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Hazmat > Chapter 9 > Flashcards

Chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q

The extreme hazards associated with materials that could be used in
terrorist attacks has prompted the U.S. Department of Homeland
Security to: (423)
A. regulate who can be a first responder at hazmat/WMD
incidents.
B. recommend that only APRs be used during hazmat/WMD
incidents.
C. adopt standards for respiratory equipment to protect responders
at hazmat/WMD incidents.
D. mandate that first responders at all hazmat/WMD incidents be
certified to the Technician level

A

C

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2
Q

What organization certifies SCBA? (423)
A. Insurance Service Office (ISO)
B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF)
D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH

A

D

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3
Q 
When using SCBA, where does the air supply come from? (423)
A. The ambient air
B. The user carries it
C. A stationary air cylinder
D. A large stationary generator
A

B

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4
Q

Only _____ open-circuit or closed-circuit SCBA is allowed in incidents
where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials. (423)
A. chemical
B. nonpowered
C. positive-pressure
D. pressure-demand

A

C

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5
Q

Why are supplied-air respirators (SARs) not certified for use in fire
fighting operations? (426)
A. Excessive weight increases physical stress
B. Cannot supply positive pressure to the face
C. Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris
D. Not enough air to escape from a hazardous environment

A

C

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6
Q

A supplied-air respirator (SAR) used at a hazmat incident must:
(426)
A. carry/supply its own air.
B. be certified for firefighting operations.
C. provide positive pressure to the facepiece.
D. have an airline of longer than 300 feet (90 m).

A

C

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7
Q 
When using an air purifying device (APR), where does the air supply 
come from? (426)
A. The ambient air
B. The user carries it
C. A handheld generator
D. A large stationary generator
A

A

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8
Q 
Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas? (426)
A. APR
B. CPC
C. SCBA
D. IDLH
A

A

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9
Q

APRs must be used only in atmospheres that are NOT oxygen
deficient or oxygen enriched and are not IDLH because: (427)
A. the ambient air supplies the oxygen.
B. the air generator may fail at any moment.
C. the purifying canister may be expired or damaged.
D. the responder may not properly use the equipment

A

A

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10
Q 
Which type of filter is MOST likely to be used when biological hazards 
are known to be present? (428)
A. Powered
B. Ambient air
C. Vapor reducing
D. Particulate removing
A

D

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11
Q 
Particulate-removing filters on APRs are used to protect the user 
from materials such as: (428)
A. asbestos.
B. carbon monoxide.
C. low oxygen atmospheres.
D. fireground gases and smoke
A

A

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12
Q

Why must powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) be used in an
atmosphere of at least 19.5% oxygen? (430)
A. They do not supply oxygen, only filter the air.
B. The power mechanism may fail in low oxygen atmospheres.
C. The air hose is susceptible to damage from heat and debris.
D. Their power supply is a potential ignition source in an IDLH
environment

A

A

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13
Q 
What is a common limitation of respiratory equipment? (430)
A. Enhanced visibility
B. Increased mobility
C. May cause shortness of breath
D. Decreased ability to communicate
A

D

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14
Q

The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has adopted NIOSH and
_____ standards for protective clothing used at hazmat/WMD
incidents. (432)
A. International Firestop Council (IFC)
B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF)
D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC

A

B

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15
Q

Which statement about structural firefighters’ protective clothing is
accurate? (433)
A. Gases and vapors can permeate the garments.
B. It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals.
C. Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists
and waist.
D. Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire
fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate

A

A

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16
Q

High temperature protective clothing is designed to protect the
wearer from: (435)
A. chemical hazards.
B. inhalation hazards.
C. long-term exposures to high temperatures.
D. short-term exposures to high temperatures

A

D

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17
Q 
What type of PPE allows a responder to work in total flame for a 
short period of time? (435)
A. Body armor
B. Type C suit
C. Proximity suit
D. Fire-entry suit
A

D

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18
Q

Flame-resistant protective clothing is mostly used for: (436)
A. wildland fires.
B. explosive materials.
C. everyday flame-resistant work apparel.
D. long-term exposures to high temperatures

A

C

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about CPC is MOST accurate?
(437)
A. CPC protects against all types of chemicals.
B. CPC is only made from one type of material.
C. It is appropriate for flammable environments.
D. No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards

A

D

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20
Q

Why/how can CPC contribute to heat disorders in hot environments?
(437)
A. It can degrade.
B. It absorbs sunlight.
C. It is designed to be impenetrable to moisture.
D. It allows penetration of hot fluids from the outside

A

C

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21
Q

Which statement about nonencapsulating liquid splash protective
clothing is MOST accurate? (438)
A. It is resistant to heat and flame exposure.
B. It often exposes part of the head and neck.
C. It protects against chemical vapors and gases.
D. It does not impair worker mobility, vision, or communication

A

B

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22
Q 
. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection? 
(439)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A

A

23
Q

All emergency response organizations that routinely use CPC must
establish a: (440)
A. design procedure for new CPC.
B. written CPC management program.
C. research program to develop new CPC.
D. nationally certified CPC training program

A

B

24
Q 
When a chemical passes through a fabric on a molecular level, it is 
called: (441)
A. permeation.
B. penetration.
C. degradation.
D. contamination
A

A

25
Q

What is it called when characteristics of a material are altered
through contact with chemical substances? (442)
A. Permeation
B. Penetration
C. Degradation
D. Contamination

A

C

26
Q

Which statement about the service life of CPC is MOST accurate?
(442)
A. CPC ensembles have no specific service life.
B. Always follow AHJ SOP/Gs and manufacturer’s specifications in
regards to serviceability.
C. If a CPC garment is discolored, it is still perfectly usable as long
as the serviceability date has not passed.
D. A CPC suit used in the hot zone does not need to be
decontaminated unless contamination is verified visually

A

B

27
Q

What organization has established a set of chemical-protective PPE
ensembles providing certain protection levels that are commonly
used by fire and emergency service organizations? (443)
A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF)
D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH

A

A

28
Q

Which statement about Level A PPE protection is MOST accurate?
(445)
A. It does not require special training to use.
B. It is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-
purifying device.
C. It provides excellent liquid splash-protection but no protection
from chemical vapors or gases.
D. It provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases,
mists, and particles, for the respiratory tract and skin

A

D

29
Q

Which level of PPE is worn when the highest level of respiratory
protection is necessary, but a lesser level of skin protection is
needed? (445-446)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

A

B

30
Q

Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known
and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH? (446-
447)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

A

C

31
Q

Level D PPE consists of: (447)
A. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls.
B. hooded chemical resistant clothing and full-face or half-mask
APRs.
C. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls with the
addition of a half-mask APR.
D. hooded chemical resistant clothing and positive-pressure, full
facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure respirator with escape
SCBA

A

A

32
Q 
In general, the higher the level of PPE, the greater the: (448)
A. associated risks.
B. media coverage.
C. number of victims.
D. amount of hazardous material
A

A

33
Q

Which statement is MOST accurate about choosing PPE ensembles?
(448)
A. Chemical and physical hazards are less important selection
factors when the duration of exposure is expected to be less
than 15 minutes.
B. Because the IC will select the appropriate level of PPE to be
used at an incident, a responder does not need to understand
the selection process.
C. Overprotection, as well as underprotection, can be hazardous
and should be avoided.
D. The highest available PPE should always be used in case there
are unexpected hazards

A

C

34
Q

When a hazardous material is a mixture of unknown chemicals, what
type of PPE should be selected? (450)
A. A level D ensemble should be selected.
B. None, because the mission should be abandoned.
C. If a level A ensemble is available, it should always be selected,
no matter what the chemicals involved.
D. An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance
against the widest range of chemicals should be selected

A

D

35
Q 
Which of the following is most likely NOT to be a factor for selecting 
protective clothing? (451)
A. Cost
B. Size of incident
C. Ease of decontamination
D. Material chemical resistance
A

B

36
Q

How do law enforcement first responder ensembles differ from fire
service first responders? (452)
A. Fire service personnel will typically carry a sidearm.
B. Fire service personnel will typically wear ballistic protection.
C. Law enforcement personnel will typically wear ballistic
protection.
D. Law enforcement personnel will typically wear higher levels of
respiratory protection

A

C

37
Q

How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders?
(454)
A. EMS PPE includes a sidearm.
B. EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection.
C. EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory
protection.
D. EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier
protection

A

D

38
Q

How does wearing PPE increase the risk of heat-related disorders?
(455)
A. Most PPE has no effect on body temperature.
B. Most PPE provides automatic cooling technology.
C. Most PPE increases the body’s ability to disperse heat and
moisture.
D. Most PPE inhibits the body’s ability to disperse heat and
moisture

A

D

39
Q 
What is the most serious type of heat disorder? (455)
A. Heat stroke
B. Heat rashes
C. Heat cramps
D. Heat exhaustion
A

A

40
Q

Why should beverages that contain alcohol or caffeine be avoided
prior to working? (457)
A. These beverages do not need to be avoided.
B. These beverages decrease dehydration and heat stress.
C. These beverages may increase productivity and awareness.
D. These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress

A

D

41
Q 
Rehabbing in a warm area and avoiding cold beverages can help 
prevent: (458)
A. heat stress.
B. claustrophobia.
C. cold emergencies.
D. psychological issues
A

C

42
Q

Using chemical protective clothing can cause psychological stress
because: (458)
A. increased mobility may worry some users.
B. increased oxygen levels can cause cognitive impairment.
C. facepieces may cause some users to feel confined or
claustrophobic.
D. facepieces may cause some users to be over confident and
unnecessarily expose themselves to contaminants

A

C

43
Q

Which statement regarding medical monitoring or responders
wearing PPE is MOST accurate? (459)
A. Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended.
B. If vital signs are steady pre-entry, then they do not need to be
taken again.
C. Post-entry monitoring is not necessary if no exposure or
contamination has occurred.
D. If a facepiece makes a responder feel claustrophobic, they may
take it off at their own discretion

A

A

44
Q

You must be proficient in donning your PPE because increased
familiarity and comfort will lead to: (460)
A. reduced stress.
B. increased stress.
C. increased work time.
D. a custom fit ensemble

A

A

45
Q

An operation check on PPE, communications equipment, and any
equipment taken into the hot zone should be conducted: (460)
A. pre-entry.
B. post-entry.
C. if a malfunction occurs.
D. halfway through the incident

A

A

46
Q 
Incident status, identified hazards, and tasks to be performed should 
be communicated during the: (461)
A. size-up.
B. safety briefing.
C. hazards assessment.
D. post-incident briefing
A

B

47
Q

Exposure means that: (462)
A. you are radioactive.
B. you may have had contact with a foreign substance.
C. you must be immediately extracted from the hot zone.
D. a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your
body

A

D

48
Q

Which statement regarding PPE safety and emergency
communication is MOST accurate? (462)
A. Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit
integrity.
B. Radio communications should be designated as a backup
system only.
C. Communication capabilities are only required for responders
wearing SARs or APRs.
D. Providing direction via a PA system or bullhorn is the universal
emergency evacuation s

A

A

49
Q

Where should PPE be donned? (464)
A. Wherever is convenient
B. In a preselected area in the hot zone
C. In the apparatus on the way to the incident
D. In a preselected area in the cold zone, as close to the entry
point as possible

A

D

50
Q 
When should PPE be donned? (464)
A. Immediately upon arrival
B. After the mission briefing
C. Before the mission briefing
D. Once entry is made into the hot zone
A

B

51
Q 
When doffing PPE, what is the last item that should be removed? 
(466)
A. Gloves
B. Coverall
C. Footwear
D. Respirator facepiece
A

D

52
Q

Inspection of respiratory equipment and PPE should follow
manufacturer’s recommendations and _____ guidelines. (466)
A. EPA
B. training
C. international
D. the organization’s

A

D

53
Q

After using PPE at an incident, don’t forget to: (467)
A. discard it.
B. leave it where the clean-up team can find it.
C. fill out any required reports or documentation.
D. wipe it down with warm water and then return it to service

A

C

Hazmat (18 decks)

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