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Chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q

(Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.

A

47°33’N – 116°11’W.

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2
Q

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

A

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.

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3
Q

(Refer to area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?

A

47°25’N – 98°06’W.

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4
Q

(Refer to area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47° 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101° 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

A

Fischer.

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5
Q

(Refer to area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°34’30”N latitude and 100°43’00”W longitude?

A

Makeef

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6
Q

(Refer to area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°21’N latitude and 101°01’W longitude?

A

Washburn

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7
Q

Refer to the area of Pierre Regional Airport (N44°22.96’ W100°17.16”). What frequency can be monitored for Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area?

A

112.5 MHz.

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8
Q

(Refer to area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

A

36°24’N – 76°01’W.

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9
Q

(Refer to area 6.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

A

Class E.

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10
Q

(Refer to area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?

A

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

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11
Q

(Refer to area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

A

Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

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12
Q

(Refer to area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

A

19 feet

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13
Q

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

A

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

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14
Q

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

A

18000 ft

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15
Q

The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

A

2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.

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16
Q

(Refer to area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

A

IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

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17
Q

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

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18
Q

(Refer to area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

A

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

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19
Q

(Refer to area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

A

1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

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20
Q

(Refer to area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to

A

the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement.

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21
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A

Chart supplement

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22
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

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23
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

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24
Q

(Refer to area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

A

1,273 feet MSL.

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25
(Refer to area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
1,403 feet MSL.
26
What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)?
3,000
27
(Refer to area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.
28
At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
29
(Refer to area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is
3,000 feet MSL.
30
(Refer to area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
2,900 feet MSL.
31
(Refer to area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?
3549 ft msl
32
(Refer to area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
4,000 feet MSL.
33
(Refer to area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
VOR/DME.
34
The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a
military operations area.
35
(Refer to area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
36
(Refer to area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport.
Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
37
(Refer to area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
38
(Refer to area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
39
(Refer to east of area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.
40
(Refer to area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?
A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface.
41
(Refer to area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?
E
42
The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at
700ft agl
43
When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (area 4) to McCampbell Airport (area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?
Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace.
44
When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering
the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
45
An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?
3,200 feet MSL.
46
(Refer to area 1.) Dubey Airport is
private
47
(Refer to area 6.) Sky Way Airport is
a nonpublic-use airport.
48
(Refer to area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
49
(Refer to area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
2,901 feet MSL.
50
The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (area 6) is classified as Class
D
51
What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near area 3?
Wilderness area
52
What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
53
(Refer to area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
1548 ft msl
54
(Refer to area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
1300 ft
55
(Refer to area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010° radial is
454 ft msl
56
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
57
(Refer to area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL.
58
(Refer to area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
59
Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5).
60
Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
Minot intl
61
On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?
117.1 mhz
62
(Refer to area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
122.9 mhz
63
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
10 miles
64
(Refer to area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
127.25 MHz.
65
(Refer to area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
126.0 MHz.
66
(Refer to area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz.
67
(Refer to area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
123.0 mhz
68
(Refer to area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
122.8 mhz
69
(Refer to area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?
Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure.
70
(Refer to area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
71
(Refer to area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
122.8 mhz
72
(Refer to area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
122.8 mhz
73
(Refer to area 2 in Figure 22.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D’Alene to request fuel?
122.8 mhz
74
Weather information is available at the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)
from AWOS 3 135.075.
75
FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by
downloading them from the FAA website.
76
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?
90
77
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
60
78
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
70
79
When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
80
Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
81
Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
82
What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
83
Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?
Northwest approximately 1 mile.
84
Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?
Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.
85
Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25?
right hand
86
According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?
0800 – 0000 hr. local time
87
What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks?
AUNICOM.
88
What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?
A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.
89
If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is
1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.
90
According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?
Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.
91
You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an “Airport surface hot spot?”
In the Chart Supplements U.S.
92
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
93
When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are
Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMs.

stage 3 (5 decks)

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