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Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Edition > Chapter 6: The Human Body > Flashcards

Chapter 6: The Human Body Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Royal College: Emergency Medicine flashcards
1
Q

Define anatomy

A

Anatomy - the study of the physical structure of the body and its components

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2
Q

Define pathophysiology

A

pathophysiology - The study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease

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3
Q

Define physiology

A

physiology - The study of the normal functions of living organisms and their parts

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4
Q

Define topographic anatomy

A

topographic anatomy - The superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath

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5
Q

What is anatomic position

A

anatomic position - The position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward.

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6
Q

What are the 4 main body planes?

A

Coronal (frontal) plane

Sagittal (lateral) plane

Transverse (axial) plane

Midsagittal (midline) plane

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7
Q

Do planes have to be divided equally on the body?

A

NO

But the midsagittal (midline) plane divides the body into equal left and right halves

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8
Q

What is the midsagittal plane)

A

The Midsagittal (midline) plane equally divides the body into right and left halves

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9
Q

The coronal plane divides the body how?

A

Into front and back

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10
Q

The Transverse plane divides the body, how?

A

Top and bottom

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11
Q

The Sagittal plane divides the body, how?

A

Left and right

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12
Q

What are the foundation of the human body?

A

Cells

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13
Q

What do we call a group of cells that share a common function and grow close to one another?

A

Tissues

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14
Q

What do we call a group of tissues that perform similar or interrelated jobs?

A

Organs

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15
Q

What do we call a group of organs with similar functions that works together?

A

Systems

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16
Q

From smallest to largest, what are we made up of?

A

Cells > tissues > organs > systems > organism

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17
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A
  • Provide structural support to bear the body’s weight
  • Establish a framework to attach soft tissues and internal organs
  • Protect vital organs such as the heart and lungs
  • The red marrow within the internal cavities of many bones produces red blood cells
  • Distribute minerals and lipids
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18
Q

How many bones make up the human body?

A

206 bones make up the body

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19
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?

A

Axial - comprised of the skull, vertebral column and ribs

Appendicular - comprises the upper and lower extremities and the point by which they connect with the axial skeleton

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20
Q

What does a ligament do?

A

The fibrous tissues that connect bone to bone, helping to stabilize these joints, are called ligaments

Ligament connects bone to bone

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21
Q

What does a tendon do?

A

Connects muscle to bone

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22
Q

What does cartilage do?

A

The semi-rigid yet flexible tissue that covers and cushions the ends of articulating bones is called cartilage. It is the cushion between bones.

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23
Q

What is the joint capsule and what does it do?

A

The bone ends of a joint are held together by a fibrous sac called the joint capsule. The sac is composed of connective tissue (connecting bone to bone) and can be either lax and thin, permitting movement, or thick to resist stretching and bending.

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24
Q

What fluid lubricates joints?

A

synovial fluid which is produced by the synovial membrane. This fluid allows bones to glide over each other as opposed to rubbing and grating.

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25
Q

List the names of the bones in the skull and give an approximation of their location.

A

Cranial Bones
Parietal (2)
Temporal (2)
Frontal (1)
Occipital (1)
Ethmoid (1)
Sphenoid (1)

Facial Bones
Maxilla (2)
Zygomatic (2)
Mandible (1)
Nasal (2)
Platine (2)
Inferior nasal concha (2)
Lacrimal (2)
Vomer (1)

Auditory Ossicles
Malleus (2)
Incus (2)
Stapes (2)

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26
Q

Which bones make up the cranial bones?

A

Cranial Bones
Parietal (2)
Temporal (2)
Frontal (1)
Occipital (1)
Ethmoid (1)
Sphenoid (1)

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27
Q

Which bones make up the Facial bones?

A

Facial Bones
Maxilla (2)
Zygomatic (2)
Mandible (1)
Nasal (2)
Platine (2)
Inferior nasal concha (2)
Lacrimal (2)
Vomer (1)

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28
Q

What is the passage on the inferior aspect of the skull that allows the spinal cord to connect to the brain and descend into the vertebral column?

A

Foramen Magnum

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29
Q

How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?

A

33 vertebrae divided into 5 sections:
Cervical (7)
Thoracic (12)
Lumbar (5)
Sacral (5)
Coccygeal (4)

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30
Q

What is the cervical spine?

A

The first seven vertebrae (C1 through C7) in the neck form the cervical spine.

The skull rests on and attaches to both the first cervical vertebra (the atlas) and the second cervical vertebra (the axis).

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31
Q

What is the Thoracic spine?

A

The 12 vertebrae inferior to the Cervical spine and superior to the Lumbar

One pair of ribs attached to each of the thoracic vertebrae

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32
Q

Where would you find the atlas and what is its significance?

A

The C1 atlas is the uppermost cervical vertebra of the spine. It supports the head and — along with the C2 axis, the cervical vertebra just below it — allows the head to nod and rotate from side to side

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33
Q

Where would you find the axis and what is its significance?

A

The axis (C2) cervical vertebra is the second vertebra of the spine. It is unique in that it contains the odontoid process — odontoid means “tooth” and that is what this bone looks like — that forms a pivot point on which C1 atlas can rotate. Injuries to the odontoid are common in motor vehicle accidents and falls.

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34
Q

Where is the Lumbar spine located?

A

Inferior to the Thoracic spine and superior to the sacrum

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35
Q

What is the sacrum and what is its’ function?

A

The sacrum is comprised of 5 fused vertebrae just below the lumbar spine. The sacrum joins the iliac bones of the pelvis via the strong ligaments at the sacroiliac joints

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36
Q

What is the thorax and what is contained within it?

A

The thorax (chest) contains the heart, lungs, esophagus and great vessel (the aorta and the superior and inferior venae cavae). It is formed by the 12 thoracic vertebrae and the 12 pairs of ribs and is superior to the diaphragm.

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37
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

manubrium - the uppermost section, the superiro edge of which forms the body landmark known as the sternal notch

body - the largest bone section of the sternum

xiphoid process - the inferior tip of the sternum

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38
Q

What bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

The clavicle and the scapula

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39
Q

Where does the shoulder girdle attach to the axial skeleton?

A

The medial end of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum

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40
Q

What are the 3 bones that make up the arm and where are they located?

A

Humerus - single bone in the upper arm

Radius - in the lower arm located laterally on the thumb side

Ulna - in the lower arm located medially on the pinky side

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41
Q

What do we call the group of 8 bones that make up wrist?

A

Carpals

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42
Q

What kind of joint is the wrist?

A

Modified ball and socket

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43
Q

What bones make up the pelvic girdle?

A

The pelvic girdle consists of two large hip bones called the coxae, the sacrum and the coccyx

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44
Q

What is the cartilaginous articulation that limits movement between the left and right pubic bones?

A

The pubic symphysis

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45
Q

What are the 3 fused bones that make up the coxae?

A

the ilium, the ischium and the pubis

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46
Q

What are the 3 types of muscles?

A

Skeletal - the bulk of our muscles, often referred to as striated muscle or voluntary muscle because it is under our conscious control

smooth - make up things like the lining of our intestines, veins etc.

cardiac - found only in the heart

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47
Q

Why don’t we slap ourselves in the face every time we flex our bicep?

A

The muscles work in competition: the bicep competes with the tricep to give us fine speed control.

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48
Q

How many muscles are there in the musculoskeletal system?

A

There are more then 600 muscles in the musculoskeletal system

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49
Q

Why do we shiver when we are cold?

A

Our muscles involuntarily shake to generate heat in an attempt o maintain homesostais

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50
Q

What are the structures that make up the upper airway?

A

Nasopharynx - upper section of the pharynx that connects with the nasal cavity above the soft palate

Oropharynx - section of the pharynx at the back of the throat, from the soft palate to the U-shaped hyoid bone near the base of the tongue

Laryngopharynx

Larynx

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51
Q

What marks the transition between the upper and lower airways?

A

The Larynx

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52
Q

The medical term for the “adam’s apple”?

A

The thyroid cartilage

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53
Q

The layer of smooth glistening tissue that covers each lung is called _____ .

A

pleura

Specifically visceral pleura covers the lungs and parietal pleura lines the chest walls

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54
Q

Why is it bad if the pleural space exists?

A

The pleural space is called a potential space because, under normal conditions, it doesn’t exist. When blood or air leaks into the pleural space the surfaces that normally slide across each other separate and the lung can no longer expand properly

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55
Q

Define ventilation

A

Ventilation - the movement of air between the lungs and the environment requiring chest rise and fall

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56
Q

Define respiration

A

respiration - the exchange of gases necessary for breathing and the regulation of ph levels

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57
Q

What is the difference between ventilation and respiration

A

Ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment, this is what happens when we bag someone in hopes that they will begin the process of respiration.

Respiration is the process of exchanging O2 for Co2 as part of breathing.

You can have ventilation without respiration but you can’t have respiration without ventilation

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58
Q

Why does breathing occur?

A

Breathing occurs as the result of a buildup of carbon dioxide, which causes the pH to decrease in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This small change triggers a response in the medulla oblongata (a portion of the brainstem) that stimulates the phrenic nerve sending a signal to the diaphragm to increase its rate of contraction.

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59
Q

What is Tidal Volume?

A

Tidal volume is the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath, generally 500 mL in an adult

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60
Q

Define Inspiratory reserve volume?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume in the deepest breath you can take after a normal breath

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61
Q

Define Expiratory reserve volume?

A

Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air that you can forcibly breathe out after a normal breath.

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62
Q

The gas the remains in the lungs after expiration is called..

A

Residual volume and it stays to keep the lungs from closing

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63
Q

When discussing respiration what is meant by dead space?

A

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that has no aveoli and, therefore, little to no gas exchange. The mouth, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles are all considered dead space.

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64
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate range for an Adult?

A

12 to 20 breaths/min

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65
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate range for a Child?

A

12 to 40 breaths/min

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66
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate range for an Infant?

A

30 to 60 breaths/min

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67
Q

Why might a patient in cardiac arrest appear to be breathing?

A

Occasional gasping breaths are called agonal gasps and occur when the respiratory center in the brain continues to send signals to the breathing muscles. They are too slow and are too shallow so they will need ventilation and, most likely, chest compressions.

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68
Q

What is Stroke volume?

A

Stroke volume (SV) is the amount of blood moved in one beat.

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69
Q

What is Cardiac Output?

A

Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood moved in 1 minute.

Mathematically, cardiac output can be expressed as follows:
CO = HR × SV

For example: 70 beats/min × 75 mL/beat = 5,250 mL/min, or 5.25 L/min
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70
Q

What are the two electrical processes associated with the hearts mechanical beat?

A

Depolarization, during which the electrical charges on the surface of the muscle cell change from positive to negative.

Repolarization, during which the heart returns to its resting state and the positive charge is restored to the surface.

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71
Q

Where do each of the aorta’s branches lead?

A

Coronary arteries supply the heart.
Carotid arteries supply the head.
Hepatic arteries supply the liver.
Renal arteries supply the kidneys.
Mesenteric arteries supply the digestive system.

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72
Q

What is the difference between the systemic circulation and the pulmonary circulation?

A

systemic circulation - the circuit in the body - carries the oxygen-rich blood from the left ventricle through the body and back to the right atrium. In this system blood gives up oxygen and nutrients and absorbs cellular wastes and carbon dioxide.

pulmonary circulation - the circuit in the lungs - carries oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle through the lungs and back to the left atrium. In this system blood is refreshed with oxygen and gives up carbon dioxide as it passes through the lungs.

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73
Q

The heart is an involuntary muscle which means it is under the control of the ________ nervous system.

A

Autonomic

74
Q

The ______ are the thin bands of fibrous tissue the attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.

A

chordae tendineae

75
Q

How are arteries able to respond to the needs of the body?

A

The constriction and dialation of the tunica media allows the artery to change diameter and increase or decrease pressure and flow to a given area

76
Q

Where might we find a central pulse?

A

carotid artery - at the upper portion of the neck

femoral artery - in the groin

77
Q

Where might we find peripheral pulses?

A

radial artery - at the wrist at the base of the thumb

brachial artery - on the medial aspect of the arm, midway between the elbo and shoulder

posterior tibial artery - posterior to the medial malleolus

dorsalis pedis artery - on the top of the foot

78
Q

Define systemic vascular resistance?

A

systemic vascular resistance - the resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move within the blood vessels; related to the amount of dilation or constriction in the blood vessel.

79
Q

How does blood vessel diameter effect blood pressure?

A

constricted blood vessel - decreased size of container, increased pressure within container

dilated blood vessel - increased size of container, decreased pressure within container

80
Q

What is the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood?

A

hemoglobin is a protein responsible for carrying oxygen

81
Q

What are red blood cells and what do they do?

A

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) - cells that carry oxygen to the body’s tissues

82
Q

What is plasma?

A

plasma - the liquid portion of blood, a sticky yellow fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs for excretion

83
Q

What are White blood cells?

A

White blood cells (leukocytes) - blood cells that have a role in the body’s immune defense mechanisms against infection; also called leukocytes

84
Q

What are platelets?

A

Platelets - tiny, disk-shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the initial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding

85
Q

What are the component parts of plasma?

A
  • water: constitutes 92% of plasma
  • proteins: constitute 7% of the plasma. The majority of this protein is albumin, which has a role in controlling the movement of water into and out of the circulation. Also include clotting factors, enzymes and some hormones
  • oxygen: very little oxygen is dissolved in the plasma; most is bound to the hemoglobin found in the red blood cells.
  • carbon dioxide: transported as bicarbonate in the plasma
  • nitrogen: accounting for roughly 78% of the air we breathe, this gas is dissolved with the plasma
  • nutrients: fuel for the cells
  • cellular wastes: lactic acid, carbon dioxide, etc.
  • others: hormone, other cellular products
86
Q

What part does the spleen play in the circulatory system?

A

Though it is a lymphatic organ, it helps the circulatory system by digesting old and degraded red blood cells (along with the liver) and recycling hemoglobin.

87
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

Blood Pressure - The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.

88
Q

The cycle in which the left ventricle contracts, forcing blood in the aorta is called ______ .

A

Systole - the lub phase of a heart beat

89
Q

The ______ side of the heart is the high pressure pump, feeding oxygenated blood into the tissues of the body.

A

The left side

90
Q

The pressure inside of the arteries during the high-pressure pumping phase is called ______

A

Systolic Pressure

91
Q

In the heart, the resting pressure in the arteries during the relax and refill phase of pumping is called ______

A

Dyastolic pressure

92
Q

What is the tool we use to measure blood pressure?

A

sphygmomanometer (blood pressure cuff)

93
Q

What is systolic blood pressure and what does it tell us?

A

Systolic blood pressure - pressure within the arteries when the heart is contracting: left ventricular force

  • Indicates the heart pumping effectiveness
  • Indicates blood available to the heart
94
Q

What is Diastolic blood pressure and what does it tell us?

A

Diastolic blood pressure - pressure within the arteries when the heart is at rest

  • Indicates adequate cardiac relaxation and pressure in the arteries between heartbeats
  • Indicates amount of blood with blood vessels
95
Q

What is pulse pressure and what does it tell us?

A

Pulse pressure - relationship between systolic and diastolic pressures; provides information about the body’s response to stress

96
Q

What is Preload and what does it tell us?

A

Preload - Amount of blood returning to the heart

  • Too little preload and blood pressure falls
  • Too high preload and the heart cannot move blood effectively
97
Q

What is Afterload and what does it tell us?

A

Afterload - Diastolic pressure is the same as afterload

  • Indicates adequate cardiac relaxation and pressure in the arteries between heartbeats
  • Indicates amount of blood with blood vessels
98
Q

What is Stroke Volume (SV) and what does it tell us?

A

Stroke Volume (SV) - Amount of blood moved with one contraction of the heart (left ventricle)

  • Weak left ventricle moves less blood per beat than a strong left ventricle
99
Q

What is Cardiac Output (CO)?

A

Cardiac Output (CO) - Amount of blood moved in 1 minute

  • CO = SV x HR
100
Q

What is Systemic Vascular resistance (SVR) and what does it tell us?

A

Systemiv Vascular resistance (SVR) - Resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels (excluding the pulmonary vessels)

  • The higher the SVR, the smaller the container; therefor, the higher the pressure of blood with the vessel
101
Q

What is perfusion?

A

Perfusion - the flow of blood through body tissues and vessels

102
Q

What does a loss of blood pressure mean for our bodies?

A

Organs, tissues and cells are no longer adequately perfused or supplied with oxygen and waste accumulates. This can lead to cells, tissue or organ death.

103
Q

What is Hypoperfusion?

A

Hypoperfusion - aka Shock - a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular function

104
Q

While sometimes interchangeable Hypoperfusion and Shock are different in what critical distinction?

A

Hypoperfusion CAN be systemic or localized, perhaps due to an arterial occlusion in a specific part of the body

Shock is ALWAYS systemic

105
Q

What does the body do to respond to blood loss?

A
  • The vessels constrict, creating a smaller vessel to keep blood pressure at the proper level
  • The heart beat increases to move a smaller volume of blood more efficiently and keep cardiac output constant at 5 to 6 L per minute
106
Q

What are the 2 main forces at work inside the capillaries?

A

Hydrostatic pressure - the pressure of water against the walls of its container

Oncotic pressure - the pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary, as the result of the presence of plasma proteins

107
Q

The component in blood that fights infection

A

White Blood Cells

108
Q

The component in blood that Transports oxygen

A

Red Blood cells (Hemoglobin)

109
Q

The component in blood that transports the majority of carbon dioxide

A

Plasma

110
Q

The component in blood that controls (buffers) pH

A

Chemicals with the plasma

111
Q

The component in blood that transports wastes and nutrients

A

Plasma (water)

112
Q

The component in blood that controls Clotting (coagulation)

A

Platelets and clotting factors in the plasma

113
Q

Where do the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine come from?

A

The adrenal glands

114
Q

Define Adrenergic

A

Adrenergic - Pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradrenaline (eg. adrenergic nerves, adrenergic response); also pertain to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine

115
Q

What are alpha-adrenergic and beta-adrenergic receptors and what do they do?

A

receptor sites within the heart and blood vessels that, when stimulated, work to increase blood pressure, heart rate and bronchodilation.

Together, the alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors prepare the body for fight of flight.

116
Q

What are the special pressure sensors through the body that let the brain know about blood pressure called?

A

Baroreceptors

117
Q

What does the Somatic nervous system control?

A

Voluntary muscles

118
Q

What does the Autonomic nervous system control?

A

Parasympathetic (feed or breed) system and the Sympathetic (fight or flight) systems

Involuntary actions such as heart beat and digestion

119
Q

What are the 3 major subdivisions of the brain?

A
  • Cerebrum - higher brain functions - interprets what we see, hear and feel, encoding and decoding speech, reasoning and learning, controlling precise muscle movements and managing emotion
  • Cerebellum - controls balance, muscle coordination and posture
  • Brainstem - connects the cerebrum and cerebellum to the spinal cord and is the most primitive part of the central nervous system controlling virtually all involuntary life sustaining functions; heart rate, breathing, temperature regulation, digestion, vomiting, swallowing, coughing and the wake/sleep cycle
120
Q

What is the Reticular activating system (RAS) and why does it matter?

A

One of the functions of this system is to regulate consciousness. When stimulated, it wakes the cerebral cortex, without it wakefulness and awareness wouldn’t be possible. This is the cause of the momentary loss of consciousness when you get a concussion.

121
Q

What is the general function of the Occipital lobe

A

Vision and storage of visual memories

122
Q

What is the general function of the Parietal lobe

A

Sense of touch and texture; storage of those memories

123
Q

What is the general function of the Temporal lobe

A

Hearing, smell, and language; storage of sound and odor memories

124
Q

What is the general function of the Frontal lobe

A

Voluntary muscle control and storage of those memories

125
Q

What is the general function of the Prefrontal area

A

Judgement and predicting consequences of actions, abstract intellectual functions

126
Q

What is the general function of the Limbic system

A

Basic emotions, basic reflexes (eg, chewing, swallowing)

127
Q

What is the general function of the Diencephalon (thalamus)

A

Relay center; filters important signals from routine signals

128
Q

What is the general function of the Diencephalon (hypothalamus)

A

Emotions, temperature control, interface with endocrine system (hormone control)

129
Q

What is the general function of the Midbrain

A

level of consciousness, reticular activating system, muscle tone, and posture

130
Q

What is the general function of the Pons

A

Respiratory patterning and depth

131
Q

What is the general function of the Medulla oblongata

A

Heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate

132
Q

What is the general function of the Spinal Cord

A

Reflexes, relays information to and from the body

133
Q

What is the general function of the Cranial nerves

A

Brainstem to head and neck; special peripheral nerves that connect directly to body parts

134
Q

What is the general function of the Peripheral nerves

A

Brain to spinal cord to body part; receive stimulus from body, send commands to body

135
Q

What are the 2 types of nerves used in the peripheral nervous system?

A

Sensory nerves and motor nerves

136
Q

What are sensory nerves?

A

The nerves of the body that carry information back to the brain; taste, sight, heat/cold, etc.

There are many types and each is specialized for one function.

137
Q

What are motor nerves?

A

Nerves that carry information from the brain to the muscles.

Every skeletal muscle in the body has its own motor nerve.

138
Q

What are the layers of tissue from your skin down to the muscle?

A

Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue

139
Q

What are the individual parts of the gastrointestinal system?

A
  • Gastrointestinal tract (stomach and intestines)
  • mouth
  • salivary glands
  • pharynx
  • esophagus
  • liver
  • gallbladder
  • pancrea
  • rectum
  • anus
140
Q

What is digestion?

A

The processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body

141
Q

What are the major organs in the RIght Upper Quadrant (RUQ)?

A
  • liver
  • gallbladder
  • a portion of the colon
  • part of the pancreas
  • kidney

The liver fills the anteroposterior depth of the abdomen in this quadrant and is therefor at risk for injury in this area

142
Q

What are the major organs in the Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)?

A
  • stomach
  • spleen
  • a portion of the colon
  • a part of the pancreas
  • kidney

The stomach may sag down into the left lower quadrant when full.

The Spleen lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the quadrant, inferior to the diaphragm and anterior to the 9th to 11th ribs. The spleen is frequently injured when there are rib fractures in this area.

143
Q

What are the major organs in the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)?

A
  • two portions of the large intestine: the cecum, the first portions into which the small intestine (ileum) opens and the ascending colon
  • appendix
  • portion of the bladder
144
Q

What are the major organs in the Lower Left Quadrant (LLQ)?

A
  • descending and sigmoid portions of the colon
  • portion of the bladder
145
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Mouth do?

A

Mechanically breaks down food; begins chemical breakdown with saliva

146
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Esophagus do?

A

Moves foor from the mouth to the stomach; muscular and vascular sctructure

147
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Stomach do?

A

Performs mechanical and chemical breakdown of food; food in, chyme out

148
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Small intestine do?

A

Divided into 3 parts (Duodenum, jejnum and ileum)

Major site for chemical breakdown of food; major absorption of water, fats, proteins, carbohydrates and vitamins

149
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Large Intestine do?

A

Water absorption; formation of feces; bacterial digestion of food

150
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Anus/rectum do?

A

Last portion of large intestine; sphincter to control release of feces

151
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Liver do?

A

Production of bile; assists with carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism of nutrients with the bloodstream; manufactures proteins for immune regulation and clotting; detoxification of blood; elimination of waste

152
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Pancreas do?

A

Exocrine: produces enzymes for protein, carbohydrate and fat breakdown within the duodenum
Endocrine: produces insulin and glucagon to help regulate blood sugar

153
Q

As part of the digestive tract what does the Gallbladder do?

A

Storage of bile

154
Q

What are the parts of the lymphatic system?

A
  • spleen
  • Lymph nodes
  • lymph
  • lymph vessels
  • Thymus gland
155
Q

What is lymph?

A

lymph - A thin, straw-colored fluid that carries oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the cells and carries waste products of metabolism away from the cells and back in to the capillaries so that they may be excreted.

156
Q

Unlike other body systems that are controlled via impulses and the central nervous system, how is the endocrine system controlled?

A

Using hormones

157
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

The complex message and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones.

158
Q

What is a Hormone?

A

Substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism; they regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth and body temperature

159
Q

In broad terms, how does the endocrine system work?

A

Stimuli > Endocrine gland stimulated > Hormone secreted into bloodstream > Hormone interacts with target tissue > effect produced > effect becomes new stimuli

160
Q

What is the location and function of the adrenal gland?

A

Above the kidney

Stress response, fight-or-flight reaction

Produces: Epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol and others.

161
Q

What is the location and function of the ovaries?

A

Female pelvis (two glands)

Regulate sexual function, characteristics and reproduction

Estrogen and others

162
Q

What is the location and function of the pancreas?

A

Retroperitoneal space

Regulates glucose metabolism and other functions

Insulin, glucagon and others

163
Q

What is the location and function of the Parathyroid

A

Neck (behind and beside the thyroid) (three to five glands)

Regulates serum calcium

Parathyroid Hermone

164
Q

What is the location and function of the Pituitary?

A

Base of the skull

Regulates all other endocrine glands

Multiple, controls other endocrine glands

165
Q

What is the location and function of the Testes?

A

Male scrotum (two glands)

Regulate sexual function, characteristics and reproduction

Testosterone and others

166
Q

What is the location and function of the Thyroid?

A

Neck (over the larynx)

Regulates metabolism

Thyroxine and others

167
Q

What organs/structures make up the urinary system?

A
  • Kidneys (solid organs)
  • Ureter (hollow organs)
  • Bladder
  • Urethra
168
Q

What are the functions of the urinary system?

A

The main functions of the urinary system are:
- to control fluid balance in the body
- to filter and eliminate wastes
- to control pH balance

169
Q

What is the wave like contraction of smooth muscle that moves urine through the ureter into the bladder?

A

Pesistalsis

170
Q

What is pH?

A

The measure of acidity or alkalinity in a solution

Solutions that are high in pH (>7.0) are considered aklaline
Solutions that are low in pH (<7.0) are considered acidic
Solutions that are neither (pH 7.0) are considered neutral

171
Q

What is respiratory compromise?

A

The inability of the body to move gas effectively

The result of either ventilation or respiration being compromised

172
Q

A decreased level of oxygen is called

A

hypoxia

173
Q

An elevated level of carbon dioxide in the body is called…

A

hypercapnia

174
Q

What is the ventillation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio?

A

A measurement that examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs

175
Q

What are the 6 types of shock?

A
  • Hypovolemic - shock resulting from lack of blood volume
  • Cadiogenic - shock associated with impaired heart function
  • Obstructive - Shock resulting from blocked blood flow back to or through the heart
  • Anaplylactic - Shock resulting from severe allergic reaction
  • Septic - Shock resulting from severe infection
  • Neurogenic - Shock resulting from injury to the nervous system
176
Q

Shock resulting from a lack of blood volume is called _____.

A

Hypovolemic - shock resulting from lack of blood volume

177
Q

Shock associated with impaired heart function is called ______.

A

Cadiogenic - shock associated with impaired heart function

178
Q

Shock associated with severe allergic reaction is called ______.

A

Anaplylactic - Shock resulting from severe allergic reaction

179
Q

Shock associated with severe infection is called ______.

A

Septic - Shock resulting from severe infection

180
Q

Shock resulting from injury to the nervous system is called _____.

A

Neurogenic - Shock resulting from injury to the nervous system

Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, 12th Edition (30 decks)

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