False: In a RAID-5 conf if one of the drive fails, the system can read the information on the remaining drives and determine what the actual data should be.

A

True

135
Q

True or False: If two of the drives fail in a RAID-5, the data is lost

A

True

136
Q

______ is an extension of RAID-5 and it includes an additional parity block.

A

RAID-6

137
Q

True or False: A huge benefit with RAID-6 is the disk subsystem will continue to operate even if two disk drives fail.

A

True

RAID-6 requires a minimum of four disks

138
Q

______ configuration combines the features of mirroring (RAID-1) and striping (RAID-0).

A

RAID-10

139
Q

True or False: The minimum number of drives in a RAID-10 is six

A

False

It is four

140
Q

When adding more drives to a RAID-10 you add ____ /multiples of ____.

A

Two

141
Q

If you have four 500 GB drives in a RAID-10 how much usable storage do you have?

A

1 TB

142
Q

___ _______ refers to a system or service that needs to remain operational with almost zero downtime.

A

High availability

143
Q

True or False: Utilizing different redundancy and fault-tolerance methods, it’s possible to achieve 99.999 percent uptime, commonly called five nines.

A

True

144
Q

What does five nines equate to in downtime minutes per year?

A

6 minutes of downtime a year

145
Q

________ _______ are a key component used to achieve five nines

A

Failover clusters

146
Q

Is five nines considered expensive or cheap?

A

Expensive

147
Q

True or False: High availability five nines is justifiable if the cost of a potential outage is high.

A

True

148
Q

_______ _______ is another option to provide both high availability and scalability, though it is typically used primarily in scientific applications.

A

Distributive allocation

149
Q

True or False: In a distributed application model, multiple computers (often called nodes) are configured within a local network.

A

True

150
Q

In a distributed application model, a ______ ________ divides the complex problem into smaller tasks then coordinates tasking of the individual nodes and collecting results. If any single node fails, the central processor doesn’t task it anymore but overall processing continues, providing high availability.

A

Central processor

151
Q

True or False: Distributive allocation provides high availability

A

True

152
Q

The primary purpose of a _______ _______ is to provide high availability for a service offered by a server.

A

Failover cluster

153
Q

True or False: Failover clusters use two or more servers in a cluster configuration, and the servers are referred to as nodes.

A

True

154
Q

In a failover cluster, at least ____ server or node is active and at least ___ is inactive.

A

One, one

155
Q

True or False: In a failover cluster, if an active node fails, the inactive node can take over the load without interruption to clients.

A

True

156
Q

True or False: In an active-active cluster configuration, the cluster balances the load between the servers

A

True

157
Q

Nodes need to have _____ to _________ hardware and are often quite expensive, but if a company truly needs to achieve 99.999 percent uptime, it’s worth the expense

A

Close to identical

158
Q

A ____ ________ can optimize and distribute data loads across multiple computers or multiple networks.

A

Load balancer

159
Q

True or False: A load balancer can be hardware or software

A

True

160
Q

A ________ based load balancer accepts traffic and directs it to servers based on factors such as processor utilization and the number of current connections to the server.

A

Hardware

161
Q

A ______ based load balancer uses software running on each of the servers in the load-balanced cluster to balance the load.

A

Software

162
Q

____ _______ primarily provides scalability, but it also contributes to high availability.

A

Load balancing

163
Q

______ refers to the ability of a service to serve more clients without any decrease in performance.

A

Scalability

164
Q

________ ensures that systems are up and operational when needed

A

Availability

165
Q

True or False: By spreading the load among multiple systems, it ensures that individual systems are not overloaded, increasing overall availability

A

True

166
Q

To scale ___ you add additional resources such as processors and memory

A

Up

167
Q

To scale ___ you ad additional servers in a load balancer

A

Out

168
Q

Some load balancers use source address _____ to direct the requests.

A

Affinity

169
Q

Source ______ sends requests to the same server based on the requestor’s IP address

A

Affinity

170
Q

True or False: Source affinity effectively sticks users to a specific server for the duration of their sessions

A

True

171
Q

True or False: An added benefit of many load balancers is that they can detect when a server fails.

A

True

172
Q

True or False: In general, failover clusters are commonly used for applications such as database applications.

A

True

173
Q

True or False: Load balancers are often used for services, such as web servers in a web farm.

A

True

174
Q

____ is a critical utility to consider when reviewing redundancies.

A

Power

175
Q

An ____ provides fault tolerance for power and can protect against power fluctuations.

A

UPS

176
Q

_______ provide long-term power in extended outages.

A

Generators

177
Q

______ are copies of data created to ensure that when the original data is lost or corrupted, it can be restored.

A

Backups

178
Q

The most common media used for backups is ____

A

Tape

179
Q

_____ store more data and are cheaper than other media

A

Tapes

180
Q

List some commonly used backup types

A
  1. Full backup
  2. Differential backup
  3. Incremental backup
  4. Snapshots
181
Q

A _____ _____ backs up all the selected data

A

Full backup

182
Q

A ______ ______ backs up all the data that has changed or is different since the last full backup

A

Differential backup

183
Q

A ________ _____ backs up all the data that has changed since the last full or incremental backup

A

Incremental backup

184
Q

A ______ captures the data at a point in time.

A

Snapshot (image backup)

185
Q

True or False: It’s possible to do a full backup on a daily basis but rare to do in most prod environments

A

True

186
Q

What two limiting factors are there for doing full backups daily?

A
  1. Time - can take several hours to complete depending on how much data and affects availability of a system
  2. Money - requires more resources i.e. media and storage
187
Q

True or False: A full backup is the easiest and quickest to restore

A

True

188
Q

True or False: Each differential backup are all the deltas since the last full backup.

A

True

I.e. Monday captures differential, Tuesday builds on top of Monday’s differential and so forth

189
Q

True or False: As time progresses the differential backup steadily grows in size

A

True

190
Q

True or False: Each incremental backup are all the deltas since the previous day

A

True
I.e. Sunday is a full, Monday captures deltas from Sunday thru Monday, Tuesday captures deltas from Monday thru Tuesday, etc.

191
Q

True or False: Full/incremental is better suited for orgs where time is priority and Full/Differential is better suited for orgs where restoration is priority

A

True

192
Q

True or False: Snapshots are commonly used with virtual machines and sometimes referred to as a checkpoint

A

True

193
Q

True or False: The only way to validate a backup is to perform a test restore

A

True

194
Q

Performing a _____ ______ is nothing more than restoring the data from a backup and verifying it’s integrity

A

Test restore

195
Q

True or False: It’s common to restore data to a different location other than the original source location, but in such a way that you can validate the data.

A

True

196
Q

What are the two possible outcomes in a test restore

A
  1. Success

2. Fail

197
Q

True or False: An additional benefit of performing regular test restores is that it allows administrators to become familiar with the process.

A

True

198
Q

True or False: Backup media should be protected at the same level as the data that it holds.

A

True

199
Q

List how backups are protected

A
  1. Storage - clear labeling to identify the data and physical security protection to prevent others from easily accessing it while it’s stored
  2. Transfer - Data should be protected any time it is transferred from one location to another. Especially true when transferring a copy of the backup to a separate geographical location
  3. Destruction - When no longer needed, destroyed. Accomplished by degaussing the media, shredding or burning the media, or scrubbing the media by repeatedly writing varying patterns of 1s and 0s onto the media
200
Q

True or False: Organizations typically create a backup policy to answer critical questions related to backups

A

True

201
Q

The ______ policy is a written document and will often identify issues such as what data to backup, how often to back up the data, how to test the backups, and how long to retain the backups.

A

Backup

202
Q

______ backups protect against a disaster such as a fire or a flood.

A

Off-site

203
Q

True or False: Many organizations have specific requirements related to the distance between the main site and the off-site location.

A

True

204
Q

The off-site backup ______ should be far enough away that environmental factors at the primary location doesn’t affect the off-site location

A

Location

205
Q

The _____ implications related to backups depends on the data stored in the backups.

A

Legal

206
Q

____ _______ refers to the legal implications when data is stored off-site.

A

Data sovereignty

If the data is stored in other countries, it can be subject to additional laws and regulations

207
Q

The goal of _______ __________ is to ensure that critical business operations continue and the organization can survive the outage.

A

Business continuity

208
Q

True or False: Organizations often create a business continuity plan (BCP)

A

True

209
Q

A _______ _____ _______ is an important part of a BCP.

A

Business impact analysis

210
Q

A ____ _______ ______ helps an organization identify critical systems and components that are essential to the organizations success.

A

Business impact analysis

211
Q

True or False: A business impact analysis helps identify vulnerable business processes that support mission essential functions

A

True

212
Q

True or False: The business impact analysis involves collecting information from throughout the organization and documenting the results. This documentation identifies core business or mission requirements.

A

True

213
Q

True or False: The Business Impact Analysis does not recommend solutions.

A

True

It provides management with valuable information so that they can focus on critical business functions.

214
Q

List some key questions that are addressed with a Business Impact Analysis

A
  1. What are the critical systems and functions?
  2. Are there any dependencies related to these critical systems and functions?
  3. What is the maximum downtime limit of these critical systems and functions?
  4. What scenarios are most likely to impact these critical systems and functions?
  5. What is the potential loss from these scenarios?
215
Q

True or False: Identifying the maximum downtime limit is extremely important.

A

True
It drives decisions related to recovery objectives and helps an organization identify various contingency plans and policies.

216
Q

Two tools that organizations can use when completing a business impact analysis are a ______ ______ _______ and a _____ ______ _______

A

Privacy threshold assessment and privacy impact assessment

NIST SP 800-122 “Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII)” covers these in more depth but refers to a privacy threshold assessment as a privacy threshold analysis.

217
Q

The primary purpose of the _____ _______ ________ is to help the organization identify PII within a system.

A

Privacy threshold assessment

218
Q

Who typically completes a privacy threshold assessment?

A

System owner or data owner

219
Q

If the system holds PII, the next step is to conduct a ______ ______ _________

A

Privacy impact assessment

220
Q

True or False: A privacy impact assessment attempts to identify potential risks related to the PII by reviewing how the information is handled

A

True

221
Q

What is the goal of a privacy impact assessment?

A

To ensure that the system is complying with applicable laws, regulations, and guidelines. The impact assessment provides a proactive method of addressing potential risks related to PII throughout the life cycle of a computing system.

222
Q

The _____ ___ _______ identifies the maximum amount of time it can take to restore a system after an outage.

A

Recovery time objective (RTO)

223
Q

A _____ _____ _______ identifies a point in time where data loss is acceptable.

A

Recovery point objective

224
Q

True or False: When working with a BIA, experts often attempt to predict the possibility of a failure

A

True

225
Q

____ ____ ____ ______ provides a measure of a system’s reliability and is usually represented in hours.

A

Mean time between failures

226
Q

True or False: Higher MTBF numbers indicate a higher reliability of a product or system.

A

True

227
Q

___ ___ __ ______ identifies the average time it takes to restore a failed system.

A

Mean time to recover

228
Q

________ __ ________ _______ focuses on restoring mission-essential functions at a recovery site after a critical outage.

A

Continuity of operations planning

229
Q

______ is the process of moving mission-essential functions to the alternate site.

A

Failover

230
Q

A ______ ____ is an alternate processing site that an organization can use after a disaster.

A

Recovery site

231
Q

List the three primary types of recovery sites

A
  1. Hot sites
  2. Cold sites
  3. Warm sites
232
Q

True or False: Two other recovery sites are mobile sites and mirrored sites

A

True

233
Q

A __ ____ would be up and operational 24 hours a day, seven days a week and would be able to take over functionality from the primary site quickly after a primary site failure.

A

Hot site

234
Q

True or False: In many cases, copies of backup tapes are stored at the hot site as the off-site location.

A

True

235
Q

True or False: A hot site is the least effective disaster recovery solution for high-availability requirements.

A

False

It is the most effective

236
Q

True or False: A hot site is the most expensive to maintain and keep up to date.

A

True

237
Q

A ____ ____ requires power and connectivity but not much else.

A

Cold site

238
Q

True or False: With a cold site the organization brings all the equipment, software, and data to the site when it activates it.

A

True

239
Q

A ____ ____ is the cheapest to maintain, but it is also the most difficult to test.

A

Cold site

240
Q

A ____ ____ provides a compromise between a hot site and a cold site that an organization can tailor to meet its needs.

A

Warm site

241
Q

A _____ ____ is a self contained transportable unit with all the equipment needed for specific requirements

A

Mobile site

Ex. semitrailer with everything needed for operations

242
Q

_____ ____ are identical to the primary location and provide 100 percent availability.

A

Mirrored sites

243
Q

True or False: The mirrored site is always up and operational

A

True

244
Q

True or False: As a best practice, organizations return the least critical functions to the primary site first.

A

True

245
Q

True or False: By moving the least critical functions back to the primary site first will help to flush out undiscovered problems

A

True

246
Q

______ ______ is a part of an overall business continuity plan

A

Disaster recovery

247
Q

True or False: In some cases, an organization will have multiple Disaster Recovery Plans within a Business Continuity Plan

A

True

248
Q

True or False: A DRP or a BCP will include a hierarchical list of critical systems.

A

True

This list identifies what systems to restore after a disaster and in what order.

249
Q

List the different phases of a disaster recovery process

A
  1. Activate the disaster recovery plan
  2. Implement contingencies
  3. Recover critical systems
  4. Test recovered systems
  5. After-action report
250
Q

True or False: Business continuity plans and Disaster recovery plans include testing.

A

True

251
Q

_____ validates that the plan works as desired and will often include testing redundancies and backups.

A

Testing

252
Q

Two primary types of exercises are ______ and _____

A

Tabletop and functional

Read NIST SP 800-34 “Guide to Test, Training, and Exercise Programs for IT Plans and Capabilities”

253
Q

A _____ _____ is discussion based

A

Tabletop exercise

254
Q

_____ _______ provide personnel with an opportunity to test the plans in a simulated operational environment.

A

Functional exercises

255
Q

In a ______, the participants go through the steps in a controlled manner without affecting the actual system.

A

Simulation

256
Q

True or False: Running through a simulation will verify that the test works and the amount of time it will take to execute the plan

A

True

257
Q

List some of the common elements of testing

A
  1. Backups - tested by restoring the data from the backup
  2. Server restoration - rebuild a server using a test system without touching the live system
  3. Server redundancy
  4. Alternate sites

Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead SY0-501 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions