Chapter 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What are microbes/microorganisms?

A

Tiny life forms. Include procaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses. Some convert matter to simpler forms through decay, some take inorganic compounds and convert them to higher forms.

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2
Q

How much of organic matter do microbes account for on the planet?

A

60 percent

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3
Q

What are indigenous microflora?

A

Microbes that are harmless under normal circumstances but can become pathogens when they enter the body through a surgical or traumatic wound. (aka opportunistic pathogens).

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4
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

Refers to both organisms and can be harmful, beneficial, or harmless. Three categories: mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

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5
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Both organisms benefit and depend on each other to a certain extent.

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6
Q

What is commensalism?

A

One organism benefits and the second is unharmed/unaffected.

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7
Q

What is parasitism?

A

One organism benefits and the host is harmed.

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8
Q

What is infection?

A

Multiplication of organisms in the tissues of a host

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9
Q

What is a nosocomial infection (HAI)?

A

Infection that is developed in a healthcare setting.

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10
Q

Which pathogen is most commonly associated with surgical site infections (SSI)?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive coccus. Responsible for 30 percent of SSI’s.

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11
Q

Where is Staphylococcus aureus found?

A

in the flora on the skin, hair, and nares. SSI’s can be caused by both surgical personnel and patient’s own skin.

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12
Q

What are some common bacterial pathogens and what are the infections they are associated with?

A

Add table later

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13
Q

What is tuberculosis (TB) and what are some precautions which should be taken with known carriers?

A

Caused by a bacteria called mycobacterium tuberculosis. Usually infects lungs but can infect kidneys, bones, joints, and skins. Elective operations are postponed until drug therapy is effective. Other procedures performed must implement isolation precautions (wearing gloves, eyewear, N-95 mask). Pt must also be informed on how they can prevent cross contamination.

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14
Q

What are viruses and what are some characteristics unique to them?

A

Nonliving particles that are reliant on the host.
-they are intracellular parasites
-viral replication depends on nucleic acid
-viral cells have RNA/DNA and protein coat that encases nucleic acid
-viral cells depend on protein production of host.

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15
Q

How does the virus enter the host cell?

A
  1. viral cell attaches to host with receptors on the capsomeres
  2. virus enters cell through membrane penetration or receptor mediated endocytosis
  3. viral replication begins
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15
Q

How do viruses enter the body?

A

-inhalation of droplets
-through bodily fluids
-ingestion of contaminated food/water
-bites by infected insects

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16
Q

What are some common viral pathogens and what are their methods of transmission?

A

HBV- body fluids
Hep C- blood
Hep D- body fluids
HIV- body fluids
HSV- fluid from lesions
papillomavirus- contact
cytomegalovirus- body fluids
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)- unknown but thought to be through CSF. associated w contaminated instruments.

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17
Q

What causes microorganisms to be transmitted on a global basis more easily?

A

-globalization
-multi-drug-resistant organism (MDR’s)
-some diseases include dengue, ebola, marburg, and lassa

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18
Q

What are prions?

A

Short for proteinaceous infectious particle. They are nonliving strands of protein that do not have DNA/RNA. Responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow, CJD, scrapie)

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19
Q

How does CJD spread throughout the body?

A

Human body creates protein similar to a prion, called PrP. Responsible for CJD but the normal protein’s structure is different from infectious prion. The PrP changes from a noninfectious alpha-helical form, to the infectious beta-sheet. When a prion contacts normal PrP, it starts a chain reaction in which the prion is replicated by folding the alpha-helical protein into the pathogenic beta-sheet form inside the neurons of the central nervous system (CNS). The beta-sheet prions accumulate in the lysosomes and eventually kill the neuron. The death of the neurons creates holes in the brain tissue, which aids in the release of prions to further invade and infect healthy neurons.

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20
Q

How is CJD transmitted?

A

Through prion contaminated surgical instruments. Can also be inherited genetically or a sporadic case. Be extra careful of eye tissue, dura mater, brain tissue, and spinal cord.

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21
Q

What are some components of CJD?

A

-develops very slowly w incubation of 20 yrs
-early symptoms include memory loss and depression
-no vaccine or cure
-diagnosed through EEG or microscopic histology
-variant strand called vCJD or ncCJD has earlier median onset of 28 yrs old. duration of symptoms is longer at 13-14 months.

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22
Q

What are parasites?

A

Invertebrates that cause disease. Two categories: unicellular and multicellular protozoa.

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23
Q

What are helminths?

A

Part of the metazoan category. Are commonly known as worms. Primary route of transmission is ingestion of contaminated food and water but also includes penetration through skin, fecal-oral contamination, and arthropod bites. They can migrate outside the intestinal tract and cause issues in other tissues.

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24
Q

What are protozoa?

A

Unicellular eukaryotes responsible for causing diseases such as malaria and chronic sleeping sickness. Include amoebas, flagellates, ciliates, coccidia, and microsporidia. Transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

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25
Q

What is Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Protozoa that is responsible for amebic dysentery. Usually in pt’s undergoing a colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy. Endoscope and other instrumentation should be thoroughly decontaminated.

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26
Q

What is Trichomonas vaginalis. T. vaginalis

A

A unicellular protozoa that will grow if vaginal/urethral acid levels are off and cause trichomoniasis which is usually and STD.

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27
Q

What are fungi?

A

eukaryotic organisms that are either unicellular yeasts or multicellular molds and mushrooms. reproduce both sexually and asexually. Majority are opportunistic pathogens that cause infection when host is immunocompromised. Common in HIV/AID’s patients.

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28
Q

What is zygomycosis?

A

Fungal infection caused by common bread mold. Increase in cases follows organ transplants. One type is the extremely destructive rhinocerebral zygomycosis which causes damage to cranial bones and tissues of the face.

29
Q

What are the human body’s natural lines of defense?

A

-structural design of body: skin and mucous membranes
-circulatory and chemical response: immune and inflammatory response
-immunity: active/passive antibody reaction

30
Q

What does the CDC define Standard Precautions as?

A

The minimum infection prevention measures that apply to all patient care, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient, in any setting where healthcare is delivered.”

31
Q

What are the standard precautions?

A

Proper hand hygiene

Use of appropriate personal protective equipment (PPEs)—gloves, masks, gowns, etc.

Respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette.

Safe injection procedures.

Safe handling of potentially contaminated items and surfaces in patient care areas.

32
Q

What are the modes of transmission?

A

Direct Contact: Light handle drops into open wound; hypodermic needle-stick injury from two-handed recapping

Indirect Contact: Bioburden on gloves contaminates equipment that is handled by non-gloved person who rubs eyes

Droplet (0.5mm): Infection spread through the air by droplets spread by sneezing, coughing, or talking

Airborne (0.5mm): Infection spread through the air by sneeze droplets

33
Q

What are the two categories of sources of SSI’s?

A

exogenous: preop personnel, the environment, and contaminated instrumentation

endogenous: patient’s microflora

34
Q

How do you prevent infection from the common sources of SSI’s?

A

Personnel: Don proper OR attire and errors should be noted, communicated, and corrected immediately

Environment: OR’s should be designed with clean zone, filtered/controlled air systems, and soil resistant building materials.

Patient: preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis should be performed. plain or antibacterial drapes may be used. procedures may be postponed until prior infections have cleared.

35
Q

What are formites?

A

inanimate objects that may contain infectious microorganisms including walls, floors, cabinets, furniture, and equipment.

36
Q

What are some factors that increase the risk of developing an SSI?

A

-age: peds and geriatric pts
-obesity: diminished blood flow, larger wound, difficult adipose
-general health
-carriers of S. aureus and MRSA
-remote infection
-preop hospitalization
-preexisting illness and treatment.
-malnutrition
-tobacco usage
-diabete
-malignancy

37
Q

What are procedure related factors that increase the risk of SSI?

A

-preop hair removal: shaving can leave nicks allowing bacteria to colonize
-type of procedure: clean contaminated (class II), contaminated (class III), dirty (class IV), and cases that compromise blood flow carry higher risk of infection.
-duration: longer=higher risk of infection

38
Q

What is asepsis?

A

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms or disease

39
Q

What is the definition of aseptic principles?

A

Principles applied through use of aseptic (clean) techniques to prevent pathogenic microbial contamination of the surgical environment

40
Q

What does bactericidal mean?

A

Substance that kills bacteria

41
Q

What is bioburden?

A

The number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time; gross contamination on surgical instruments or supplies

42
Q

What is event-related sterility?

A

Sterility determined by how a package is handled and stored rather than time elapsed; a package is considered sterile until opened or the integrity of packaging material is violated

43
Q

What is a fungicide?

A

Agent that destroys fungal organisms

44
Q

What is a spore?

A

A resistant form of bacteria that can form a protective shell and remain dormant to survive in adverse conditions then reproduce when conditions become favorable again

45
Q

What is a sporicide?

A

Agent that destroys all bacteria in the spore stage

46
Q

What does sterile mean?

A

Having been rendered free of all living microorganisms, including spores

47
Q

What is strike-through contamination?

A

Contamination of a sterile field or package that occurs from the passage of fluid through a microbial barrier

48
Q

What does surgically clean mean?

A

Mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected but not sterile; in surgical scrub procedure, the removal of transient microbes and reduction of indigenous skin microflora to an irreducible level

49
Q

What is terminal disinfection?

A

To render items safe to handle by high-level disinfection

50
Q

What is terminal sterilization?

A

To render items safe to handle by proper sterilization methods; however, unwrapped so not appropriate for use within the sterile field

51
Q

What are transient microflora?

A

Microbes that have been deposited onto the skin surface and are easily removed with routine hand washing

52
Q

What is a vector?

A

Living carrier that transmits disease; may show no signs of disease itself

53
Q

What is a virucide?

A

Agent that destroys viruses

54
Q

What is disinfection?

A

process by which most, but not all, the microorganisms located on inanimate (non-living) surfaces are destroyed. Decontamination is a category of disinfection

55
Q

What is antisepsis?

A

process by which most (but not all) microorganisms located on animate (living) surfaces, such as the skin, are destroyed.

56
Q

What is an antiseptic?

A

name used to describe the solutions that are used by the sterile surgical team members to perform the surgical scrub and the prep solutions used on the patient for preoperative skin preparation of the surgical site.

57
Q

How are patient care items classified?

A

Created by the CDC and FDA: The system rates the degree of risk to patients for infection based on how and where the items will be used

58
Q

What are critical patient care items?

A

Items used for invasive procedures or vascular access and carry a high potential for causing SSIs include: surgical instruments, devices that enter the vascular or urinary systems (needles, catheters), implantable items (wires, screws, joint replacements, mesh, sutures), and any monitors or probes that enter deep tissue layers or cavities. These items must be sterilized.

59
Q

What are semi-critical patient care items?

A

Items that come into contact with mucous membranes or nonintact skin; however, they carry a lesser risk of infection due to the properties of resistance of intact mucosal linings to many commonly encountered bacterial spores. Examples include: laryngoscopes, anesthesia and respiratory equipment, and some endoscopes. High-level disinfection should be used for items in this category, but sterilization may also be preferred following decontamination.

60
Q

What are noncritical patient care items?

A

tems that come into contact with a patient’s intact skin and clean environmental equipment items pose the least risk of infection. Examples include blood pressure cuffs, pulse oximeters, OR transport stretchers, and other furniture. These items require either intermediate-level or low-level disinfection.

61
Q

What is cleaning?

A

The physical removal of blood, body fluids, and/or gross debris (bioburden) from an inanimate object.

62
Q

What are the tree levels of disinfection?

A

High-level disinfection: Kills all microorganisms except spores and prions (CJD).

Intermediate-level disinfection: Kills most microorganisms, including bacteria, most viruses and fungi, M. tuberculosis and HBV; ineffective against spores.

Low-level disinfection: Kills some fungi and viruses, and most bacteria, but is not effective against spores and M. tuberculosis.

63
Q

What factors influence the efficiency of disinfectants?

A

Concentration level of the disinfectant solution. (higher concentration = higher effectiveness but could be too corrosive for some materials)

Bioburden. (exposure to blood, fluids, tissues, etc. decrease efficiency so materials should be cleaned first)

Contact time.

Physical factors of the solution, including temperature of the solution, water hardness, pH level, and exposure time. (solution should come in contact with all surfaces)

64
Q

What is Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) and what are some components of it?

A

-high-level disinfectant/sterilant
-for devices that can withstand full immersion
-shelf life is 14 days without surfactant and 28 days with; concentration should be tested before each use.
-prior to immersion, items should be rinsed and cleaned
-after immersion items should rinsed with sterile water
-20 mins in room temp for disinfection, 10 hrs for sterilization

Action: Alkylation of cell protein

Advantages
-dual purpose (both sterilize and disinfect)
-noncorrosive
-effective against positive and negative gram

Disadvantages
-noxious
-unstable (shelf life)
-items have to be dried and cleaned beforehand

Safety
-store in well ventilated room
-wear PPE
-use respirator/mask

65
Q

What is Sodium hypochlorite (household bleach) and what are some components of it?

A

-effective disinfectant for floor, surfaces, and equipment
-fast acting and effective

Action: disrupts cellular metabolism

Advantages
-Bactericidal, virucidal, tuberculocidal: it is effective against HIV, HBV, and other viruses.
-Fast-acting solution.

Disadvantages
-Corrosive
-loses effectiveness in organic soil
-noxious odor

Safety
-wear PPE
-don’t mix w formaldehyde
-don’t mix w ammonia

66
Q

What are some high level disinfectant compounds

A

-Glutaraldehyde (Cidex)
-Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)

67
Q

What are some intermediate level disinfectant compounds?

A

Phenol (Carbolic Acid)

Quaternary Ammonia Compounds

Alcohol

68
Q

What is Phenol (Carbolic Acid) and what are some components of it?

A

-disinfects large areas such as floors and countertops

Action: denatures enzymes and causes lysis

Advantages
-economical
-effective in removing feces

Disadvantages
-irritating to skin (isopropyl alcohol neutralizes)
-noxious odor
-irritate resp tract
-for noncritical items

Safety
-wear PPE
-use respirator
-store in well ventilated room

69
Q
A