Chapter 7 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Which level of the basic Command organization configuration entails
the overall direction and goals of an incident? (322)
A. Task level
B. Tactical level
C. Logistics level
D. Strategic level

Question 2

Q

Which of the following is a duty of a safety officer? (323-324)
A. Conducting safety briefings
B. Establishing the site safety plan
C. Establishing a decontamination plan and operation
D. Identifying the materials or conditions involved in the incident

Question 3

Q

Which of the five major NIMS-ICS organizational functions are
responsible for the establishment and maintenance of the staging
area? (325)
A. Logistics Section
B. Planning Section
C. Command Section
D. Operations Section

Question 4

Q

The major NIMS-ICS organizational function that provides services
and support systems to all the organizational components involved in
the incident is called the: (326)
A. Logistics Section.
B. Planning Section.
C. Command Section.
D. Operations Section

Question 5

Q

What is a purpose of the Intelligence and Information Section in
NIMS-ICS? (327)
A. Prevent/deter potential unlawful activity
B. Establish a decontamination plan and operation
C. Identify and monitor hazardous and unsafe situations
D. Identify the materials or conditions involved in the incident

Question 6

Q

The person relinquishing Command must provide the person
assuming Command with: (328)
A. the preincident plan.
B. copies of mutual aid contracts.
C. an established Command Post.
D. a briefing or a situation status report

Question 7

Q

. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a
Unified Command structure is known as a(an): (329)
A. Incident Management System (IMS).
B. National Response Framework (NRF).
C. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
D. National Incident Management System (NIMS)

Question 8

Q

Before an incident with Unified Command occurs, agencies should
perform what action to avoid jurisdictional and command disputes?
(330)
A. Assign a Safety Officer
B. Assign an Incident Commander
C. Be familiar with the preincident plans
D. Know what mutual-aid contracts cover

Question 9

Q

When are response tactics developed? (331)
A. Once the IC has taken command
B. As soon as any victims are identified
C. After response strategies are in place
D. Before response strategies are in place

Question 10

Q

In the U.S., the notification process is detailed in the: (332)
A. Incident Management System (IMS).
B. National Response Framework (NRF).
C. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
D. National Incident Management System (NIMS)

Question 11

Q

What are the specialized response forces that provide medical care
following a nuclear, biological, and/or chemical incident? (333)
A. Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT)
B. Disaster Mortuary Operational Response Teams (DMORT)
C. Weapons of Mass Destruction-Civil Support Teams (WMD-CST)
D. National Medical Response Team-Weapons of Mass Destruction
(NMRT-WMD

Question 12

Q

Scene control at an incident is greatly facilitated by the establishment 
of: (335)
A. law enforcement.
B. hazard-control zones.
C. public safety sampling.
D. interdepartmental MOUs

Question 13

Q

Multiple hot zones or a very large hot zone may be required at an 
incident with: (337)
A. more than one IC.
B. interstate agencies.
C. multiple contaminants.
D. multiple devices or release points

Question 14

Q

Decontamination usually takes place within the: (338)
A. hot zone.
B. cold zone.
C. warm zone.
D. command zone

Question 15

Q

In which of the hazard-control zones are workers not required to
wear PPE because the zone is considered safe? (338)
A. Hot zone
B. Cold zone
C. Warm zone
D. Command zone

Question 16

Q

In order to spread out emergency response personnel and limit their
exposure as a target, the IC may: (339)
A. establish multiple hot zones.
B. require them to shelter in place.
C. dispense with use of the buddy system.
D. use a cornering/quartering staging procedure

Question 17

Q

A personnel tracking and accountability system must include: (340)
A. a method to exclude all nonessential personnel.
B. tracking and accountability for all deceased victims.
C. an IAP that details the responsibilities of each responder.
D. a way of identifying and tracking the location of each unit and
all personnel on scene

Question 18

Q

The buddy system’s primary benefit is to: (341)
A. reduce the need for backup personnel.
B. provide rapid help if there is an emergency.
C. provide rapid decontamination for victims in the hot zone.
D. reduce the need for more equipment to enter the hot zone.

Question 19

Q

An effective strategy to protect first responders at hazmat incidents 
is: (341)
A. progress reports.
B. evidence preservation.
C. time, distance, and shielding.
D. recovery, withdrawal, and termination

Question 20

Q

The US&amp;R designated signal that consists of one long and one short 
blast means: (342)
A. Evacuate the Area.
B. Resume Operations.
C. Cease Operations/All Quiet.
D. Conduct Search Operations

Question 21

Q

First responders without Mission-Specific training can conduct rescue
operations without risk of contamination such as: (343)
A. moving victims to a safe place.
B. decontaminating exposed victims.
C. conducting searches within the hot zone.
D. conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone

Question 22

Q

When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time,
the best protective action generally is: (344)
A. evacuation.
B. shelter in place.
C. progress reports.
D. on-scene debriefing

Question 23

Q

Which protective action involves directing people to go quickly inside
or to stay inside a room or a building and remain inside until danger
passes? (346)
A. Reporting
B. Shelter in place
C. Exposure protection
D. Protecting/defending in place

Question 24

Q

When might the IC decide not to protect property or the environment
at a hazmat incident? (349)
A. During size-up
B. When planning the initial response
C. When doing so would pose a risk to life safety
D. If they are unfamiliar with the responders that have reported
for duty

Question 25

Q

Attempts to confine a hazardous material that has been released
from its container are called_____ strategies. (349)
A. offensive
B. defensive
C. undefined
D. environmental

Question 26

Q

To help preserve evidence and assist law enforcement, first
responders should: (350)
A. remove fatalities quickly.
B. collect evidence when possible.
C. take photographs and videos of the scene.
D. not allow any photographs or videos to be taken

Question 27

Q

If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task
supervisors, this is an indication that: (352)
A. the IAP is effective.
B. the incident is destabilizing.
C. the IC is no longer needed.
D. responders should withdraw immediately

Question 28

Q

Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately?
(352)
A. Black smoke
B. Consistent temperatures
C. A sudden change in pressure
D. Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector

Question 29

Q

What aspect of evaluating progress deals with returning the incident
scene and responders to a preincident level of readiness? (352)
A. Recovery
B. Withdrawal
C. Termination
D. Progress reports

Question 30

Q

What information should be provided to responders before they leave 
the scene? (353)
A. Postincident analysis 
B. Postincident critiques
C. Evacuation and escape procedures
D. Signs and symptoms of an exposure

Question 31

Q

What procedural action of the termination phase compiles the
information obtained from the debriefings, postincident reports, and
critiques to identify trends regarding operational strengths and
weaknesses? (354)
A. On-scene debriefing
B. Postincident critique
C. Operational recovery
D. Postincident analysis

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Chapter 7 Flashcards

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