CHAPTER 6: PHYSICAL SECURITY Flashcards
What process does a security manager use in establishing priorities in the protection of assets?
a. Audit survey
b. Security survey
c. Risk analysis or assessment
d. Inspection review
e. Both b and c
f. All of the above
E
The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?
a. Cost and vulnerability
b. Cost and criticality
c. Criticality and vulnerability
d. Vulnerability and environmental conditions
e. None of the above
C
A critical on-site examination and analysis of a facility to ascertain the present security status and to identify deficiencies or excesses in determining the protection needed to make recommendations to improve overall security is the definition of a(n):
a. Full-field inspection
b. Inspection review
c. Audit survey
d. Security survey
e. None of the above
D
What is a key consideration in a risk analysis or risk assessment process?
a. Vulnerability to attack
b. Probability of attack
c. Cost
d. Impact to the business if loss occurs
e. Both a and b
f. All of the above
F
From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?
a. The identity of experienced consultants
b. An effective security plan
c. The building site itself
d. An architect with knowledge of physical security
e. None of the above
C
Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?
a. Many people are naïve and trusting.
b. All installation personnel must be made aware of the constant threat of breaches of security.
c. Structural aids to security are valueless without active support of all personnel.
d. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind.
e. None of the above.
D
The most vulnerable link in any identification system is:
a. Poor quality of identification badges
b. Educational background of security officers
c. Not enough security officers assigned to control posts
d. Identification cards being too small
e. Perfunctory performance of duty
f. None of the above
E
Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?
a. The identification card should be designed as simply as possible.
b. Detailed instructions should be disseminated as to where, when, and how badges should be worn.
c. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when an identification card or badge is lost.
d. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication.
e. Prerequisites for reissue should be devised and disseminated.
D
The use of a simple code word or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person
has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:
a. Code one
b. SOS
c. Security alert
d. Duress code
e. Basic alert
D
The practice of having at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed, present during any operation that affords access to a sensitive area is referred to as the:
a. Two-man access procedure
b. Two-man control rule
c. Two-man rule
d. Controlled access rule
e. Information security rule
f. None of the above
C
The designation and establishment of “restricted areas” according to army regulations is performed by the:
a. Joint Chiefs of Staff
b. National Security Agency
c. Secretary of Defense
d. Secretary of the Army
e. Military commander of the installation or facility
E
Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?
a. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation.
b. They provide increased security through buffer zones.
c. They allow for varying degrees of security as required.
d. They improve overall security.
e. They make it possible to have security compatible with operational requirements.
A
A restricted area containing a security interest or other sensitive matter, in which uncontrolled movement can permit access to the
security interest or sensitive matter but within which access may be prevented by security escort and other internal restrictions and controls, is called a(n):
a. Exclusion area
b. Controlled area
c. Limited area
d. Sensitized area
e. None of the above
C
What type of fencing is generally used for protection of limited and exclusion areas?
a. Concertina
b. Barbed tape
c. Barbed wire
d. Chain link
e. Wood
D
Excluding the top guard, a chain-link fence for general security purposes should be:
a. 6 gauge
b. 7 gauge
c. 8 gauge
d. 9 gauge
e. 10 gauge
D
In a chain-link fence with mesh openings for general security purposes, the openings should be no larger than:
a. 1⅕ in.
b. 2 in.
c. 2½ in.
d. 4 in.
e. 4½ in.
B
Excluding the top guard, standard barbed-wire fencing that is intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:
a. 6 ft. high
b. 7 ft. high
c. 8 ft. high
d. 9 ft. high
e. 10 ft. high
B
The federal specification regarding standard barbed-wire fencing that is twisted and double-strand is that it should be:
a. 8 gauge
b. 10 gauge
c. 12 gauge
d. 14 gauge
e. None of the above
C
A standard barbed-wire, twisted, double-strand fence has how many point barbs spaced an equal distance apart.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
D
The distance between barbed strands in a barbed-wire fence should not exceed:
a. 2 in.
b. 3 in.
c. 4 in.
d. 5 in.
e. 6 in.
E
Top-guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:
a. 1 ft.
b. 1½ ft.
c. 2 ft.
d. 2½ ft.
e. 3 ft.
A
A top guard must consist of:
a. Two strands of barbed wire or tape
b. Three strands of barbed wire or tape
c. Four strands of barbed wire or tape
d. Five strands of barbed wire or tape
e. Six strands of barbed wire or tape
B
How many inches apart should strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence be spaced?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
E
Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings should be protected by securely fastened welded-bar grills when they have a cross-sectional area greater than:
a. 10 in.2
b. 48 in.2
c. 64 in.2
d. 96 in.2
e. 104 in.2
D
Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone covering:
a. 10 ft.
b. 15 ft.
c. 20 ft.
d. 30 ft.
e. 40 ft.
C
As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the
perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:
a. 10 ft.
b. 20 ft.
c. 30 ft.
d. 40 ft.
e. 50 ft.
E
Manhole covers ― in. or more in diameter should be secured to prevent unauthorized openings.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50
A
Which of the following characteristics of protective lighting is incorrect?
a. It may be unnecessary where the perimeter fence is protected by a central alarm system.
b. It usually requires less intensity than working light.
c. It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment.
d. It should only be used as a psychological deterrent.
e. Such lighting is expensive to maintain.
E
Measured horizontally 6 in. above ground level and at least 30 ft. outside the exclusion area to barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of:
a. 0.2 foot-candle
b. 0.3 foot-candle
c. 0.4 foot-candle
d. 0.6 foot-candle
e. 0.10 foot-candle
A
Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct?
a. Lighting should be used with other measures, such as fixed security posts, fences, etc., and not used alone.
b. A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes.
c. Adequate, even light should be used on bordering areas.
d. There should be a high brightness contrast between an intruder and the background.
e. Glaring lights should be directed at the eyes of an intruder.
B
Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting. Which of the following is not used?
a. Emergency
b. Movable
c. Standby
d. Intermittent
e. Continuous
D
What is the most common protective lighting system, which consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area
during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light?
a. Emergency lighting
b. Movable lighting
c. Standby lighting
d. Intermittent lighting
e. Continuous lighting
E
Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:
a. 0.5 foot-candle
b. 1.0 foot-candle
c. 1.5 foot-candles
d. 2.0 foot-candles
e. 3.0 foot-candles
B
Water approaches that extend to 100 ft. from the pier should be illuminated to at least:
a. 0.5 foot-candle
b. 1.0 foot-candle
c. 1.5 foot-candles
d. 2.0 foot-candles
e. 3.0 foot-candles
A
The US Army illumination intensity minimums for lighting the perimeter of a restricted area is:
a. 0.15 foot-candle
b. 0.40 foot-candle
c. 1.00 foot-candle
d. 2.00 foot-candles
e. 2.15 foot-candles
B
What agency should be consulted before installing protective lighting adjacent to navigable waters?
a. Local law enforcement agencies
b. The Department of Transportation
c. The Bureau of Customs
d. The US Coast Guard
e. Both a and b
D
The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as a(n):
a. Capacitance detection system
b. Ultrasonic detection system
c. Vibration detection system
d. Electromechanical detection system
e. Microwave detection system
E
The intrusion detection system that is used on safes, walls, and openings in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around an
object to be protected is known as a(n):
a. Capacitance detection system
b. Ultrasonic detection system
c. Contact microphone detection system
d. Microwave detection system
e. Radio-frequency detection system
A
An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police or fire alarm system is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
D
An alarm system that is monitored by an outside company to provide electric protective services in which they provide the appropriate actions is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
A
An alarm system whereby the central station is owned by and located within the installation being protected is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
C
The principle of the pin-tumbler lock can be traced back historically to:
a. Egyptians more than 4000 years ago
b. The Civil War period
c. The late eighteenth century
d. 1905
e. World War I
A
Which of the following is not true with regard to lock-and-key systems?
a. The locking system should be supplemented with other security devices.
b. Most key locks can be picked by an expert in a few minutes.
c. A high-quality pickproof lock is considered a positive bar to entry.
d. The lock is the most accepted and widely used security device of the basic safeguards in protecting installations.
e. Locks, regardless of quality or cost, should be considered as delay devices only.
C
Of the following locks, which type is generally considered to have the poorest security value?
a. An interchangeable core system
b. Conventional combination locks
c. Key locks
d. Manipulation-resistant combination locks
e. Both a and d
f. None of the above
C
The number of combinations possible with a lock that has 40 numbers and a 3-number combination is:
a. 12,000
b. 16,000
c. 32,000
d. 64,000
e. 86,000
D
Which lock is generally used on automobiles, desks, and cabinets?
a. Wafer
b. Ward
c. Pin tumbler
d. Combination
e. Cypher
A
Which of the following is not true with regard to door latches?
a. A dead-bolt latch is easy to install and can be used on almost any door.
b. Chain latches are highly recommended as effective security measures.
c. A dead-bolt latch is very expensive.
d. A dead-bolt latch increases the security posture of the facility.
e. Both b and c.
f. Both a and d.
E
An inventory of key systems should be conducted at least:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually
e. Annually
E
A sentry dog normally does not perform as well at:
a. Radar sites
b. Warehouses
c. Gasoline storage areas
d. Ammunition storage areas
e. Offices containing classified materials
C
Which of the following is more of a probable disadvantage in the use of sentry dogs?
a. A dog is more effective than a human during inclement weather.
b. A dog has a keen sense of smell.
c. A dog provides a strong psychological deterrent.
d. The type of dog best suited for security work is naturally dangerous.
e. A dog can detect and apprehend intruders.
D
In meeting federal specifications, insulated units must have the following fire-resistant minimum ratings:
a. Class 150: 2 h
b. Class 150: 4 h
c. Class 350: 1 h
d. Class 350: 3 h
e. Class 350: 4 h
C
In meeting minimal federal specifications, non-insulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:
a. 15 ft.
b. 20 ft.
c. 22 ft.
d. 25 ft.
e. 30 ft.
E
In meeting minimal federal specifications, government security containers must be equipped with a combination lock capable of
resisting manipulation and radiological attack for:
a. 10 man-hours
b. 20 man-hours
c. 30 man-hours
d. 40 man-hours
e. 45 man-hours
B
Which of the following is not an approved UL safe classification?
a. 350-1
b. 350-2
c. 350-3
d. 350-4
e. None of the above
C
Underwriters Laboratories does independent testing on security containers that simulate a major fire where the heat builds up gradually to:
a. 750°F
b. 1000°F
c. 2000°F
d. 2500°F
e. 3000°F
C
The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors has a minimum reinforced concrete wall, floor, and ceiling of:
a. 4 ft.
b. 6 ft.
c. 8 ft.
d. 10 ft.
e. 12 ft.
B
