Chapter 11: Implementing Policies to Mitigate Risks Flashcards

1
Q

What is Change Management?

A

A structured process for making and documenting changes to systems or data to reduce disruption and maintain security and compliance.

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2
Q

When it comes to Change Management, the following should be considered:

A

Having a formal approval process, defining Ownership/Responsibility, Stakeholder Analysis, Impact Analysis, Testing, A Backup Plan, and a Maintenance Window(s).

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3
Q

What is Documentation?

A

Records that detail system configurations, processes, policies, and changes to ensure transparency and aid in troubleshooting or audits.

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4
Q

What is Version Control?

A

A system that tracks changes to files and code, allowing you to revert to previous versions and collaborate safely.

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5
Q

What is Regulated Data?

A

Data protected by laws or standards due to its sensitive nature, requiring specific security and privacy controls.

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6
Q

What is Financial Information?

A

Sensitive data related to banking, transactions, taxes, or payroll that must be protected from fraud and unauthorized access.

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7
Q

What is Intellectual Property (IP)?

A

Creations of the mind that need protection from theft or unauthorized use.

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8
Q

What are Trade Secrets?

A

Proprietary business knowledge or processes that provide a competitive edge and must be kept confidential.

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9
Q

What is Legal Information?

A

Data related to legal matters that must be securely stored and accessed by authorized users only.

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10
Q

What are a Data Classification Systems?

A

A method to categorize data by sensitivity (e.g. public, internal, confidential, secret) to apply appropriate protections.

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11
Q

What is Sensitive Data?

A

Any data that must be protected due to potential harm if exposed, such as personal info, health records, or login credentials.

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12
Q

What are Permission Restrictions?

A

Limits placed on data access based on user roles or need-to-know principles to prevent unauthorized usage.

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13
Q

What are Geographic Restrictions?

A

Rules that limit access or storage of data to specific regions or countries, often for legal or compliance reasons.

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14
Q

What are Data Retention Policies?

A

Guidelines for how long data must be stored before being archived or securely deleted, often based on legal or business needs.

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15
Q

What is Data Sanitization?

A

The secure removal of data from devices or systems to prevent recovery, using methods like wiping, degaussing, or physical destruction.

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16
Q

What is Erasing and Overwriting?

A

Removing data by writing new data over it multiple time to prevent recovery, commonly used for hard drives.

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17
Q

What is File Shredding?

A

A software method that deleted files and then overwrites their storage locations to make unrecoverable.

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18
Q

What is Wiping?

A

The process of securely erasing an entire storage device by overwriting all sectors with random data.

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19
Q

What is Paper Shredding?

A

Physically cutting paper documents into fine strips or confetti to prevent data theft from discarded documents.

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20
Q

What is Burning?

A

Destroying paper documents by incineration to ensure the information cannot be reconstructed.

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21
Q

What is Pulping?

A

Mixing shredded paper with water and chemical to turn it into a slurry, making it impossible to reconstruct.

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22
Q

What is Pulverizing?

A

Physically smashing a storage device into pieces so it can no longer function or have data recovered.

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23
Q

What is Degaussing?

A

Using a strong magnetic field to erase data from magnetic storage devices by disrupting their magnetic domains.

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24
Q

What are Third-Party Solutions (to data sanitization)?

A

Professional services that specialize in secure data destruction through physical or digital means.

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25
Q

What is a Certificate of Destruction (COD)?

A

A formal document provided by a vendor confirming that data or devices were destroyed securely and in compliance with standards.

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26
Q

What is an Incident Response?

A

A structured approach to identifying, managing, and recovering from cybersecurity events or breaches.

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27
Q

What is a Data Breach?

A

An incident where sensitive, protected, or confidential data is accessed, stolen, or disclosed without authorization.

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28
Q

What is a Security Incident?

A

Any event that compromises CIA of information of systems.

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29
Q

What is an Incident Response Plan?

A

A predefined set of instruction and roles to follow when a security incident occurs to contain damage and recover quickly.

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30
Q

What are some common elements of an incident response plan?

A

Definition of incident types, incident response team, and roles and responsibilities.

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31
Q

What does the Incident Response Process look like?

A

Preparation, Detection, Analysis, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, and Lesson Learned.

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32
Q

What is a Communication Plan?

A

A part of IRP that outlines how information about the incident will be shared with stakeholders, staff, and possibly the public.

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33
Q

What are common elements included in a Communication Plan?

A

First Responders, Internal Communication, Reporting Requirements, External Communication, Law Enforcement, and Customer Communication.

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34
Q

What are Tabletop Exercises?

A

Simulated security incidents used to test response procedures, typically conducted in a meeting environment with key stakeholders.

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35
Q

What are Simulations?

A

Realistic, scenario-driven activities designed to practice and evaluate response to security incidents in a controlled environment.

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36
Q

What is Threat Hunting?

A

Proactively searching for hidden threats or malicious activity within an organization’s network or systems before they cause harm.

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37
Q

What is Digital Forensics?

A

The practice of collecting, analyzing, and preserving electronic data for investigative purposes, typically in legal cases.

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38
Q

What is the Order of Volatility?

A

The principle of collecting data in order of its volatility–more volatile data (like RAM) should be preserved first, as it may disappear quickly.

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39
Q

What is the most volatile to least volatile?

A

Cache, RAM, Swap file or pagefile, Disk, Attached devices, and Network.

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40
Q

What are Forensics Artifacts?

A

Digital traces (such as logs, timestamps, file metadata) that can be analyzed to uncovered evidence of malicious activity or incidents.

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41
Q

Why are Snapshots important in Data Acquisition?

A

Security experts use snapshots to capture memory (including cache and RAM).

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42
Q

What is a Legal Hold?

A

A directive to preserve relevant data for legal or investigative purposes, preventing data from being altered or deleted.

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43
Q

What is eDiscovery?

A

The process of identifying, collecting, and reviewing electronic data for use in legal investigations or proceedings.

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44
Q

What is Chain of Custody?

A

A documented record showing the chronological handling of evidence, ensuring its integrity in court.

45
Q

What is Security, Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR)?

A

A platform that integrates security tools and automates incident response processes to improve efficiency and consistency in handling security threats.

46
Q

What is a Playbook?

A

A set of predefined procedures or best practices for responding to common cybersecurity incidents, often automated in SOAR systems.

47
Q

What is a Runbook?

A

A detailed, step-by-step guide for resolving specific incidents or performing routine tasks, often used by IT or security operations teams.

48
Q

What is Security Governance?

A

The framework of policies, processes, and controls that guide and ensure the effective management of security within an organization.

49
Q

What Governance Structures?

A

The organizational hierarchy, roles, and responsibilities defined to oversee and enforce security policies, procedures, and regulations.

50
Q

What are Boards?

A

Groups of individuals, often at the executive level, responsible for overseeing the organization’s strategic direction, including cybersecurity initiatives and governance.

51
Q

What are Committees?

A

Groups of individuals within an organization designed to focus on specific issues, such as cybersecurity, risk management, or compliance.

51
Q

What are Government Entities?

A

Regulatory bodies and agencies at the local, state, or national levels that set standards and enforce laws related to cybersecurity, privacy, and data protection.

52
Q

What is a Centralized Governance Structure?

A

A management framework where decision-making and responsibility for security policies and procedures are concentrated in a central body or team.

53
Q

What are Decentralized Structures?

A

A management approach where decision-making and responsibility for security policies and practices are distributed across multiple teams, or departments within the organization.

54
Q

What are some External Considerations that organizations need to consider?

A

Regulatory requirements, Legal obligations, Industry standards, and the security environment at the local, regional, national, and global levels.

55
Q

What are Security Policies?

A

Formalized documents that define an organization’s security objectives, strategies, and rules, guiding how sensitive data and resources are protected.

56
Q

What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUPs)?

A

A document outlining acceptable and prohibited activities regarding the use of an organization’s IT resources and network ,ensuring compliance with security protocols.

57
Q

What is Information Security Policy?

A

A policy that specifies how an organization protects its information assets, including requirements for confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

58
Q

What are Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Policies?

A

Guidelines and strategies for ensuring critical business functions can continue during and after a disruptive event, and for recovering from disasters.

59
Q

What are Incident Response Policies?

A

Protocols and procedures to follow when responding to cybersecurity incidents, ensuring a swift, coordinated, and effective response to minimize impact.

60
Q

What are Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) policies?

A

Guidelines that dictate the secure development, testing, deployment, and maintenance of software, integrating security practices throughout the software development lifecycle.

61
Q

What are Change Management policies?

A

Rules and procedures that govern how changes to IT systems, configurations, or processes are requested, evaluated, approved and implemented to reduce risk and maintain stability.

62
Q

What are Security Standards?

A

Formal, mandatory rules derived from policies that define consistent security requirements across systems and environment.

63
Q

What are some common security standards?

A

Password standards, Access control standards, Physical security standards, and Encryption standards.

64
Q

What are Security Procedures?

A

Step-by-step instructions detailing how to implement specific security controls or tasks consistently and safely.

65
Q

What are some examples of Security Procedures?

A

Change Management procedures, Onboarding procedures, and Offboarding procedures.

66
Q

What are Security Guidelines?

A

Recommended (but not mandatory) best practices designed to help staff make informed decisions about security in situations not covered by formal policies.

67
Q

What is Data Governance?

A

A framework of policies, roles, standards, and processes that ensure high data quality, security, availability, and proper management throughout the data lifecycle.

68
Q

What is Critical Data?

A

Information vital to business operations or compliance that, if lost or compromised, could significantly impact the organization.

69
Q

What is a Data Owner?

A

The person or role responsible for data’s classification, use, and access rules–often accountable for ensuring data is handled according to policy.

70
Q

What is a Data Steward?

A

Responsible for maintaining data quality and consistency, ensuring data is accurate, complete, and used properly across systems.

71
Q

What is a Data Custodian?

A

Handles the day-to-day management of data infrastructure and storage, including backups and access controls–but does not define data usage.

72
Q

What is a Data Controller?

A

Entity or person that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data.

73
Q

What is a Data Processor?

A

Entity or individual that processes data on behalf of the data controller.

74
Q

What is Monitoring?

A

The continuous checking of the effectiveness of the organization’s security measures.

75
Q

What is Revision?

A

Adjusting policies, standards, and procedures as needed based on the results of monitoring.

76
Q

What is Third-Party Risk Management?

A

The process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating security and compliance risks posed by vendors, partners, or contractors with access to systems or data.

77
Q

What is the Supply Chain?

A

The interconnected system of organizations, people, activities, and resources involved in producing and delivering a product or service.

78
Q

What is a Supply Chain analysis?

A

The examination and mapping of the supply chain to identify potential vulnerabilities, single points of failure, or risks from third parties.

79
Q

What is Vendor Diversity?

A

Using a variety of vendors from different backgrounds or regions to reduce risk, promote competition, avoid vendor lock-in, and improve supply chain resilience.

80
Q

What is End of Life (EOL)?

A

The point when a vendor no longer sells or supports a product. No new features or updates are released.

81
Q

What is End of Service Life (EOSL)?

A

The final stage when the vendor stops providing any technical support, security updates, or patches–posing security risks if still in use.

82
Q

What is Right-to-Audit clause?

A

A contract clause allowing one party to audit the other’s compliance with security, privacy, or contractual obligations, especially in third-party relationships.

83
Q

What is Penetration Testing?

A

A simulated cyberattack authorized by an organization to identify and exploit vulnerabilities in systems, networks, or apps.

84
Q

What is Due Diligence?

A

The investigation or evaluation of a third party or process before entering a business agreement–often involves reviewing security, legal, and financial risks.

85
Q

What are Conflicts of interest?

A

A situation where a person or organization has competing interests or loyalties that could interfere with objective decision-making.

86
Q

What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A

A formal agreement that defines the expected service standards (like uptime or response times) and consequences for failure to meet them.

87
Q

What is a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)? AKA memorandum of Agreement (MOA)?

A

A non-binding agreement between parties that outlines terms and intentions of a partnership or cooperation, often a precursor to formal contracts.

88
Q

What is a Business Partner Agreement?

A

A legally binding contract outlining the roles, responsibilities, and expectations between business partners in a collaboration.

89
Q

What is a Non-disclosure Agreement?

A

A contract that legally binds parties to keep specified information confidential and not share it without permission.

90
Q

What is a Master Services Agreement?

A

A broad contract that sets the general terms of a business relationship; individual projects are defined under separate agreements like SOWs or work orders.

91
Q

What are Work Orders (WO)?

A

Short documents specifying work to be done under an MSA or other agreement–typically includes timeline, cost, and deliverables.

92
Q

What are Statement of Work (SOW)?

A

A detailed document outlining the specific tasks, deliverables, and timeline for a project within the scope of a larger contract like an MSA.

93
Q

What are Rules of Engagement?

A

Guidelines that define how penetration testing is to be carried out, including scope, timing, and communication protocols.

94
Q

What are Data Subjects?

A

Individuals whose personal data is being collected, processed or stored by a data controller or processor.

95
Q

What is the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)?

A

A U.S law that protects sensitive patient health information by setting data privacy and security standards for healthcare providers and insurers.

96
Q

What is the Gramm-Leach Bliley Act (GLBA)?

A

A U.S law that requires financial institutions to explain data-sharing practices, protect personal data, and provide privacy notices to customers.

97
Q

What is the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?

A

A comprehensive EU privacy law that gives individuals control over their personal data and requires organizations to follow strict data protection practices.

98
Q

What are Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)?

A

A set of security standards for organizations that handle credit card information, designed to ensure secure processing, storage, and transmission of cardholder data.

99
Q

In regards to monitoring and reporting, what is Due Diligence?

A

The ongoing effort to research and evaluate risks before taking actions–such as assessing third parties, systems, or procedures–to make informed decisions.

100
Q

In regards to monitoring and reporting, what is Due Care?

A

The actions taken after identifying risks–like implementing appropriate safeguards–to demonstrate responsible behavior and adherence to security best practices.

101
Q

In regards to monitoring and reporting, what is Attestation?

A

A formal declaration (often written or digital) that confirms a system, control, or process meets required standards or policies.

102
Q

In regards to monitoring and reporting, what is Acknowledgement?

A

A user’s or employee’s formal confirmation that they’ve read, understood, and agreed to follow specific policies, training, or procedures.

103
Q

What is the Right to be Forgotten?

A

A legal right (especially under the GDPR) allowing individuals to request deletion of their personal data from an organization’s systems when it’s no longer needed.

104
Q

What is Data Inventory?

A

A complete and organized record of all data assets within an organization, including where data is stored, how it’s used, and who has access to it.

105
Q

What is Data Retention?

A

Policies and procedures that dictate how long data is kept, stored, or archived based on legal, regulatory, or business requirements.

106
Q

What is Security Awareness?

A

Programs that educate employees about the risks and tactics associated with social engineering.

107
Q

What is Computer-based Training (CBT)?

A

Interactive digital training delivered through a computer system–commonly used for employee security awareness, compliance, and skills development.

108
Q

What are Phishing Campaigns?

A

Simulated phishing attacks sent to employees to test and improve their awareness and response to social engineering threats.