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Vertebrate Physiology > chapter 6.18 EXAM 2 > Flashcards

chapter 6.18 EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functional divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

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2
Q

What are the two types of neurons in the sympathetic division?

A

postganglionic neuron and preganglionic neuron.

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3
Q

Describe the preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division.

A

originate in the thoracolumbar spinal cord.
short fibers that immediately synapse at a ganglion upon exiting the spinal cord.
sympathetic chain ganglia.
collateral ganglia

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4
Q

what are sympathetic chain ganglion?

A

collections of ganglia that are located lateral to the vertebral column.

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5
Q

What are collateral ganglia?

A

ganglia that are located roughly half-way to the effector organ.

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6
Q

Describe the postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic division.

A

continue from the ganglion to the effector organ.
much longer than the preganglionic fibers.
usually terminate in varicosities.

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7
Q

What are varicosities?

A

knob-like structures that allow for release of neurotransmitters over a larger area.

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8
Q

What do varicosities and gap junctions allow for?

A

the neurotransmitter to effect the whole organ and not just one cell.

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9
Q

What is the adrenal medulla considered?

A

a modified sympathetic ganglion.

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10
Q

Describe the preganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic division.

A

originate in the brain, brainstem, or sacral spinal cord.

axons travel toward the effector organ where they synapse at a terminal ganglion, adjacent to the effector organ.

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11
Q

Describe the postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic division.

A

fibers are short and terminate on the effector organ.

usually terminate in varicosities.

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12
Q

Describe the heart in the sympathetic division.

A

increase in rate of contraction and force of contraction.

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13
Q

Describe the blood vessels in the sympathetic division.

A

blood vessels to the digestive organs and skin are constricted.
blood vessels to the skeletal muscles and heart are dilated.

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14
Q

Describe the lungs in the sympathetic division.

A

bronchioles are dilated

mucus secreation is inhibited

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15
Q

Describe the eye in the sympathetic division.

A

pupil is dilated

lens is set for far vision

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16
Q

Describe the gall and urinary bladder in the sympathetic division.

A

both are relaxed.

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17
Q

Describe the digestive system in the sympathetic division.

A

decreased motility, sphincters contracted, decreased enzyme secretions.

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18
Q

Describe the liver in the sympathetic division.

A

glycogenolysis (glucose is released).

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19
Q

Describe fat in the sympathetic division.

A

release of fatty acids.

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20
Q

Describe the endocrine glands in the sympathetic division.

A

sweat glands increase sweat production.
exocrine pancreas decreases secretion
salivary glands increase mucus production in saliva, but decreased volume of saliva.

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21
Q

Describe the brain in the sympathetic division.

A

increase in alertness

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22
Q

Describe the genitalia in the sympathetic division.

A

ejaculation and orgasmic contractions.

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23
Q

Describe the heart in the parasympathetic division.

A

decreased heart rate, decreased force of atrial contraction.

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24
Q

Describe the blood vessels in the parasympathetic division.

A

the only blood vessels that are innervated by parasympathetic fibers are associated with the genitalia and these will be dilated.

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25
Q

Describe the lungs in the parasympathetic division.

A

bronchioles are constricted.

mucus secretion is stimulated.

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26
Q

Describe the digestive tract in the parasympathetic division.

A

increased motility, relaxation of sphincters, stimulation of digestive secretions.

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27
Q

Describe the gall and urinary bladders in the parasympathetic division.

A

emptying

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28
Q

Describe the eye in the parasympathetic division.

A

pupil is constricted.

lens is accomodated for near vision.

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29
Q

Describe the exocrine glands in the parasympathetic division.

A

exocrine pancreas releases digestive enzymes.

salivary glands release large volumes of water saliva with amylase.

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30
Q

Describe the genitaia in the parasympathetic division.

A

erection.

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31
Q

What are the three exceptions to the dual innervation rule?

A
  1. blood vessels
  2. sweat glands
  3. salivary glands
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32
Q

Describe blood vessels and the dual innervation rule.

A

exception.
blood vessels are only altered in the sympathetic division.
however, blood vessels to the erectile tissue of the penis and clitoris receive sympathetic and parasympathetic.

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33
Q

Describe sweat glands and the dual innervation rule.

A

exception.

sympathetic preganglionic neuron secretes acetylcholine and sympathetic post ganglionic neuron secretes acetylcholine.

34
Q

Describe salivary glands and the dual innervation rule.

A

exception
sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation, but not antagonistic; sympathetic has less volume and more mucus,
parasympathetic is watery and has lots of enzymes.

35
Q

Describe neurotransmitter secretion in the sympathetic division.

A

preganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete acetylcholine and are called choinergic.
postganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete norepinephrine and are called adrenergic.
However, a few postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine and are cholinergic.

36
Q

Describe neurotransmitter secretionin the parasympathetic division,.

A

preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are cholinergic.

postganglionic fibers are cholinergic.

37
Q

Describe alpha receptors.

A

located on effector organs. Receive signal from postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
reacts with both norepinephrine and epinephrine with greater sensitivity to norepinephrine.

38
Q

Where are alpha receptors found?

A 
blood vessels (in smooth muscles)
digestive tract at the sphincters and muscularis layer
iris of the eye
exocrine pancreas
sweat glands
salivary glands
endocrine pancreas
genitals.
39
Q

Describe alpha 2 receptors

A

located on effector organs. Receive signal from postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
react with both norepinephrine and epinephrine, with greater sensitivity to norepinephrine.

40
Q

What does stimulation of alpha receptors result in?

A

excitatory responses

41
Q

What does stimulation of alpha 2 receptors result in?

A

inhibitory responses.

42
Q

Describe beta 1 receptors.

A

located on effector organs. Receive signals from postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
react with both norepinephrine and epinephrine.
found primarily in the heart.

43
Q

What does activation of beta 1 receptors result in?

A

an excitatory response.

44
Q

Describe beta 2 receptors.

A

located on effector organs. Receive signals from postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
react primarily with epinephrine.

45
Q

Where are beta 2 receptors found?

A 
blood vessels. 
heart. 
skeletal muscles
lungs (bronchiolar smooth muscle).
organs of the digestive tract
urinary bladder
ciliary muscle of the eye
liver 
fat cells
46
Q

What does activation of beta 2 receptors result in?

A

relaxation of smooth muscle

47
Q

Describe beta 1 and 2 coupling.

A

coupled to a g-protein, trigger the cAMP second messenger system.

48
Q

Describe alpha 1 coupling.

A

coupled to a G-protein, trigger a calcium second messenger system.

49
Q

Describe alpha 2 coupling.

A

coupled to a g-protein, blocks cAMP production.

50
Q

Describe nicotinic receptors.

A

found in all autonomic ganglia (parasympathetic and sympathetic).
also found in motor end plates of skeletal muscle fibers and some CNS dendrites.

51
Q

How were nicotinic receptors named?

A

the chemical nicotine binds to this type of cholinergic receptor, but not the muscarinic receptor.

52
Q

What does binding of acetylcholine to the nicotinic receptor do?

A

opens channels for sodium and potassium, however, sodium diffuses more due to its electrochemical gradient.

53
Q

Describe muscarinic receptors.

A

found in cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands.

also found in CNS dendrites.

54
Q

How were muscarinic receptors named?

A

the mushroom toxin, muscarine, binds to this type of cholinergic receptor, but not nicotinic receptors.

55
Q

What does binding of acetylcholine to the muscarinic receptor do?

A

leads to the activation of G proteins, which in turn affect the potassium channels in some cases.

56
Q

What are autonomic reflexes?

A

reflexes integrated at the spinal cord, but have input from higher levels of consciousness.

57
Q

What is the medulla?

A

directly responsible for autonomic output.

houses centers for cardiovascular control, respiration, digestion, etc.

58
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

integrates the autonomic, somatic, and endocrine responses associated with emotional states.

59
Q

What is the prefrontal association cortex?

A

higher brain functions associated with the frontal cortex .

can also have an impact on autonomic activity via the hypothalamic-medullary pathways.

60
Q

describe the flow of information to they hypothal-medullary pathway.

A

sensory info from body–> biofeedback–> CNS integration–> hypothalamic-medullary pathway.

61
Q

What are motor neurons?

A

neurons that are responsible for contraction of skeletal muscle.

62
Q

What is the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

A

location of the cell bodies for motor neurons.
axons are continuous from the ventral horn to the muscle.
no further synapses or ganglia occur.

63
Q

What do motor neurons stimulate?

A

muscles.

64
Q

how are motor neurons different from autonomic nerves?

A

motor nerves can only stimulate muscles, whereas autonomic nerve cells can stimulate or inhibit the effector organ.

65
Q

how is inhibition of muscle activity accomplished?

A

centrally, through inhibitory input to the cell bodies of the motor neurons.

66
Q

What is the only way that the CNS can directly influence skeletal muscle?

A

motor neurons.

67
Q

What is the motor end plate?

A

the portion of the skeletal muscle responding to the motor neuron.

68
Q

Describe the physiology of the neuromuscular junction.

A

action potential in neurons triggers opening of voltage gated calcium channels.
the calcium allows for vesicular exocytosis of acetylcholine which diffuses across the cleft and binds with specific receptors (nicotinic) on the muscle fiber.
binding of these receptors increases permeability to both sodium and potassium ions across the muscle fibers membrane.
as more sodium moves in, the end plate forms and end-plate potential (EPP)–graded potential.

69
Q

How do EPPs differ from IPSPs and EPSPs?

A
  1. EPPs are graded potentials with magnitudes dependant upon the amount of neurotransmitter released.
  2. more neurotransmitter is released by EPP.
  3. motor endplate has more receptor sites than a neuronal synapse.
  4. more ion channels are opened.
  5. motor endplate stimulates an action potential in the surrounding muscle fiber by initiating local current flow at the cell membrane of the muscle fiber.
  6. generally 1 neuronal action potential leads to one muscle contraction.
70
Q

What does acetylcholinesterase break down?

A

acetylcholine, inactivating it.

71
Q

Describe the affinity and avidity of acetylcholine receptors and the effect this has.

A

high affinity, low avidity, so binding occurs rapidly, as does unbinding. rebinding can occur.

72
Q

What does acetylcholinesterase help to prevent?

A

overstimulation of the motor endplate.

73
Q

Where is acetylcholinesterase found?

A

in the subneural clefts.

74
Q

Describe the effect of black widow spider venom.

A

initiates massive release of acetylcholine at all cholinergic sites.

75
Q

Describe the effect of botulinum toxin.

A

blocks the release of acetylcholine from the terminal buttons of motor neurons.

76
Q

Describe the effect of curare.

A

binds to the acetylcholine receptors, but does not activate them.

77
Q

Describe the effect of myasthenia gravis.

A

autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors.

78
Q

Describe the effect of oragnophosphate.

A

inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase.

79
Q

Describe the effect of the polio virus.

A

death of alpha motor neurons due to the virus.

80
Q

Describe the effect of ALS.

A

death of alpha motor neurons. cause mitochondrial dysfunction, genetic disease, etc.

Vertebrate Physiology (9 decks)

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