Chapter 67: Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

The 2nd leading infectious cause of death

A

Tuberculosis

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2
Q

Who is the most high risk with PTB infection

A
1st immigrants from high-prevalence countries
2nd HIV
3rd prisons or shelters for the homeless
4th alcoholism and drug user
5th elderly
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3
Q

How many percent develops TB after exposure to TB droplets?

A

30%

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4
Q

This is a sign of primary infection and may progress to caseation necrosis and calcification

A

Tubercles

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5
Q

When is the skin test becomes positive after initial exposure to TB

A

1-2 months

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6
Q

What dose of corticosteroids is at high risk of reactivation of latent TB

A

≥15 milligrams/d for ≥4 weeks of prednisone or its equivalent

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7
Q

The most common extrapulmonary site of tuberculosis is the ____

A

Lymphatic system

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8
Q

The most common method for screening for exposure to M. tuberculosis is

A

Skin test or Mantoux test (purified protein derivative)

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9
Q

When is the best time to read the skin test?

A

48-72 hours

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10
Q

Can give false-negative skin test

A
  • MMR vaccine
  • Improper administration
  • Improper test reading
  • Very early in the disease
  • Profound immmunocompromised
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11
Q

In immunocompromised patients with a negative test but recent close contact to infectious tuberculosis, retest in ____

A

In immunocompromised patients with a negative test but recent close contact to infectious tuberculosis, retest in 8 weeks and consider treatment.

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12
Q

This is indirect assess for TB. it trigger the release of interferon-y by the infected host

A

Interferon-y release assays (IGRAs)

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13
Q

The most common findings in chest radiograph with TB patient

A

Normal chest radiograph, especially in immunocompromised patient

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14
Q

True or False
During primary infection of TB, younger patients are more likely to have enlarged hilar lymph nodes, whereas adults more frequently have parenchymal abnormalities and effusions

A

True
During primary infection of TB, younger patients are more likely to have enlarged hilar lymph nodes, whereas adults more frequently have parenchymal abnormalities and effusions.

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15
Q

Amount of phlegm need s to improve yield of TB

A

5-10ml

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16
Q

True or False
Negative smears are found in approximately 60% of culture-positive cases of tuberculosis, with higher false-negative smear results in children and HIV patients (approaching 80%)

A

False
Negative smears are found in approximately 60% of culture-positive cases of tuberculosis, with higher false-negative smear results in children and HIV patients (approaching 80%)

17
Q

The World Health Organization endorses this for diagnosis of pulmonary and extrapulmonary tuberculosis

A

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) - can detect within 1 day

18
Q

It is best used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis

A

NAAT

19
Q

The recommended Centers for Disease Control and Prevention regimens for Tuberculosis

A
  • Daily four-drug (INH, RIF, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol) therapy for 8 weeks, followed by either INH/RIF or INH/rifapentine for 18 weeks
  • Daily four-drug therapy for 2 weeks, followed by two times per week for 6 weeks, with subsequent INH/RIF or INH/rifapentine for 18 weeks or
  • Three times weekly four-drug therapy for 8 weeks, followed by INH/ RIF three times weekly for 18 weeks or
  • Daily three-drug therapy (INH, RIF, and ethambutol) for 8 weeks fol- lowed by INH/RIF for 31 weeks
20
Q

Major adverse effect of Isoniazid?

A

Hepatotoxicity

21
Q

When to stop INH in patient who has TB?

A

If serum transaminases are greater than five times the upper limit of normal or if serum bilirubin is >3 milligrams/dL

22
Q

Paradoxical reaction or immune reconstitution syndrome

A

A portion of patients treated for tuberculosis worsen after the initia- tion of antituberculous medications. Seen in CD4<50

23
Q

Unique findings in paradoxical reactions

A

Hypercalcemia

24
Q

Treatment for latent TB

A

Isoniazid for 9 months

Rifampicin and pyrazinamide for 9 months

25
Q

The strongest known risk factor for tuberculosis?

A

HIV infection

26
Q

Replacement of Rifampicin in TB patient with HIV

A

Rifabutin

27
Q

Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis

A

Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis is tuberculosis with isolates that demonstrate resistance to at least INH and RIF, with approximately 20% of M. tuberculosis isolates meeting this definition

28
Q

Extensive drug-resistant tuberculosis

A

Extensive drug-resistant tuberculosis occurs when resistance to INH, RIF, any fluoroquinolone, and at least one injectable second-line medication exists

29
Q

The “Global Plan to Stop Tuberculosis” calls for better compliance and new medications to fight against the problem of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis, especially ____

A

Delamanid

30
Q

IGRA and NAAT are not recommended for children less than what age? as the immune response differs in this age group, making the tests less reliable

A

IGRA and NAAT are not recommended for children less than 5 years old as the immune response differs in this age group, making the tests less reliable

31
Q

True or False
Miliary disease during Latent tuberculosis is generally more rapid and severe, often presenting with multiorgan failure, shock, and acute respiratory distress syndrome

A

False
Miliary disease during primary tuberculosis is generally more rapid and severe, often presenting with multiorgan failure, shock, and acute respiratory distress syndrome

32
Q

Found on ocular exam are pathognomonic for miliary tuberculosis.

A

Choroidal tubercles

33
Q

How does tuberculous meningitis differ from other meningitis?

A

No neck stiffness and irritation seen

34
Q

CSF findings in patients with tuberculous meningitis?

A
  • Lymphocytic pleocytosis
  • Elevated protein
  • Increased opening pressure
  • Cerebrospinal fluid–to–protein ratio of <0.5