Chapter 8 Using Risk Management Tools Flashcards

1
Q

___ is the likelihood that a threat will exploit a vulnerability

A

Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A _____ is a weakness

A

Vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A ____ is a potential danger

A

Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ refers to the magnitude of harm that can be caused if a threat exercises a vulnerability

A

Impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A system without up-to-date antivirus software is vulnerable to ______

A

Malware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Malware written by malicious attackers is the ______

A

Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The likelihood that the malware will reach a vulnerable system represents the ____

A

Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Within the context of risk management, a ____ is any circumstance or event that can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of data or a system

A

Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List different forms of threats

A

Malicious human threats - script kiddies, apts, network, system, malware attacks
Accidental human threats - accidentally delete or corrupt data, or accidentally access data they shouldn’t. Unintentionally cause outages.
Environmental threats - Power failure, mother nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A _____ ____ helps an organization identify and categorize threats.

A

Threat assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Organizations have limited ____ so it’s not possible to protect against all threats.

A

Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List some common types of threat assessments

A

Environmental - evaluates the likelihood of an environmental threat occurring.

Manmade - evaluates all threats from humans

Internal - evaluates threats from within an organization. Threats from malicious employees and accidents

External - evaluates threats from outside an organization. External attackers and natural threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A ___ is a flaw or a weakness in software or hardware, or a weakness in a process that a threat could exploit, resulting in a security breach.

A

Vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List some examples of vulnerabilities

A

Lack of updates - not up to date on patches, hotfixes, and service packs
Default configurations - hardening includes changing systems from their default hw and sw configurations, including changing default usernames and passwords
Lack of malware protection or updated definitions
Lack of firewalls
Lack of organizational policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___ _____ is the practice of identifying, monitoring, and limiting risks to a manageable level.

A

Risk management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False Risk management eliminates risks

A

False. It identifies methods to limit or mitigate them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The amount of risk that remains after managing risk is ____ ___

A

Residual risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False: The primary goal of risk management is not to reduce risk to a level that the organization will accept.

A

False it IS to reduce risk to a level that the organization will accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_______ must choose a level of acceptable risk based on their organizational goals.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List some risk response techniques

A

Avoid - by not providing a service or not participating in a risky activity.
Transfer - to another entity i.e. purchasing insurance or outsourcing
Mitigate - implement controls to reduce risk i.e. up to date antivirus software
Accept - when the cost of a control outweighs a risk, an organization will often accept the risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A ____ ____/____ is an important task in risk management

A

Risk assessment/analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: Risk assessment quantifies/qualifies risks based on different values or judgments

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a risk assessment first identify?

A

Assets and asset values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An ____ includes any product, system, resource, or process that an organization values.

A

Asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ____ ___ identifies the worth of the asset to the organization.

A

Asset value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or False: The asset value helps an organization focus on the high-value assets and avoid wasting time on low-value assets.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False: A risk assessment attempts to identify the impact of potential threats and identify the potential harm, and prioritizes risks based on the likelihood of occurrence and impact.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False: A risk assessment includes recommendations on what controls to implement to mitigate risks.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: A risk assessment is a point-in-time assessment or a snapshot.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: Risk assessments use quantitative measurements or qualitative measurements

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

______ ____ use numbers, such as monetary figure representing cost and asset values.

A

Quantitative measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

______ _____ use judgements

A

Qualitative measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False: The asset value is an important element in a qualitative risk assessment

A

False it is an important element for quantitative risk assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The cost of any single loss is _____

A

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many times the loss will occur in a year is the _____

A

Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The product of the Single loss expectancy and the annual rate of occurrence is _____

A

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) = SLE X ARO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List two simple guidelines managers use for most risk assessment decisions

A
  1. If the cost of the control is less than the savings, purchase it.
  2. If the cost of the control is greater than the savings, accept the risk.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A _____ ____ ____ uses judgement to categorize risks based on probability and impact

A

Qualitative Risk Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The probability that an event will occur is _______

A

Likelihood of occurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Quality is often a matter of _______

A

Judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

One of the challenges with a qualitative risk assessment is gaining ______ on the probability and impact.

A

Consensus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or False: A final risk assessment report is highly protected

A

True. The information that is contained such as management decisions on what controls and measures are to be implemented are valuable esp to an attacker. Normally, only executive management and security professionals will have access to these reports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or False: There are different definitions for a risk register depending on which standard you are following.

A

True.

ISO 73:2009 defines as a record of information about identified risks

Projects IN Controlled Environments defines as a repository for all risks identified and includes additional information about each risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List some fields that are defined in a risk register

A
Category
Specific Risk
Likelihood of occurrence
Impact
Risk score
Security controls or mitigation steps
Contingencies
Risk score with security controls
Action assigned to
Action deadline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A _____ ____ _____ evaluates the raw materials supply sources and all the processes required to create, sell, and distribute a product

A

Supply chain assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List two common tools used by security administrators to test networks

A
  1. Vulnerability scanners

2. Penetration tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False: By reducing vulnerabilities you can reduce risks

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the overall goal of a vulnerability assessment?

A

To assess the security posture of systems and networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

List some sources that vulnerability assessments include information from

A
  1. Security policies
  2. Logs
  3. Interviewing personnel
  4. Testing systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

List the high-level steps for a vulnerability assessment

A
  1. Identify assets and capabilities
  2. Prioritize assets based on value
  3. Identify vulnerabilities and prioritize them
  4. Recommend controls to mitigate serious vulnerabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

True or False: Many organizations do not perform vulnerability assessments internally

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

True or False: Organizations hire external security professionals to complete external assessments

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A ____ ____ attempts to discover a password

A

Password cracker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or False: Password crackers are one of the tools security administrators use during a vulnerability assessment

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

An _____ password cracker attempts to discover passwords by analyzing a database or file containing passwords.

A

Offline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

True or False: A key benefit of an offline password cracking attack is that attackers have unlimited time to analyze the passwords

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An _____ password cracker attempts to discover passwords by guessing them in a brute force attack.

A

Online

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A _____ _____ uses various techniques to gather information about hosts within a network.

A

Network scanner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

True or False: Nmap is an unpopular network scanning tool

A

False. It is popular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False: Other popular network scanners are netcat and nessus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A _____ ___ sends an ICMP ping to a range of IP addresses in a network

A

Ping scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or False: A problem with ping scans is that firewalls often block ICMP, so it can give inconsistent results.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

___ ___ ___ sends an ARP packet with an IP address to a host and the corresponding host responds with its MAC address

A

ARP ping scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

____ ___ _____ sends a single SYN packet to each IP address in the scan range. If a host responds, the scanner knows that a host is operational with that IP address.

A

Syn stealth scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

True or False: In a syn stealth scan once a host IP address is confirmed a RST (reset) response is sent to close the connection

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

___ ___ checks for open ports on a system

A

Port scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

True or False: A port scan typically uses the ports identified as well-known ports by the Internet Assigned Numbers Association (IANA)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

____ ___ is like a port scan but verifies the protocol or service.

A

Service scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

___ ___ _____ techniques analyze packets from an IP address to identify the OS.

A

Operating System (OS) Detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

OS Detection is often referred to as ____ _______

A

TCP/IP fingerprinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

True or False: OS Detection techniques don’t rely on a single value but typically evaluate multiple values included in responses from systems

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

____ ____ discovers devices on the network and how they are connected with each other.

A

Network mapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or False: Network mapping is often done with a network scan but only focuses on connectivity

A

True

74
Q

A ____ ____ ___ also includes additional scans to identify open ports, running services, and OS details.

A

Full network scan

75
Q

_______ _____ can typically use both passive and active scans.

A

Wireless scanners

76
Q

When using a _____ ____, a scanner just listens to all the traffic being broadcast on known channels within the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency ranges

A

Passive scan

77
Q

When using an _____ ____ a wireless scanner acts like a scanner/cracker and can gain more information about an AP by sending queries to it.

A

Active scan

78
Q

True or False: As long as an administrator knows what APs are authorized, it’s easy to discover rogue APs with a wireless scan.

A

True

79
Q

The _____ ____ ___ ______ (RSSI) shows the strength of the signal

A

Received Signal Strength Indicator

80
Q

True or False: A lower negative number is stronger than a higher negative number for signal strength

A

True

81
Q

True or False: As you move closer to a rogue AP, the signal becomes stronger and vice versa as you move further away.

A

True

82
Q

______ _____ is a technique used to gain information about remote systems and many network scanners use it.

A

Banner grabbing

83
Q

True or False: Banner grabbing is often used to identify the operating system along with information about some applications.

A

True

84
Q

True or False: If a banner grab is successful the server returns an HTML banner providing information on the server.

A

True

85
Q

_______ ____ identify a wide range of weaknesses and known security issues that attackers can exploit

A

Vulnerability scanners

86
Q

A vulnerability scan often includes what actions?

A
  1. Identify vulnerabilities
  2. Identify misconfigurations
  3. Passively test security controls
  4. Identify lack of security controls
87
Q

True or False: Vulnerability scanners utilize a database/dictionary of known vulnerabilities and test systems against this database.

A

True

88
Q

The _____ _____ ___ ______ list is a dictionary of publicly known security vulnerabilities and exposures.

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

89
Q

True or False: The CVE list is publicly funded by the U.S. government

A

True

90
Q

____ ____ ____ ____ utilizes the National Vulnerability Database (NVD) which includes lists of common misconfigurations, security-related software flaws, and impact ratings or risk scores.

A

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

91
Q

True or False: Attackers often look for systems that are misconfigured and vulnerability scanners can detect some common misconfiguration settings

A

True

92
Q

_____ ___ can signal a vulnerability, especially if administrators aren’t actively managing the services associated with these ports

A

Open ports

93
Q

___ ______ can be discovered with the use of vulnerability scanners and/or password crackers

A

Weak passwords

94
Q

True or False: Scanners are able to detect default accounts and passwords for applications such as SQL database systems

A

True

95
Q

True or False: Some scanners include data loss prevention (DLP) techniques to detect sensitive data sent over the network.

A

True

96
Q

True or False: Vulnerability scans can also check the system against a configuration or security baseline to identify unauthorized changes.

A

True

97
Q

Is a vulnerability scan an active or passive scan?

A

Passive scan since it does not attempt to exploit any vulnerabilities

98
Q

Is a penetration test an active or passive attempt?

A

Active attempt that attempts to exploit vulnerabilities

99
Q

True or False: Vulnerability scanners can also identify missing security controls, such as the lack of up-to-date patches or the lack of antivirus software

A

True

100
Q

True or False: Vulnerability scanners can report false positives

A

True

101
Q

True or False: False positives can result in higher administrative overhead because administrators have to investigate them

A

True

102
Q

True or False: Security administrators often run credentialed scans with the privileges of an administrator account

A

True

103
Q

True or False: Attackers typically start with a non-credentialed vulnerability scan but use privilege escalation techniques to gain administrative access.

A

True

104
Q

A _______ __________ _______ verifies that systems are configured correctly

A

Configuration compliance scanner

105
Q

True or False: Configuration compliance scans typically need to be run as credentialed scans.

A

True

This helps ensure they can accurately read the configuration of systems during the scan.

106
Q

A penetration test without consent is an _______

A

Attack

107
Q

______ _____ actively assesses deployed security controls within a system or network

A

Penetration testing

108
Q

True or False: Security testers typically perform a penetration test to demonstrate the actual security vulnerabilities within a system

A

True

109
Q

A penetration test starts with a _____ _____

A

Vulnerability scan

110
Q

______ ______ collects information about a targeted system, network, or organization using open-source intelligence.

A

Passive reconnaissance

111
Q

True or False: if an organization has wireless networks, passive reconnaissance can include collecting information from the network such as network SSIDs

A

True

112
Q

True or False: Passive reconnaissance is not illegal

A

True

Because it does not engage a target

113
Q

True or False: You can use whois lookup site and domain name system servers to gain information about a domain name holder

A

True

114
Q

_____ ______ includes using tools to send data to systems and analyzing the responses

A

Active reconnaissance

115
Q

True or False: Active reconnaissance typically starts by using various scanning tools such as network scanners and vulnerability scanners

A

True

116
Q

True or False: Active reconnaissance is almost always illegal

A

True

Because it engages a target

117
Q

Active reconnaissance should never be started without first getting _____ ______ to do so

A

Explicit authorization

118
Q

True or False: After scanning, tester discover vulnerabilities and look for ways to exploit them.

A

True

119
Q

______ is the process of using various tools to gain additional information.

A

Pivoting

120
Q

True or False: A common technique used to maintain persistence is to create a backdoor back into the network.

A

True

121
Q

List the three types of testing for penetration testing

A
  1. Black box testing
  2. White box testing
  3. Gray box testing
122
Q

____ ____ ____ is where testers have zero knowledge of the environment prior to starting

A

Black box testing

123
Q

____ ___ _____ is where testers have full knowledge of the environment prior to starting

A

White box testing

124
Q

_____ ___ ______ is where testers have some knowledge of the environment prior to starting

A

Gray box testing

125
Q

____ ___ attacker is a malicious attacker performing criminal activities

A

Black hat

126
Q

_____ ___ attackers are security professionals working with the law

A

White hat

127
Q

___ ___ attackers are those who have good intentions, but their activities may cross ethical lines.

A

Gray hat

128
Q

_____ can be either intrusive/invasive or non-intrusive./non-invasive

A

Scans

129
Q

True or False: Vulnerability scanning is intrusive and more invasive than penetration testing

A

False

It is the reverse

130
Q

A ____ ___ tests systems in a non-intrusive manner and has little possibility of compromising a system.

A

Passive tool

131
Q

An _____ ____ uses intrusive and invasive methods and can potentially affect the operations of a system.

A

Active tool

132
Q

An _____ _______ is a tool used to store information about security vulnerabilties

A

Exploitation framework

133
Q

True or False: Exploitation frameworks are often used by penetration testers (and attackers) to detect and exploit software.

A

True

134
Q

A _____ _____ can capture and analyze packets on a network.

A

Protocol analyzer

135
Q

The process of using a protocol analyzer is sometimes referred to as _______

A

Sniffing

136
Q

True or False: Both administrators and attackers can use a protocol analyzer to view IP headers and examine packets.

A

True

137
Q

True or False: When using a protocol analyzer, you need to configure the network interface card (NIC) on the system to use promiscuous mode.

A

True

138
Q

True or False: normally a NIC uses non-promiscuous mode and only processes packets addressed directly to its IP address

A

True

139
Q

True or False: A protocol analyzer is useful when troubleshooting communications problems between systems.

A

True

140
Q

A _____ shows information such as the type of traffic (protocol), flags, source and destination IP address, and source and destination MAC addresses.

A

Capture

141
Q

_____ is a command-line packet analyzer (or protocol analyzer) that allows you to capture packets.

A

Tcpdump

142
Q

____ is a network scanner that includes many capabilities, including identifying all the active hosts and their IP addresses in a network, the protocols and services running on each of these hosts, and the operating system of the host.

A

Nmap (Zenmap is the graphical side)

143
Q

_____ can easily be used for banner grabbing

A

Netcat

144
Q

Other uses of netcat include

A
  1. Transferring files

2. Port scanner

145
Q

True or False: For windows event logs, application logs record events by applications or programs running on the system

A

True

146
Q

True or False: The OS uses the System log to record events related to the functioning of the OS. This can include when it starts, shuts down, info on services starting and stopping, drivers loading or failing, or any other system component event deemed important by the system developers.

A

True

147
Q

Linux logs commands

A

Authentication log - cat /var/log/auth.log
General system messages /var/log/messages
System boot - /var/log/boot.log
Failed logon - /var/log/fail.log
System kernel - /var/log/kern.log
Apache web server - /var/log/httpd

148
Q

Authentication logs and files

A
  1. utmp - maintains information on the current status of the system, including who is currently logged in. The who command queries this file to display a list of users currently logged in.
  2. wtmp - archive of the utmp file
  3. btmp - records failed login attempts. The lastb command shows the last failed login attempts
149
Q

Other Linux logs

A
  1. Antivirus logs
  2. Application logs
  3. Performance logs
150
Q

A ____ ____ ___ ____ ______ system provides a centralized solution for collecting, analyzing, and managing data from multiple sources.

A

Security information and event management (SIEM)

151
Q

A ____ ____ _____ provides real-time monitoring, analysis, and notification of security events, such as suspected security incidents.

A

Security event management (SEM)

152
Q

A ___ ____ ____ provides long term storage of data, along with methods of analyzing the data looking for trends, or creating reports needed to verify compliance of laws or regulations

A

Security information management (SIM)

153
Q

True or False: SIEMs are very useful in large enterprises that have massive amounts of data and activity to monitor.

A

True

154
Q

True or False: The SIEM provides continuous monitoring and provides real-time reporting.

A

True

155
Q

True or False: The SIEM collects log data from devices throughout the network and stores these logs in the database.

A

True

156
Q

_______ refers to combining several dissimilar items into a single item.

A

Aggregation

157
Q

True or False: A SIEM can collect data from multiple sources, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, proxy servers, and more.

A

True

158
Q

True or False: An SIEM can aggregate device logs in different formats and store it in such a way that it is easy to analyze and search.

A

True

159
Q

A ____ _____ is a software component used to collect and analyze event log data from various systems within the network

A

Correlation engine

160
Q

True or False: A correlation engine typically aggregates the data looking for common attributes and then uses advanced analytic tools to detect patterns of potential security events and raises alerts.

A

True

161
Q

True or False: An SIEM typically comes with predefined alerts, which provide notifications of suspicious events.

A

True

162
Q

____ cause an action in response to a predefined number of repeated events.

A

Triggers

163
Q

True or False: An SIEM includes the ability to modify predefined triggers and create new ones.

A

True

164
Q

True or False: All servers sending data to the SIEM should be synchronized with the same time.

A

True

165
Q

True or False: One method to ensure time is synchronized is to convert all log times to Greenwich Mean Team (GMT), which is the time at the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London

A

True

166
Q

______ is the process of removing duplicate entries.

A

Deduplication

167
Q

True or False: An SIEM will only store a single copy of any duplicate log entries but also ensure that the entries are associated with the different devices.

A

True

168
Q

True or False: An SIEM typically includes methods to prevent anyone from modifying log entries.

A

True

169
Q

What does WORM stand for?

A

Write once read many

170
Q

True or False: Security professionals must continuously monitor their environment for emerging threats and new vulnerabilities.

A

True

171
Q

_____ ____ ____ includes monitoring all relevant security controls, with the goal of ensuring that they help an organization maintain a strong security posture.

A

Continuous security monitoring

172
Q

____ ____ refers to logging information on what users do.

A

Usage auditing

173
Q

True or False: Configuring logging of logon attempts is an important security step for system monitoring.

A

True

174
Q

True or False: When users access a resource over a network such as a file server, it is also recorded as a logon action.

A

True

175
Q

A _____ ____ ____ looks at the logs to see what users are doing

A

Usage auditing review

176
Q

True or False: Logs create an audit trail of what happened.

A

True

177
Q

True or False: Usage auditing reviews are often done to re-create the audit trail, or reconstruct what happened in the past.

A

True

178
Q

A ______ _____ _____ looks at the rights and permissions assigned to users and helps ensure the principle of least privilege is enforced.

A

Permission auditing review

179
Q

True or False: Permission auditing reviews identify the privileges (rights and permissions) granted to users, and compares them against what the users need.

A

True

180
Q

______ ____ occurs when a user is granted more and more privileges due to changing job requirements, but unneeded privileges are never removed.

A

Privilege creep (permission bloat)

181
Q

True or False: Organizations commonly use a role based access control model with group based privileges.

A

True

182
Q

True or False: An organization should also have account management controls in place to ensure that administrators remove user accounts when there is a change in employement.

A

True