Chapter 8-9 Flashcards

1
Q

Uses only two primary neurotransmitters, acetylcholine and norepinephrine .

A

ANS

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2
Q

Contains powerful networks of inhibitory neurons that are constantly active in modulating the rate of neuronal transmission

A

CNS

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3
Q

How do neurons in the CNS and ANS function similarly?

A

Both involve the release of neurotransmitters that diffuse across the synaptic space to bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.

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4
Q

What triggers intracellular changes in neurons?

A

The recognition of the neurotransmitter by the membrane receptor of the postsynaptic neuron.

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5
Q

What is a major difference between the CNS and ANS?

A

The circuitry of the CNS is much more complex than that of the ANS.

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6
Q

How does the number of synapses in the CNS compare to that in the ANS?

A

The number of synapses in the CNS is far greater than in the ANS.

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7
Q

Neurotransmitters can be classified a either ____ or ____ depending on the nature of the action they elicit

A

Excitatory or inibitory

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8
Q

Stimulation of this neuron causes the release of neurotransmitter molecules such as glutamate or acetylcholine

A

Excitatory neurons

footnote
Stimulation of excitatory neurons cases a movement of ions that results in a depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.

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9
Q

The stimulation of this neurons cases movement of ions that resultss in a hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

A

Inhibitory neurons

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10
Q

When glutamate or acetylcholine bind to receptors what happens

A

Causes transient increase in the permeablity of Na+ ions

footnote
Influx of ions causes weak depolarization or EPSP that moves the postsynaptic potential towards its firing threshold

Generating an allor-none action potential

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11
Q

Stimulation of inhibitory neurons releases what neurotransmitters

A

GABA or glyciine - which binds to receptors

footnote
When binded this causes a transient increase in the permeability or ions like K+ and Cl+

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12
Q

Influx of Cl+ and efflux of K+ causes a

A

Weak hyperpolarization

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13
Q

What are some of he neurodegenerative diseases of the CNS?

A

Parkinson’s disease
Alzheimer’s disease
MS
ALS

footnote
These illnesses are characterized by the progressive loss of selected neurons in discrete brain areas, resulting in characteristic disorders of movement, cognition, or both

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14
Q

A progressive neurological disorder of muscle movements, characterized by tremors, muscular rigidity, bradykinesia and postural and gait abnormalities

A

Parkinsonism

footnote
Postural and gait abnormalities refer to deviations from normal walking patterns and body alignment

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15
Q

Slowness in initiating and carrying out voluntary movements

A

bradykinesia

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16
Q

Part of the extrapyramidal system, the source f dopaminergic neurons that terminate neostriatum

A

Substantia nigra

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17
Q

Is connected to the substantia nigra by neurons that secrete the inhibitory tranmitter GABA

A

neostriatum

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18
Q

Destruction of cells in the substantia nigra results in the degeneration of the nerve terminals that secrete dopamine in the neostriatum

A

Parkinson’s disease

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19
Q

What drugs may produce parkinsonian symptoms (also called pseudoparkinsonism)

A

Drugs such as phenothiazines ad haloperidol

Major pharmacological action of these drugs is the blockade of dopamine receptors in the brain

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20
Q

Is a metabolic precursor of dopamine

A

Levidopa

  • It ennhance the synthesis of dopamine in the surviving neurons in the substantia nigra restoring dopaminergic neurotransmission in the neostriatum
  • an extremely short life which causes fluctuations in plasma concentration

-shoulld be taken 30 mins b4 meal

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21
Q

Levidopa is greatly enhanced by

A

Carbidopa

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22
Q

A dopamine decarboxylase inhibitor that does not cross the blood brain barrier

A

carbidopa

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23
Q

An efficacious drug regimen for the treatment of parkinson’s disease

A

Levidopa carbidopa

Reduces the severity of symptoms for the first few years of treatment.

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24
Q

Some of the adverse effects of levodopa

A

Anorexia
Nausea
vomiting
Positive reaction to coombs test
Saliva and urine are brownish
Mydriasis
Mood swings
Depression
anxiety

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25
Q

This drugs are generally contraindicated in parkinson’s disease

A

Antipsychotic drugs

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26
Q

What are sometimes used to treat levodopa-induced psychotic symptoms

A

Low doses of atypical anipsychotics

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27
Q

What vitamin increases the peripheral breakdown of levodopa and diminishes its effectiveness

A

Vitamin pyridoxine (b6)

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28
Q

What produces a hypertensive crisis cause by cathecolamine production

A

Levodopa and nonselective MAOIs (phenelzine)

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29
Q

Seleginline is also called

A

deprenyl

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30
Q

Selectively inhibits monoamine oxidase type B at lw moderate doses

A

selegiline

MAO type B - metabolizes dopamine
MAO type A - metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin

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31
Q

Selegiline is metabolized to

A

Methamphetamine and amphetamine

Stimulating properties may produce insomnia if the drug is administered later than mid-afternoon

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32
Q

An irreversible and selective inhibitor of brain MAO type B

A

rasagiline

  • Has five times the potency of selegiline
  • not metabolized to a amphetamine like substance
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33
Q

What is the minor pathway for levodopa metabolism

A

Levodopa by catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-O-methyldopa

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34
Q

Selectively and reversibly inhibit COMT

A

Entacapone and tolcapone

Leads to decrease plasma concentration of 3-0-methyldpa
Increased uptake of levodopa
Greater concentrations of brain dopamine

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35
Q

What anti parkinsonian compounds are ergot derivative

A

Bromocriptine

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36
Q

This toxicity does not exhibit in entacapone. It is associated with tolcapone use

A

Fulminating hepatic necrosis

Liver cell death

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37
Q

Nonergot derivatives that are orally active agents

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

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38
Q

What are the nonergot drugs

A

Ropinirole
Pramipexole
Rotigotine
Apomorphine

These agents have a longer duration of action than that f levodopa

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39
Q

An injectable dopamine agonist that is used in severe and advanced stags of the disease

A

apomorphine

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40
Q

Used for the acute management of the hypomotility “off” phenomenon in advanced

A

Apomorphine

Off - times when it drops?

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41
Q

It is administered as a once daily transdermal patch that provides even drug levels over 24 hours

A

rotigotine

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42
Q

Inhibits Rena tubular secretion of organic bases and may increase the half-life of pramipexole

A

cimetidine

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43
Q

What may inhibit the metabolism of ropinirole that may require adjusting the dosage of it

A

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics and other inhibitors of the CTP450 1A2 isoenzyme

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44
Q

An antiviral drug that has an anti parkinsonian action

A

amantadine

It s used to treat influenza
- at high doses it may induce acute toxic psychosis
Also hypotension, urinary retention, peripheral edema, dry mouth

45
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

If dopamine release is already at a maximum, amantadine has still an effect

A

FALSE
## footnote
Amantadine has no effect

46
Q

Antimuscarinic agents used in parkinson’s disease

A

Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl, procyclidine, biperiden

These agents can induce mood changes and produce xerostomia

Contraindicated in patients with glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia, pyloric stenosis

48
Q

3 features of Alzheimer’s disease

A

Accumulation of senile plaques - b-amylois accumulations
Formation of numerous neurofibrillary tangles
Loss of cortical neurons

49
Q

What are the AChE inhibitors approved for treatment of mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Donepezl
Galantamine
Rivastagmine

50
Q

This may also augment the action of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors in the CNS

A

Galantamine

51
Q

The only agent approved for the management of dementia associated with parkinson’s disease

A

Rivstigmine

Also the only AChE inhibitor available as a transdermal formulation
- hydrolyzed by AChE to a carbamylate metabolite

52
Q

It acts by blocking the NMDA receptor and limiting Ca2+ influx into the neuron

A

Memantine

  • an NMDA receptor antagonist for moderate to severe Alzheimer’s
  • often give with AChEE inhibitor
53
Q

An autoimmune inflammatory demyelinating disease of the CNS

A

Multiple sclerosis

54
Q

What has been used to treat acute exacerbation of MS

A

Corticosteroids

Dexamethasone
Prednisone

55
Q

What are the chemotherapeutic agents that is also used in MS

A

Cyclophosphamide
Azathioprine

56
Q

Help diminish the inflammatory response that lead t demyelination of the axon sheaths

A

Interferon B1a and B1b

Adverse effects may include depression, injection site reactions, hepatic enzyme increase and flu like symptoms

57
Q

A systhentic polypeptide that resembles myelin protein and may act as a decoy to T-cell attack

A

Glatiramer

Adverse effects
Flushing
Chest paint
Itching
Anxiety

58
Q

An oral drug that alters lymphocyte migration, resulting in fewer lymphocytes I the CNS

A

Fingolimod

May cause first-dose bradycardia
Associated with increased risk of infection and macular edema

60
Q

An oral pyimidne synthesis inhibitor that leads to lower concentration of active lymphocytes in the CNS

A

Teriflunomide
## footnote
Cause elevated liver enzymes
Should be avoided in pregnancy

61
Q

Oral agent that may alter the cellular response to oxidative stress to reduce disease progression

A

Dimethyl fumarate

Flushing and abdominal pain - adverse effects

62
Q

Monoclonal antibody indicated for MS in patients who have failed first-line therapies

A

natalizumab

63
Q

Cytotoxic anthracycline analog that kills t cells and may also be used for MS

A

Mitoxantrone

64
Q

An orall potassium channel blocker that improves walking speeds with patients with MS

A

Dalfampridine

65
Q

Progressive degeneration of motor neurons resulting inabilty to initiate orcontrolmuscle movement

A

ALS - amyotrophiclateral sclerosis

66
Q

An NMDA receptor antagonist
Only drug for ALS
Act by inhibiting glutamate release and blocking sodium channels

A

Riluzole
## footnote
May improve survival time and delay the need fr ventilator support

67
Q

Which one of the following combinations of antiparkin
sonian drugs is an appropriate treatment plan?
A. Amantadine, carbidopa, and entacapone.
B. Levodopa, carbidopa, and entacapone.
C. Pramipexole, carbidopa, and entacapone.
D. Ropinirole, selegiline, and entacapone.
E. Ropinirole, carbidopa, and selegiline.

A

Correct answer = B.
## footnote
To reduce the dose of levodopa and its
peripheral side effects, the peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor,
carbidopa, is coadministered. As a result of this combination,
more levodopa is available for metabolism by catechol-O
methyltransferase (COMT) to 3-0-methyldopa, which com
petes with levodopa for the active transport processes into
the CNS. By administering entacapone (an inhibitor of
COMT), the competing product is not formed, and more
levodopa enters the brain. The other choices are not appro
priate, because neither peripheral decarboxylase nor COMT
nor monoamine oxidase metabolizes amantadine or the
direct-acting dopamine agonists, ropinirole and pramipexole.

68
Q

Peripheral adverse effects of levodopa, including
nausea, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias, can be
diminished by including which of the following drugs in
the therapy?
A. Amantadine.
B. Ropinirole.
C. Carbidopa.
D. Tolcapone.
E. Pramipexole.

A

Correct answer = C.
## footnote
carbidopa inhibits the peripheral
decarboxylation of levodopa to dopamine, thereby dimin
ishing the gastrointestinal and cardiovascular side effects of
levodopa. The other agents listed do not ameliorate adverse
effects of levodopa.

69
Q

3 Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs may cause
vasospasm?
A. Amantadine.
B. Bromocriptine.
C. Carbidopa.
D. Entacapone.
E. Ropinirole.

A

Correct answer = B.

Bromocriptine is a dopamine receptor
agonist that may cause vasospasm. It is contraindicated in
patients with peripheral vascular disease. Ropinirole directly
stimulates dopamine receptors, but it does not cause vaso
spasm. The other drugs do not act directly on dopamine
receptors.

70
Q

Modest improvement in the memory of patients with
Alzheimer’s disease may occur with drugs that increase
ransmission at which of the following receptors?
À. Adrenergic.
B. Cholinergic.
C. Dopaminergic.
D. GABAergic.
E. Serotonergic.

A

Correct answer = B.

AChE inhibitors, such as rivastigmine,
increase cholinergic transmission in the CNS and may
cause a modest delay in the progression of Alzheimer’s dis
ease. Increased transmission at the other types of recep
tors listed does not result in improved memory.

71
Q

Which medication is a glutamate receptor antagonist that
can be used in combination with an acetylcholinesterase
inhibitor to manage the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Rivastigmine.
B. Ropinirole.
C. Fluoxetine.
D. Memantine.
E. Donepezil.

A

Correct answer = D.
When combined with an acetylcholin
esterase inhibitor, memantine has modest efficacy in keep
ing patients with Alzheimer’s disease at or above baseline
for at least 6 months and may delay disease progression.

72
Q

Which of the following agents is available as a patch
for once-daily use and is likely to provide steady drug
levels to treat Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Rivastigmine.
B. Donepezil.
C. Memantine.
D. Galantamine.
E. Glatirame-

A

Correct answer = A.
Rivastigmine is the only agent avail
able as a transdermal delivery system for the treatment of
Alzheimer’s disease. It may also be used for dementia asso
ciated with Parkinson’s disease.

73
Q

Which of the following is the only medication that is
approved for the management of amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis?
A. Pramipexole.
B. Selegiline.
C. Galantamine.
D. Riluzole.
E. Glatiramer.

A

Correct answer = D. Riluzole continues to be the only agent
FDA approved for the debilitating and lethal illness of ALS.
It is used to, ideally, delay the progression and need for ven
tilator support in severe patients.

74
Q

Which of the following medications reduces immune
system-mediated inflammation via inhibition of
pyrimidine synthesis to reduce the number of activated
lymphocytes in the CNS?
A. Riluzole.
B. Rotigotine.
C. Teriflunomide.
D. Dexamethasone.

A

Correct answer =C. Teriflunomide is believed to exert its
disease modifying and anti-inflammatory effects by inhibit
ing the enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase to reduce
pyrimidine synthesis.

75
Q

Which of the following agents may cause tremors as
a side effect and, thus, should be used with caution in
patients with Parkinson’s disease, even though it is also
indicated for the treatment of dementia associated with
Parkinson’s disease?
A. Benztropine.
B. Rotigotine.
C. Rivastigmine.
D. Dimethyl fumarate.

A

Correct answer = C. Though rivastigmine is an acetyl
cholinesterase inhibitor, which can cause tremors as an
adverse effect, its use is not contraindicated in patients with
Parkinson’s disease, as this agent is also the only medi
cation approved for dementia associated with Parkinson’s
disease. It should be used with caution, as it may worsen
the parkinsonian-related tremors. A risk-benefit discussion
should occur with the patient and the caregiver before rivastigmine is used.

76
Q

(10 Which of the following agents exerts its therapeutic
effect in multiple sclerosis via potassium channel
blockade?
A. Dalfampridine.
B. Donepezil.
C. Riluzole.
D. Bromocriptine.

A

Correct answer = A. Dalfampridine is a potassium channel
blocker and is the only agent that is indicated to improve
walking speed in patients with MS.

77
Q

An unpleasant state of tension,apprehension, or uneasiness

A

Anxiety

Symptoms include tachycardia sweating trembling palpitations

78
Q

Antianxiety drugs are also called

A

anxiolytics

79
Q

Widely used anxiolytic drugs

A

benzodiazepines

Not necessarily best choice for insomnia and anxiety

80
Q

Targets for benzodiazepines receptors

A

GABA receptors

81
Q

A muscle relaxant that is believed to affect GABA receptors at the level of the spinal cord

82
Q

Log acting benzodiazepine

A

Clorazepate
Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam
Flurazepam
quazepam

83
Q

Intermediate acting benzodiazepine

A

Alprazolam
Estazolam
Lorazepam
temazepam

84
Q

Short acting benzodiazepine

A

Oxazepam
triazolam

85
Q

Drug for patients experiencing frequent wakening

A

Temazepam

  • occurs 1 to 3 hours after an oral dose
86
Q

Effective in treating individuals who have difficulty in ginng to sleep

87
Q

A benzodiazepine used to facilitate amnesia while causing sedation prior to anesthesia

88
Q

Used as a adjuctinve therapy for certain types of seizures

A

clonazepam

89
Q

DOC in terminating status epilepticus

A

Lorazepam and diazepam

90
Q

Useful in the acute treatment of alcohol withdrawal and reduce the risk of withdrawal related seizures

A

Chlordiazepoxide
Clorazepate
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Oxazepam

91
Q

Useful in the treatment of skeletal muscle spams

92
Q

Benzodiazepines are rapidly absorbed because they are

A

Lipophilic

93
Q

A GABA receptors antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of benzodiazepine

A

flumazenil

  • IV administration only
  • may precipitate withdrawal in dependent patients or cause seizures
94
Q

May be used alone or combination with a low dose of a benzodiazepine during the first weeks of treatment

A

SSRIs and SNRIs

95
Q

Useful for the chronic treatment of GAD

A

Buspirone

  • mediated by serotonin
  • lacks anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant properties
96
Q

Ultra short acting barbiturate that induce anesthesia

97
Q

May be used for the treatment of refractory status epilepticus

A

Phenobarbital
- has a specific anticonvulsant activity

98
Q

Used as a sedative to assist in the management of tension-type or migraine headaches

A

Butalbital

99
Q

Combined with butalbital

A

Acetaminophen
Caffeine
Aspirin
caffeine

100
Q

Selectively benzodiazepine , no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxing properties

101
Q

May shorten shor-lfie of zopidem

102
Q

Similar to zolpidem , causes fewer residual effects

103
Q

A nonbenzodiazepine hypnotoc effective for insomnia, rapidly absorbed

A

eszopiclone

104
Q

A selective agonist at the MT1 and MT2 subtypes of melatonin receptors

A

ramelteon

Treatment of insomnia, difficulty falling sleep

105
Q

Antihistamine with setting prperties

A

Diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine and doxylamine

  • treating mild types of situational insomia
106
Q

Sedating antidepressants with strong antihistamine profiles

107
Q

Long acting barbiturates

A

phenobarbital

108
Q

Short acting barbiturates

A

Pentobarbital
Secobarbital
amobarbital

109
Q

Ultra short acting

A

Thiopental