Chapter 17 to 19 Flashcards

1
Q

Defined as either a sustained systolic blood pressure of greater than 140 mm Hg or a sustained diastolic blood pressure of greater than 90 mm Hg.

A

Hypertension

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2
Q

This results from increased peripheral vascular arterioral smooth muscle tone, which leads to increased peripheral vascular arteriolar resistance and reduced capacitance of the venous system.

A

hypertension

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3
Q

Have a higher incidence of hypertension than do both non-hispanic whites and Hispanic whites

A

Non-hispanic black

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4
Q

What controls cardiac output and peripheral resistance

A

Baroreflexes and the renin angiotensin aldosterone system

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5
Q

Most antihypertensive drugs lower blood pressure by (increasing, reducing) cardiac and/or (increasing/decreasing) peripheral resistance

A

Reducing, decreasing

Reducing cardiac output - slowing the heart rate
Decreasing peripheral resistance - relaxing blood vessels

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6
Q

Arterial blood pressure is (indirectly, directly) proportional to cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance

A

Directly

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7
Q

Acts by changing the activity of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Baroreflexes

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8
Q

Responsible for the rapid, moment-to-moment regulation of blood pressure

A

Baroreflexes

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9
Q

How does sympathetic nervous system respond to a drop in blood pressure

A

Vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output

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10
Q

Provides long-term control of blood pressure by altering the blood volume

A

kidney

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11
Q

In response to reduced arterial pressure, baroreceptors in the kidney releases what enzyme

A

renin

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12
Q

What increases renin releases

A

Low sodium intake and greater sodium loss

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13
Q

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

renin

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14
Q

Is a potent circulating vasoconstrictor, constricting both arterioles and veins, resulting in a increase in blood pressure

A

Angiotensin II

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15
Q

Lowering of even moderately elevated blood pressure significantly (increases reduces) cardiovascular disease

A

reduces

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16
Q

Start two antihypertensives simultaneously when

A

Patients with systolic blood pressure greater than 160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg

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17
Q

Most common reasono for failure of antihypertensive therapy

A

Lack of patient compliance

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18
Q

B-blockers can cause adverse effects in male like

A

Sexual dysfunction

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19
Q

Can be used as initial dug therapy for hypertension unless there are compelling reasons to choose another agent

A

Thiazide diuretics

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20
Q

Lowers blood pressure initially by increasing sodium and water excretion

This causes a decrease in extracellular volume, resulting in a decrease cardiac output and renal blood flow

A

Thiazide diuretics

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21
Q

Can induce hypokalemia, hyperuricemia and hyperglycemia in some patients

Hyperuricemia - high level of uric acid in blood

A

Thiazide diuretics

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22
Q

Act promptly by blocking sodium and chloride reabsorption in the kidneys, even in patients with poor renal function or those who have not responded to thiazide diuretics

A

Loop diuretics

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23
Q

Cause decreased renal vascular resistance and increased in renal blood flow

A

Loop diuretics

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24
Q

Unlike thiazides, this diuretics can increase the Ca2+ content of urine

A

Loop diuretics

Thiazide diuretics decrease the Ca2+ content of urine

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25
Q

These are rarely used alone to treat hypertension, but are commonly used to manage symptoms of heart failure and edema

A

Loop diuretics

Edema - build up of fluid on the body

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26
Q

This diuretics reduce potassium loss in the urine

A

Potassium sparring diuretics

Aldosterone receptor antagonist

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27
Q

Are sometimes used in combination with loop diuretics and thiazides to reduce the amount of potassium loss induced by these diuretics

A

Potassium-sparring diuretics

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28
Q

These are treatment option for hypertensive patients with concomitant heart disease or heart failure

A

B-blockers

Concomitant - accompanying

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29
Q

What is the action of b-blockers as antihypertensives

A

– reduce blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output
- may also decrease sympathetic outflow from the CNS
- inhibit release of renin from the kidneys, thus decreasing the formation of angiotensin II and secretion of aldosterone

– Beta-blockers inhibit renin release from the kidneys, which reduces the production of angiotensin II.
- Decreasing formation of angiotensin II = less aldosterone secretion
- Less aldosterone secretion, so the body excretes more sodium and water, reducing blood volume and further lowering blood pressure.
- Too much aldosterone can cause high BP

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30
Q

Which drug acts as both b1 and b2 blcoker

A

Propranolo

Nonselective blockers like propranolol and nadolol, are contraindicated in patients with asthma due to their blockade of b2-mediated bronchodilation.

B-blockers should be used cautiously to patients with aute heart failure or peripheral vascular disease

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31
Q

What are some selective b1 blockers

A

Metoprolol
Atenolol

MANBABE

This two are among the most commonly prescribed b-blockers

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32
Q

A selective b1 blockers that also increases the production of nitric oxide, leading to vasodilation.

A

Nebivolol

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33
Q

Is the only drug in ACE inhibitor class available intravenously

A

Enalaprilat

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34
Q

True or false

Dry cough side effect of ACE inhibitors occurs more frequently in men

A

FALSE
## footnote
It occurs requetly in woman

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35
Q

An adverse effect of ACE inhibitors which occurs in up to 10% patients, that is thought to be due to increased levels o bradykinin and subtance P in the pulmonary tree

A

Dry cough

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36
Q

Hypertension with no identifiable cause

A

Essential hypertension

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36
Q

Can induce fetal malformations ad hsoldnot be used by pregnant women

A

ACE inhibitors

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37
Q

These are alternatives to ACE inhibitors

A

ARBs (angiotensin II receptor blockers)

ARBs pharmacological effects are similar to those of ACE inhibitors

ARBs do not increase bradykinin levels.

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38
Q

A rare but potentially life-threatening reaction that may also be due to increased levels of bradykinin

A

angioedema

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39
Q

The adverse effects of ARBs is similar to ACE inhibitors although the risk of _______ are decreased

A

Cough and angioedema

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40
Q

Can ARBs and ACE be combined to use as treatment?

A

No, due to similar mechanisms and adverse effects

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41
Q

Directly inhibits renin

A

Aliskiren

Acts earlier in the renin angiotensin aldosterone system than ACE inhibitors and ARBs

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42
Q

B-blockers that are available in intravenousformultions

A

Esmolol
Metoprolol
Propranolol

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43
Q

This can also cause cough and angioedema but less often than ACE inhibitors

A

Aliskiren - renin inhibitor

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44
Q

Aliskiren is metabolized by

A

CYP 3A4

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45
Q

Are recommended treatment option in hypertensive patients with diabetes or angina

A

calcium channel blockers

Angina - chest pain

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46
Q

Three classes of calcium channel blockers

A

Diphenylalkylamines
Benzothiazepines
Dihydropyrodines

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47
Q

It is the least selective of any calcium channel blockers and has significant effects on both cardiac and vascular smooth muscle cells

A

Verapamil

It is also use to treat angina and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and to prevent migraine and cluster headaches

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48
Q

it is the only member of benzothiazepines that is currently approved in United States

A

Diltiazem

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49
Q

Like verapamil, Diltiazem also affects both cardiac and vascular smooth muscles. What is their difference

A

Diltiazem is less negative inotropic effect on the heart compared to that of verapamil. It has also favorable side effect profile.

Diltiazem has a weaker negative inotropic effect than Verapamil, making it a safer option in patients who need calcium channel blockers but cannot tolerate strong heart suppression.

50
Q

The prototype b blocker is

A

propranolol

51
Q

The prototype of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

A

Nifedipine

52
Q

Have much greater affinity for vascular calcium channels than for calcium channel in the heart they are, therefore, Beneficial in treating hypertension

A

Dihydropyridines

Have the advantage in that they show little interaction with other cardiovascular drugs .

53
Q

Block the inward movement of calcium by binding to L-type calcium channels in the heart and in smooth muscle of the coronary peripheral arteriolar vasculature

A

Calcium channel antagonists

55
Q

May be administered cautiously to hypertensive patients with asthma

A

Selective b-blockers

56
Q

This type of dosage form of b-blockers may take several weeks to develop their full effects

A

Oral b-blockers

57
Q

What are some common adverse effects of b-blockers

A

May cause
- bradycardia
- hypotension
- CNS side effects like fatigue, lethargy, and insomnia
- decrease libido
- cause eretile dysfunction

Bradycardia - slow heart rate
Hypotension - low BP
Libido - sexual drive

58
Q

What b-blockers may disturb lipid metabolism?

A

Noncardioselective b-blokers

59
Q

Are recommended as first-line treatment of hypertension in patients with a variety of compelling indications, including stroke, diabetes, heart failure

A

ACE inhibitors

60
Q

This drugs lower blood pressure by reducing peripheral vascular resistance without reflexively increasing cardiac output

A

ACE inhibitors

Increased PVR → Higher Blood Pressure (seen in hypertension).
Decreased PVR → Lower Blood Pressure (caused by vasodilators or exercise).

61
Q

Block the enzyme ACE which cleaves angiotensin I to form the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II

A

ACE inhibitors

ACE - ACE is an enzyme that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II, which narrows blood vessels (vasoconstriction) and increases blood pressure. It also stimulates aldosterone release, leading to water and sodium retention, further raising blood pressure.ACE is an enzyme that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II, which narrows blood vessels (vasoconstriction) and increases blood pressure. It also stimulates aldosterone release, leading to water and sodium retention, further raising blood pressure.

62
Q

A peptide that increases the production of nitric oxide and prostacyclin by the blood vessels

A

bradykinin

63
Q

What does ACE inhibitor decrease that results to decreased sodium and water retention

A

Secretion of aldosterone

64
Q

What are the first-line drugs for treating hear failure hypertensive patients with chronic kidney disease, and patients at increased risk of coronary artery disease?

A

ACE inhibitors

65
Q

All ACE inhibitors except ____ and _____ undergo hepatic conversion to active metabolites.

A

Captopril and Lisinopril

This agents may be preferred in patients with severe hepatic impairment

66
Q

What is the only ACE inhibitor that is not eliminated primarily by the kidneys and does not require dose adjustments in patients with renal impairment

A

Fosinopril

Renal impairment - decline in kidney

67
Q

What is the role of intracellular concentrations of calcium

A

Maintaining the tone of smooth muscle and in the concentration of the myocardium

68
Q

Calcium enters the muscle cell through

A

Special voltage sensitive calcium channels

69
Q

Does calcium channel blockers dilate vevins?

A

No they dont

70
Q

They are useful for hypertensive patients who also have asthma,diabetes, or peripheral vascular diseasee

A

calcim channel blockers

Unlike b-blockers, they do not have the potential to adversely affect these conditions

71
Q

All CCBs are useful for the treatment of angina. _____, ____, are used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation.

A

Diltiazem and verapamil

72
Q

This CCB has a very long half life and does not require a sustained release formulation

A

amlodipine

73
Q

Nifedipine and other dihydropyridine may cause

A

Gingival hyperplasia

Gingival hyperplasia is the overgrowth or enlargement of the gum tissue.

74
Q

What diverse effects are more frequent in dihydropyridines?/

A

Dizziness
Headache
Feeling of fatigue caused by decrease blood pressure

75
Q

They decrease peripheral vascular resistance and lower arterial blo0d pressure by causing relaxation of both arterial and venous smooth muscle.

A

A-adrenocceptor-blocking agents

Increased PVR → Higher Blood Pressure (seen in hypertension).
Decreased PVR → Lower Blood Pressure (caused by vasodilators or exercise).

76
Q

These drugs produce a competitive block of a1-adrenoceptors

A

Prazosin
Doxazosin
Terazosin

77
Q

These druugus block a1, b1 and b2 receptors

A

Labetalol
Carvedilol

78
Q

This may be an effective antihypertensive, it is mainly use in the treatment of heart failure

A

Carvedilol

79
Q

These have been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality associated with heart failure

A

Carvedilol
Metoprolol succinate
Bisoprolol

Morbidity - worsening of the disease
Mortality - risk of death

80
Q

Is used in the management of gestational hypertension and hypertensive emergencies

A

Labetalol

Gestational hypertension - high blood pressure that develops during pregnancy

81
Q

Acts centrally as an a2 agonist to produce inhibition of sympathetic vasomotor centers, decreasing sympathetic outflow o the periphery

A

Clonidine

This leads to reduced total peripheral resistance and decreased blood pressure.

82
Q

Clonidine is absorbed well after oral administration and is excreted by the kidney it is also available in ____

A

Transdermal patch

83
Q

Is an a2 agonist that is converted to methyl norepinephrine centrally to diminish adrenergic outflow drom the CNS

A

methyldopa

84
Q

Most common side effect of methyldopa are

A

Sedation and drowsiness

85
Q

Where is methyldopa mainly used

A

Mainly used for management of hypertension in pregnancy

its use is limited due to adverse effects and the need for multiple doses

86
Q

Used primarily fr the treatment of hypertension that has not responded adequately to treatment with two or more drugs

87
Q

Is almost always administered in combination with a b-blcoker, such as propranolol, metroplol or atenolol (to balance the reflec tachycardia) and a diuretic (to decrease sodium retention)

A

Hydralazine

The three drugs decrease cardiac output, plasma volume, and PVR

88
Q

What syndrome can ccur in high dosages of hydralazine

A

Lupus-like syndrome

89
Q

Causes hypertrichosis (growth of body hair)
This drugs is used topically to treat male pattern baldness

90
Q

Is a rare but life threatening situation characterized by severe elevations in blood pressure with evidence of impending or progressive organ damage

A

Hypertensive emergency

91
Q

A severe elevation in blood pressure without evidence of target organ damage is considered a

A

Hypertensive urgency

92
Q

Is defined as blood pressure tht remains elevated despite administration of an optimal three-drug regimen that includes a diuretic

A

Resistant hypretension

93
Q

Common causes of resistant hypretension

A

Poor compliance
Excessive ethanol intake
Concomitant conditions
Concomitant medications
Use of drugs with similar MOA

94
Q

May lower blood pressure quickly with minimal adverse effects

A

Combination therapy with separate agents or a fixed -dose combination pill

95
Q

A man is n hypertension therapy and developed a dry cough which is most likely responsible for this side effect?

A. Enalapril
B. Losartan
C. Nifedipine
D. Prazosin
E. propranolol

A

A

The cough is most likely an adverse
effect of the ACE inhibitor enalapril. Losartan is an ARB that has the same beneficial effects as an ACE inhibitor but is less likely to produce a cough. Nifedipine, prazosin, ang propranolol do not cause this side effect.

96
Q

A 48-year-old hypertensive patient has been
successtully treated with a thiazide diuretic for the last 5 years. Over the last 3 months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased, and he was started on an additional antihypertensive agent. He complains of several instances of being unable to achieve an erection and not being able to complete three sets of tennis as he once did. Which is the likely second antihypertensive
medication?
A. Captopril.
B. Losartan.
C. Metoprolol.
D. Minoxidil.
E. Nifedipine.

A

Correct answer = C. The side effect profile of B-blockers,
such as metoprolol, is characterized by interference with sexual performance and decreased exercise tolerance. None of the other drugs is likely to produce this combination of side effects.

97
Q

are drugs that increase the volume of urine excreted

98
Q

Five functional zones along the nephron

A

Proximal convoluted tubule - acetazolamide
Descending loop of Henle
Ascending loop of Henle - loop diuretics
Distal convoluted tubule - thiazide an thiazide like
Collecting tubule and duct - spironolactone, amiloride, triamterene

99
Q

Located in the cortex of the kidney

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

100
Q

The site or the organic acid and base secretory systems

A

Proximal tube

101
Q

Located in the middle-third of the proximal tubule that Secretes a variety of organic acids, such as uric acid, antibiotics and diuretics from the blood stream into the proximal tubular lumen

A

Organic acid secretor system

102
Q

What interferes with penicillin secretion

A

Probenecid

103
Q

Located in the upper and middle segments of the proximal tubule and is responsible for the secretion of creatinine and choline

A

Organic base secretory system, located n the upper an middle segments

104
Q

Osmotic diuretics exet part f their action in this region

A

Descending loop of henle

105
Q

A diluting region of the nephron and major site for salt reabsorption

A

Ascending loop of henle

106
Q

Ca2 excretion is regulated by parathyroid hormone in this porrtrion of the tubule

A

Distal convoluted tubule

107
Q

Sodium enters the principal cells through channels that are inhibited by

A

Amiloride and triamterene

108
Q

Promote the reabsorption of water from the collecting tubules and ducts

A

Antidiuretic hormone

109
Q

Most widely used diuretics

110
Q

Sometimes called low ceiling diuretics

A

Thiazide

It is because increasing the dose above nomarl dose does not promote further diuretic response

111
Q

First orally active diuretic that was capable of affecting the severe edema often seen in hepatic cirrhosis and heart faulire with minimal side effects

A

Chlorothiazide

112
Q

3 thiazide like diuretics

A

Chlortalidone
Indapamide
Metolazone

They containe sulfonamide residue and their MOA is similar but they are not truly thiazides

113
Q

Where do thiazide like diuretics mainly act

A

Cortical region of the ascending loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule

They have leesser effect in the proximal tubule

114
Q

The efficacy of thiazide agents may be diminished with concomitant use of NSAIDS like

A

Indomethacin - inhibits production of renal prostaglandins, reducing renal blood flow

115
Q

Action of thiazide

A

Cause diuresis with increased Na and Cl excretion which can result in the secretion of very hyperosmolar urine

Hyperosmolar - concentrated
This effect is unique as other diuretics are unlikely to produce a hyperosmolar urine

116
Q

With the chronic use of thiazide diuretics what is required

A

Magnesium deficiency requiring supplementation

117
Q

Are the diuretics of choice in reducing extracellular volume in heart failure

A

Loop diuretics

118
Q

In treating idiopathic hypercalcuria this can be used

A

Thiazides

Thiazides inhibit urinary Ca excretion , beneficial for patients with calcium oxalate stones in the urinary tract

119
Q

Thiazides can substitute ADH in the treatment of

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

120
Q

Most frequent adverse effect of thiazides

A

Hypokalemia

121
Q

K deficency - hypokalemia can be overcome by

A

Spironolactone which interferes with aldosterone action
Or Triamterene or amiloride to retain K
## footnote
Increased aldosterone contributes to urinary K losses

122
Q

Hyponatremia may develop due to elevation of ADH as a result of

A

hypovolemia

123
Q

A nonthiazide derivative that is like hydrochlorothiazide

A

Chlorthalidone

  • long duration of action and is only once daily
124
Q

More potent than thiazides, causes Na excretionan even in advanced renal failure

A

Metolazone