Chapter 8: Using Risk Management Tools Flashcards

1
Q

What is Risk?

A

The likelihood that a threat will exploit a vulnerability.

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2
Q

What is Vulnerability?

A

A weakness in a system, application, or process.

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3
Q

What is Impact?

A

The magnitude of harm that can be caused if a threat exploits a vulnerability.

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4
Q

What is Probability?

A

How often we expect risk to occur, if at all.

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5
Q

Can you totally eliminate risk?

A

NOPE.

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6
Q

What is a Threat?

A

A potential danger that might take advantage of a vulnerability. It’s any circumstance or event that can compromise an organization’s CIA.

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7
Q

What are examples of Threats?

A

Malicious Human Threats, Accidental Human Threats, and Environmental Threats.

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8
Q

What are Malicious Human Threats?

A

Intentional harmful actions by a individual, such as hackers or insiders, aiming to damage or exploit systems.

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9
Q

What are Accidental Human Threats?

A

Unintentional actions by users that cause harm, like mistakes or falling for scams.

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10
Q

What are Environmental Threats?

A

Natural events (like fire, floods, or storms) that can damage IT infrastructure.

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11
Q

What is Threat Assessment?

A

The process of identifying and evaluating potential threats to determine risk.

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12
Q

What is Risk Identification?

A

The process of pinpointing potential risks that could impact an organization.

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13
Q

What are some Risk Types?

A

Internal, External, Intellectual Property Theft, Software Compliance/Licensing, Legacy Systems and Legacy Platforms.

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14
Q

What is an Internal Risk?

A

A risk that arises from within the organization, like insider threats or system errors.

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15
Q

What is an External Risk?

A

A risk that originates outside the organization, like cyberattacks or vendor failures.

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16
Q

What is Intellectual Property (IP) Theft?

A

Stealing or using someone’s protected creations, like code or trade secrets, without permission.

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17
Q

What is Software Compliance/Licensing?

A

Following legal software usage rules to avoid penalties or legal issues.

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18
Q

What risk do Legacy Systems/Platforms pose?

A

They may lack updates or support, increasing security and operational vulnerabilities.

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19
Q

What are some examples of Vulnerabilities?

A

Default Configuration, Lack of Malware Protection or Dated Definitions, Improper or Weak Patch Management, Lack of Firewalls, or Lack of Organizational Policy.

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20
Q

What is Risk Management?

A

The process of identifying, evaluating, and mitigating risks to reduce harm to the organization.

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21
Q

What is Risk Awareness?

A

Awareness of existing and potential threats within a system and the need to address and mitigate them.

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22
Q

What is Inherent Risk?

A

The risk present before applying any mitigation or controls.

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23
Q

What is Residual Risk?

A

The risk that remains after controls have been applied.

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24
Q

What is Control Risk?

A

The risk of a control failing to mitigate or detect a threat.

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25
Q

What is Risk Appetite?

A

The level of risk an organization is willing to accept.

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26
Q

What is Expansionary Risk Appetite?

A

Willingness to take more risk for potential growth.

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27
Q

What is Conservative Risk Appetite?

A

A preference for low risk and high control.

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28
Q

What is Neutral Risk Appetite?

A

A balanced approach to taking and avoiding risk.

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29
Q

What is Risk Tolerance?

A

The specific amount of risk an organization can endure.

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30
Q

What are some Risk Management strategies?

A

Avoidance, Mitigation, Acceptance, Transference, and Cybersecurity Insurance.

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31
Q

What is a Risk Assessment?

A

The evaluation of risks to determine their impact and likelihood.

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32
Q

What is Continuous Risk Assessment?

A

Ongoing identification and evaluation of risks.

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33
Q

What is an Asset?

A

Any product, system, resources, or process that an organization values?

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34
Q

What is Asset Value (AV)?

A

Identifies the value of the asset to the organization? Typically, it’s a specific monetary value.

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35
Q

What is Risk Control Assessment?

A

An evaluation of the effectiveness of controls.

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36
Q

What is Risk Control Self-Assessment?

A

A self-led evaluation of risks and control effectiveness.

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37
Q

What is Quantitative Risk Assessment?

A

A risk evaluation using measurable, numerical data (typically monetary value).

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38
Q

What is Exposure Factor (EF)?

A

The portion of an asset that we expect would be damaged if a risk materializes.

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39
Q

What is Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?

A

The cost of any single loss of a specific asset. Formula: (SLE = AV X EF).

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40
Q

What is Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)?

A

Indicates how many times the loss will occur in a year. It is measure of probability.

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41
Q

What is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

A

Designed to help organizations prioritize risks and quantitatively assess their impact on an organization. Formula: (ALE = SLE X ARO).

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42
Q

What is Qualitative Risk Assessment?

A

Risk evaluation based on subjective ratings rather than numbers.

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43
Q

What is the Likelihood of Occurrence?

A

The probability that a threat will exploit a vulnerability.

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44
Q

What is Risk Reporting?

A

The process of sharing risk-related info with stakeholders to inform decision-making.

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45
Q

What is Risk Analysis?

A

Identifying and assessing risks to inform mitigation strategies.

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46
Q

What are Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)?

A

Metrics used to predict the likelihood or impact of risk events.

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47
Q

What is a Risk Register?

A

A log that tracks identified risks, their severity, and response strategies.

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48
Q

What is a Risk Matrix?

A

A chart used to evaluated and rank risks based on likelihood and impact.

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49
Q

What is a Supply Chain?

A

A network of organizations and processes for producing and delivering products or services.

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50
Q

What is a Vulnerability Assessment?

A

A scan to detect weaknesses in systems and applications.

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51
Q

What is a Network Scanner?

A

A tool used to identify devices and services on a network.

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52
Q

What is an ARP Ping Scan?

A

Uses ARP requests to identify live hosts on a LAN.

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53
Q

What is an SYN Stealth Scan?

A

A port scan technique that sends SYN packets to probe for open ports without completing the connection.

54
Q

What is a Port Scan?

A

A method to identify open ports and services on a host.

55
Q

What is a Service Scan?

A

Detects active services and their versions on open ports.

56
Q

What is OS Detection?

A

Identifies the operating system running on a remote device.

57
Q

What is a Vulnerability Scanner?

A

A tool that identifies known security weaknesses in systems or networks.

58
Q

What is the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposure (CVE) list?

A

A list of publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities maintained by MITRE.

59
Q

What is the Common Vulnerability Scoring System?

A

A numeric rating (0-10) used to indicate the severity of vulnerabilities.

60
Q

What is the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)?

A

A suite of protocols for automating security assessments and compliance

61
Q

What are some good ways to Prioritize Vulnerabilities?

A

Vulnerability classification, Environmental variables, Industry/Organizational impact, Risk Tolerance/Threshold.

62
Q

What is typically the output of a vulnerability scan?

A

A list of hosts discovered, a detailed list of apps running on each host, a detailed list of open ports and services on each host, and a list of vulnerabilities discovered.

63
Q

What are Passive Testing Security Controls?

A

Non-intrusive security testing using logs, traffic analysis, and system behavior observation.

64
Q

What is a False Positive?

A

When a vulnerability scanner reports a host for a vulnerability it doesn’t actually have.

65
Q

What is a False Negative?

A

When a vulnerability scanner doesn’t report a host for a vulnerability it does actually have.

66
Q

What is a True Positive?

A

When a vulnerability scanner correctly identifies a vulnerability.

67
Q

What is a True Negative?

A

When a vulnerability scanner correctly identifies no vulnerability.

68
Q

What is a Credentialed Scan?

A

A vulnerability scan using valid credentials to assess internal system risks.

69
Q

What is a Non-credentialed Scan?

A

A scan without credentials to find vulnerabilities as an outsider would.

70
Q

What is a Configuration Compliance Scanner?

A

A tool that ensures systems meet security configuration standards.

71
Q

What is Penetration Testing?

A

Ethical hacking to test a system’s security by simulating real attacks.

72
Q

What is Physical Penetration Testing?

A

Security test by trying to gain unauthorized physical access.

73
Q

What is Offensive Penetration Testing?

A

Security testing by actively seeking and exploiting system vulnerabilities.

74
Q

What is Defensive Penetration Testing?

A

Tests how effectively defenses detect and respond to simulated attacks.

75
Q

What is Integrated Penetration Testing?

A

A full-scope test combining offensive, defensive, and other methods.

76
Q

What are Rules of Engagement?

A

Predefined terms outlining how a penetration test will be conducted.

77
Q

What is Reconnaissance? AKA footprinting.

A

Info gathering about a target before an attack.

78
Q

What is Passive Reconnaissance?

A

Gathering data without alerting or touching the target.

79
Q

What is Active Reconnaissance?

A

Interacting directly with a target to gather info.

80
Q

What is Network Reconnaissance and Discovery?

A

Mapping our devices and services on a network.

81
Q

What is an IP Scanner?

A

Tool to find active IPs in a network.

82
Q

What is Nmap?

A

A tool to scan networks, identify hosts, and find open ports.

83
Q

What is Netcat (nc)?

A

A network tool for data transfer, port scanning, and diagnostics.

84
Q

What is Scanless?

A

A tool to perform port scans using external servers to avoid detection.

85
Q

What is DNSenum?

A

A DNS recon tool that fins domains, records and transfers.

86
Q

What is Nessus?

A

A vulnerability scanner that detects weaknesses in systems and networks.

87
Q

What is Hping?

A

A network tool for creating custom TCP/IP packets for testing security.

88
Q

What is Sn1per?

A

An automated tool for network reconnaissance and vulnerability scanning.

89
Q

What is cURL?

A

A tool used to transfer data between servers, often used in penetration testing.

90
Q

What is Network Footprinting?

A

The process of gathering detailed info about a network for security assessments.

91
Q

What is Operating System (OS) Fingerprinting?

A

Gathering info about the operating system used in a network to identify vulnerabilies.

92
Q

What is Persistence?

A

The ability to maintain access to a compromised system over time.

93
Q

What is Lateral Movement?

A

The process of moving within a network to expand access or escalate privileges.

94
Q

What is Privilege Escalation?

A

Gaining higher access privileges on a system through exploits or misconfigurations.

95
Q

What is Pivoting?

A

Using a compromised system to attack other systems on the same network.

96
Q

What is Unknown Environment Testing?

A

Security testing done without prior knowledge of the system or infrastructure.

97
Q

What is Known Environment Testing?

A

Security testing conducted with full knowledge of the system and infrastructure.

98
Q

What is Partially Known Environment Testing?

A

Security testing with partial knowledge of the system or infrastructure.

99
Q

What is Cleanup?

A

The last step of a penetration test which includes removing all traces of the penetration tester’s activities from affected systems.

100
Q

What is a Responsible Disclosure (RD)?

A

Reporting vulnerabilities to organizations before making them public to allow time for fixes.

101
Q

What is a Bug Bounty?

A

A program that rewards individuals for identifying and reporting vulnerabilities in systems or software.

102
Q

What are System/Process Audits?

A

Evaluation of systems or processes for compliance with security standards and best practices.

103
Q

What is Intrusive Testing?

A

Testing where attacks are intentionally executed on a system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities.

104
Q

What is Non-Intrusive Testing?

A

Testing that does not interfere with or harm the system, often involving passive or scanning methods.

105
Q

What is Packet Capture?

A

Intercepting and recording network traffic to analyze data packets for security or troubleshooting.

106
Q

What is a Protocol Analyzer? AKA sniffer.

A

A tool that captures and analyzes network protocols to assess and troubleshoot network traffic.

107
Q

What is TCPreplay?

A

A tool that replays and manipulates network traffic for testing and vulnerability assessment.

108
Q

What is TCPdump?

A

A command-line tool used to capture and display network packet data.

109
Q

What is Netflow?

A

A network protocol for monitoring and analyzing traffic flow data to assess network performance.

110
Q

What is a Framework?

A

A structure used to provide a foundation.

111
Q

What is the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)?

A

An international organization that creates standards to ensure quality, safety, and efficiency.

112
Q

What is ISO 27001?

A

An international standard for information security management systems (ISMS).

113
Q

What is ISO 27002?

A

A set of best practice guidelines for implementing information security controls.

114
Q

What is ISO 27701?

A

An extension to ISO 27001 & 27002 focusing on privacy and personal data management.

115
Q

What is ISO 31000?

A

A standard for risk management, providing guidelines for systematic and structured risk management.

116
Q

What is the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)?

A

A U.S federal agency that develop standards and guidelines, especially for cybersecurity.

117
Q

What is the Risk Management Framework (RMF)?

A

A structured NIST approach for managing cybersecurity risks throughout the system life cycle using defined steps.

118
Q

What is RMF’s seven-step process to identify and mitigate risk?

A

Prepare, Categorize, Select, Implement, Access, Authorize, and Monitor.

119
Q

What is the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)?

A

A voluntary framework for managing and reducing cybersecurity risks using industry best practices.

120
Q

What are the three components of NIST’s CSF?

A

Core, Tiers, and Profile.

121
Q

In regards to NIST’s CSF, what is a Core?

A

A set of cybersecurity activities organized under Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover.

122
Q

In regards to NIST’s CSF, what is Tiers?

A

Levels that indicate how well an organization manages cybersecurity risk, from Partial (Tier 1) to Adaptive (Tier 4).

123
Q

In regards to NIST’s CSF, what is a Profile?

A

A tailored alignment of the CSF Core to match an organization’s unique risk tolerance and goals.

124
Q

What is Reference Architecture?

A

A standardized template or blueprint for designing and integrating systems securely.

125
Q

What are Audits?

A

A formal evaluation of a system to verify compliance with policies, standards, or regulations.

126
Q

What are External Audits?

A

A third-party evaluation of an organization’s compliance with standards or regulations.

127
Q

What are Internal Audits?

A

A self-conducted audit to monitor compliance and identify gaps internally.

128
Q

What is a Gap Analysis?

A

A comparison of current security practices to desired ones to identify missing controls.

129
Q

What are Assessments?

A

An informal evaluation to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses in an organization’s security.

130
Q

What is Attestation?

A

A formal statement declaring that an organization meets specific security standards or requirements.