Chapter 9 Cardiac Muscle Flashcards

1
Q

What are intercalated discs role in cardiac muscle?

A

Membrane between muscle fibers, that allow communication and ultimately form gap junctions for diffusion of ions.

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2
Q

How does an electrical current pass from the atrial syncytium to the ventricle syncytium?

A

Potentials are conducted only by way of a specialized conductive system called the AV bundle.

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3
Q

Which of the following highlights a difference between cardiac action potential (AP) and skeletal muscle APs?

A) Skeletal muscle has a plateau
B) Cardiac APs start out solely by a tremendous opening of fast sodium channels that close abruptly
C) The permeability of cardiac muscle after the start of APs to potassium decreases significantly
D) Calcium channels are a big component of the rapid depolarization and repolarization of the skeletal muscle

A

C) The skeletal muscle action potential (AP) is made of opening of fast sodium channels and then rapidly closing of the same channels.

In cardiac muscle, the AP is initiated by opening of fast sodium channels and slow calcium channels. Calcium is responsible for activating the muscle contractile process.

In cardiac muscle, after the onset of an AP, the permeability to potassium decreases 5fold, decreasing the outflux of potassium and preventing early return of the AP to resting levels.

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of calcium ions and the transverse tubules in skeletal and cardiac muscle fibrils?

A) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle rely on the passing of the action potential along the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) The calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum are responsible for the movement of the myofibrils, leading to muscle contraction.
C) Skeletal muscle also relies on the release of calcium from the T-tubules to open ryanodine receptor channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum for more release of calcium.
D) The cardiac muscle T-tubules have a large amount of mucopolysaccharides that are electropositive and bind to an abundant store of calcium ions.

A

B) The calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum are responsible for the movement of the myofibrils, leading to muscle contraction.

Both skeletal and cardiac muscle rely on the passing of the action potential offer the membrane of a T-tubule. This then acts on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and allows for lease of calcium ions into the muscle sarcoplasm. The influx of calcium promotes the sliding of the actin and myosin filaments, producing the muscle contraction. Cardiac muscle also relies on the release of calcium from the membrane of the T-tubule, to stimulate ryanodine receptor channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is less developed than that of skeletal muscle and relies on calcium from T-tubules. The T-tubules also contain large stores of mucopolysaccharides, that are electronegative, which also bind large stores of calcium. This calcium is available fo diffusion into the muscle fiber when an action potential occurs.

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5
Q

The cardiac cycle…

A) … starts by a spontaneous generation of action potential in the AV bundle.
B) … is carried out by primer pumps located in the ventricles.
C) … has a period of relaxation called diastole and a period of contraction called systole.
D) … has a major source of power located in the atria.

A

C) The cardiac cycle has a period of relaxation called diastole, in which the heart fills with blood. The period of contraction is called systole.

The cardiac cycle is initiated by a spontaneous generation of an action potential in the sinus node, located in the superior lateral wall of the right atrium. This AP then travels to the AV bundle into the ventricles. The atria are known as primer pumps and the ventricles are known as the major source of power for pumping blood through the body. The cardiac cycle has a period of relaxation called diastole and a period of contraction called systole.

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6
Q

Which of the following is correct when describing the electrocardiogram?

A) P wave is caused by the spread of depolarization through the atria.
B) The QRS segment is caused by atrial depolarization.
C) At the point of the T wave, the volume in the ventricles is at its highest.
D) The AV valves open at the beginning of the the QRS segment.

A

A) P wave is caused by the spread of depolarization through the atria.

The QRS segment is caused by ventricular depolarization. The T wave represents the state of repolarization of the ventricles. At this time, the volume in the ventricles is almost at its lowest, as ejection is occurring. Once the T wave is done, the AV valves open, allowing for isovolumic relaxation.

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7
Q

How much additional filling of the ventricles occurs with atrial contraction?

A) 10%
B) 30%
C) 7%
D) 20%

A

D) 20% more filling of the ventricles occurs, which increases the ventricular pumping effect as much as 20%. The heart can continue without this extra 20% effectiveness, which is why atrial problems can often go undetected for a while or until a exercise intolerance is noted.

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8
Q

List some changes in the cardiac cycle that occur once systole is over.

( 5 )

A
Isovolemic relaxation
T wave is finished
Aortic valve closes
AV valves open 
Ventricular pressure and volume are at their lowest
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9
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT occur during isovolumic contraction?

A) Contraction occurring in the ventricles
B) Emptying of the ventricles
C) Cardiac muscle tension is increasing of the ventricles
D) Little or no shortening of the muscle fibers

A

B) Emptying of the ventricles is NOT occurring during isovolumic contraction.

This occurs at the end of the QRS segment, immediately after ventricular contraction begins. As the pressure rises abruptly, the AV valves close and it takes approximately 0.02-0.03 seconds before the semilunar valves are opened. Contraction is occurring in the ventricles but no emptying occurs. Cardiac muscle tension is occurring, but little or no shortening of the muscle fibers is occurring.

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10
Q

During the period of ventricular ejection, which of the following is occurring?

A) Semilunar valves are opened
B) Approximately 90% of the blood at the end of diastole is ejected during systole
C) Ventricular pressure is at its lowest
D) This is occurring during diastole

A

A) Semilunar valves are opened when the L ventricular pressure increases over 80 mm Hg. Blood pours out of the ventricles at this time of systole. 60% of the blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole are ejected during systole.

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11
Q

Which of the following is occurring during isovolumic relaxation?

A) Both right and left intraventricular pressures are increased briefly
B) The distended large artery pressures are at a minimum
C) The aortic and pulmonary valves slam shut
D) The ventricular muscle relaxes and volume decreases

A

C) The aortic and pulmonary valves snap shut due to the increased pressures in the distended large arteries. This is occurring at the end of systole, while ventricular relaxation begins. Howeve, the volume of the ventricles is not changing during this time period, as short as it is. The intraventricular pressures are decreasing rapidly, back to their low diastolic levels.

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12
Q

Define the following:

End diastolic volume
Stroke volume output
End systolic volume
Ejection fraction

A

End diastolic volume - the volume of the ventricles filled during diastole; approx 110-120 mLs

Stroke volume output - the volume that the ventricles decrease by during systole; about 70 mLs

End systolic volume - the volume remaining in the ventricles after systole, or after the stroke volume output has been removed; approx 40-50 mLs

Ejection fraction - the fraction of the ventricular diastolic fill that is ejected

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about the AV valves

A) These valves consist of the tricuspid and pulmonary valves.
B) These valves close and open passively.
C) These valves require rapid back flow to cause closure.
D) These valves are thick

A

B) The AV valves close and open passively.

The AV valves consist of the tricuspid and mitral valve, which prevent back flow of the ventricles into the atria during systole. The tricuspid valve is located between the right atria and right ventricle. The mitral valve is located between the left atria and left ventricle. These valves are thin and flimsy; they close when a backward pressure gradient pushes blood backwards and open when a forward pressure gradient forces blood in the forward direction.

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14
Q

Which of the following properly describes the semilunar valves?

A) These valves are supported by the chordae tendinae.
B) These valves have larger openings than the AV valves and thus the velocity of the blood traveling through is far less.
C) These valves undergo great mechanical abrasion along their edges.
D) These valves are flimsy and thin.

A

C) These valves undergo great mechanical abrasion along their edges.

The semilunar valves, or the aortic and pulmonary valve, close rapidly due to the high pressures in the arteries. These valves are strong, yet pliable, supporting the high velocity of blood traveling through smaller openings than the AV valves. The chordae tendinae only support the AV valves and are not found in relation to the semilunar valves.

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15
Q

How does the pressure inside the aorta change through diastole and systole?

A

During systole, the entry of the blood into the aorta causes the walls to stretch and the pressure to increase about 120 mm Hg. At the end of systole, once the aortic valve closes, the pressure system in the aorta is still high but is slowly lessening as the blood is distributed throughout the body. At this time, the pressure is approx 80 mm Hg.

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16
Q

How does the pressure inside the aorta change through diastole and systole?

A

During systole, the entry of the blood into the aorta causes the walls to stretch and the pressure to increase about 120 mm Hg. At the end of systole, once the aortic valve closes, the pressure system in the aorta is still high but is slowly lessening as the blood is distributed throughout the body. At this time, the pressure is approx 80 mm Hg.

17
Q

In the volume-pressure diagram of the left ventricle, which of the following describes Phase I?

A) Systolic pressure is rising, but volume is decreasing due to the aortic valve opening
B) Volume of the ventricle is not changing, but the pressure increases to that of the aorta, about 80 mm Hg
C) Ventricular pressure is decreasing to that of diastolic pressure, without a change in volume
D) Ventricular volume is increasing to 120 mLs, while pressure is rising 5-7 mm Hg

A

D) Ventricular volume is increasing to 120 mLs, while pressure is rising 5-7 mm Hg

Phase I is known as diastole, or period of filling. At the beginning of Phase I, the ventricle contains the end-systolic volume and ends with the end-diastolic volume of approx 120 mLs. Pressure is minimally rising due to the mitral valve still being open.

18
Q

In the volume-pressure diagram of the left ventricle, which of the following describes Phase II?

A) Systolic pressure is rising, but volume is decreasing due to the aortic valve opening
B) Volume of the ventricle is not changing, but the pressure increases to that of the aorta, about 80 mm Hg
C) Ventricular pressure is decreasing to that of diastolic pressure, without a change in volume
D) Ventricular volume is increasing to 120 mLs, while pressure is rising 5-7 mm Hg

A

B) Volume of the ventricle is not changing, but the pressure increases to that of the aorta, about 80 mm Hg

Phase II is isovolumic contraction. The mitral valve has closed and the pressure has not increased to that of the aorta, so the aortic valve is still closed. The pressure increases to approx 80 mm Hg.

19
Q

In the volume-pressure diagram of the left ventricle, which of the following describes Phase III?

A) Systolic pressure is rising, but volume is decreasing due to the aortic valve opening
B) Volume of the ventricle is not changing, but the pressure increases to that of the aorta, about 80 mm Hg
C) Ventricular pressure is decreasing to that of diastolic pressure, without a change in volume
D) Ventricular volume is increasing to 120 mLs, while pressure is rising 5-7 mm Hg

A

A) Systolic pressure is rising, but volume is decreasing due to the aortic valve opening

Phase III is known as the ejection phase. The aortic valve opens at the beginning of this phase, but the systolic pressure is increasing due to the contraction of the ventricle. The volume is decreasing as blood flows into the artery.

20
Q

In the volume-pressure diagram of the left ventricle, which of the following describes Phase IV?

A) Systolic pressure is rising, but volume is decreasing due to the aortic valve opening
B) Volume of the ventricle is not changing, but the pressure increases to that of the aorta, about 80 mm Hg
C) Ventricular pressure is decreasing to that of diastolic pressure, without a change in volume
D) Ventricular volume is increasing to 120 mLs, while pressure is rising 5-7 mm Hg

A

C) Ventricular pressure is decreasing to that of diastolic pressure, without a change in volume

Phase IV is known as isovolumic relaxation. This is occurring after the aortic valve closes and before the mitral valve opens. The ventricular pressure is falling back down to that of diastolic pressure, and there is no change in volume.

21
Q

Differentiate between preload and afterload, and where it is found in cardiac contraction.

A

Pre load - degree of tension on the muscle when it begins to contract; considered to be the end-diastolic pressure when the ventricle has been filled

Afterload - load against which the muscle exerts its contractile force; pressure in the aorta leading from the ventricle, corresponds to systolic pressure described by the phase III curve of the volume-pressure diagram

22
Q

What is the Frank-Starling mechanism?

A

Within physiological limits, the heart pumps all the blood that returns to it by way of the veins. The greater the heart muscle is stretched during filling, the greater the force of contraction and the greater the quantity of blood pumped into the aorta.

23
Q

How does parasympathetic stimulation and sympathetic stimulation affect the amount of blood pumped by the atria?

A) Decrease, decrease
B) Increase, increase
C) Decrease, increase
D) Increase, decrease

A

C) Decrease, increase

The parasympathetic system, by way of vagal stimulation, can decrease the the output to almost zero. The sympathetic system can increase the output more than 100%.

24
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of sympathetic stimulation of the heart?

A) Increases the force of heart contraction
B) Ejection pressure elevated
C) Cardiac output increased two- to threefold
D) Volume of blood pumped decreased

A

D) Volume of blood is increased with sympathetic stimulation, as a result of increasing the force of contraction

25
Q

Describe the mechanism through which hyperkalemia affects the heart rate.

A

High K+ in the extracellular fluid decreases the resting membrane potential in the cardiac muscle fibers. This depolarization of the cell membrane decreases the intensity of the action potential and makes the contraction of the heart weaker.

26
Q

Describe the effect of hypercalcemia on the heart rate.

A

The excess calcium ions allow for the cardiac contractile process to happen in a spastic manner.

27
Q

How does change in body temperature affect the heart rate?

A

Increased body temperature increases the permeability of the cardiac muscle membrane to ions that control heart rate. Thus, the heart rate can greatly increase, sometimes to double the normal rate.