CHAPTER 3: INVESTIGATION

Question 1

Which of the following is not a legitimate purpose of an investigation for employee misconduct?

a. To determine whether company rules have been violated
b. To ascertain whether company policies have been violated
c. To catalog information about employees that might be derogatory for future use
d. To determine if state laws have been violated
e. To determine if federal laws have been violated

Answer 1

c. To catalog information about employees that might be derogatory

Question 2

The investigation’s best approach to questioning relies on the following:

a. Most suspects will lie or circumvent the truth.
b. A suspect is innocent until proven guilty.
c. A key suspect is guilty, and evidence must be found.
d. A signed statement in the form of a confession must be obtained.
e. None of the above.

Answer 2

b. A suspect is innocent until proven guilty.

Question 3

Some facts about drug users that may assist in recognizing problem areas during a drug investigation are set forth as follows.
Indicate the one that is erroneous.

a. The only common characteristic is that drug abusers use drugs to a point where they feel they can no longer manage without its support.
b. The adult abuser of drugs commonly has a history of social maladjustment.
c. Drug abuse is concentrated in but not confined to “slum areas” of large cities.
d. Those who can afford to buy drugs without resorting to crime are less likely to be arrested for drug violations.
e. Chronic abuse of drugs is generally not considered a symptom of mental or emotional illness.

Answer 3

e. Chronic abuse of drugs is generally not considered a symptom
of mental or emotional illness.

Question 4

A craving for a drug is exhibited often by the following:

a. Water running from nose or eyes
b. Frequent yawning or sneezing
c. Continual itching of arms and legs
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 4

d. All of the above

Question 5

A narcotic addict is sometimes called:

a. A bingo
b. A geezer
c. A hophead
d. A pop
e. A bagman

Answer 5

c. A hophead

Question 6

One whose sexual desires are directed to both men and women is known as a:

a. Lesbian
b. Bisexual
c. Homosexual
d. Transvestite
e. None of the above

Answer 6

b. Bisexual

Question 7

When it is necessary to question a witness about sexual deviation, all of the following should be avoided except:

a. Using street language
b. Giving the impression of being avid to develop the facts
c. Leaving the impression that you suspect subject of being a sex
deviate
d. Allowing the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own
words
e. None of the above

Answer 7

d. Allowing the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own words

Question 8

In conducting gambling investigations, the security officer should:

a. Cooperate with local, county, state, or federal law enforcement
b. Not use undercover operatives
c. Wiretap the employee’s home phone
d. Search the lockers of all suspects
e. None of the above

Answer 8

a. Cooperate with local, county, state, or federal law enforcement

Question 9

Which of the following investigative resources should not normally be used in a gambling investigation conducted by a proprietary investigative force?

a. Closed-circuit TV cameras
b. Undercover operatives
c. Telephone surveillance
d. Fluorescent powder
e. Physical surveillances

Answer 9

c. Telephone surveillance

Question 10

In an investigation concerning regulations of common carriers in interstate commerce or investigation of railroad accidents, a good
source of information would be the:

a. Federal Bureau of Investigation
b. Bureau of Customs
c. Federal Trade Commission
d. Interstate Commerce Commission
e. General Accounting Office

Answer 10

d. Interstate Commerce Commission

Question 11

In investigating homicide and suicide, the best source of information would probably be the:

a. County coroner’s office
b. Health office
c. State attorney general’s office
d. Federal Bureau of Investigation
e. Sheriff’s office

Answer 11

a. County coroner’s office

Question 12

To obtain information concerning marriage licenses, an investigator would contact the:

a. Appropriate health department
b. Tax bureau
c. Bureau of Vital Statistics
d. Appropriate court
e. Social Security Office

Answer 12

c. Bureau of Vital Statistics

Question 13

In conducting a “claim” investigation where the claim is a serious one and where there is cause for doubt in connection with the loss or claim, the type of investigation to be used is:

a. Telephone
b. Mail
c. Personal contact
d. Undercover
e. Clandestine

Answer 13

c. Personal contact

Question 14

One of the following is not one of the desired characteristics of a statement obtained during a claim investigation:

a. It should be written in ink or indelible pencil, or typed.
b. It must be dated.
c. It should be in short paragraphs with two spaces between each paragraph.
d. It may be signed or unsigned.
e. It must contain the identification of the person making it.

Answer 14

c. It should be in short paragraphs with two spaces between each paragraph.

Question 15

A sudden, violent, and noisy eruption, outburst, or discharge by material acted upon with force, such as fire, shock, or electrical charge, which causes the material, either solid or liquid, to convert into gas and violently expand or burst is the definition of:

a. A flash fire
b. An explosion
c. A detonation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 15

d. All of the above

Question 16

A yellow-colored crystalline solid pertains to the following explosive:

a. TNT
b. Dynamite
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Mercury fulminate
e. Picric acid

Answer 16

e. Picric acid

Question 17

Which of the following is not a high explosive?

a. Nitrocellulose
b. Nitroglycerin
c. Dynamite
d. Nitro starch
e. Picric acid

Answer 17

a. Nitrocellulose

Question 18

Which of the following could be considered a source of information?

a. A record
b. A custodian of record
c. A public official
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 18

d. All of the above

Question 19

One of the following is not considered an element of the common law crime of arson:

a. Commercial building
b. Maliciousness
c. Burning
d. Willfulness
e. Of another

Answer 19

a. Commercial building

Question 20

Which of the following is not usually applicable to a confession?

a. It was voluntary.
b. It was made subsequent to commission of a wrongful act.
c. It is often applied to civil transactions.
d. It gives no inference other than guilt.
e. It is an admission of guilt.

Answer 20

c. It is often applied to civil transactions.

Question 21

Which of the following is not a requirement for a successful undercover investigation?

a. A qualified investigator
b. A plausible cover story
c. An effective control scheme
d. Developing necessary evidence for prosecution
e. A reliable method to discontinue or even suddenly abort the investigation

Answer 21

d. Developing necessary evidence for prosecution

Question 22

If it is necessary to terminate an undercover investigation, one of the following actions should not be done:

a. Withdraw agent safely
b. Withdraw agent immediately
c. Salvage as much of the resultant data as possible
d. Prepare explanations for those who demand them
e. Reveal the agent’s identity

Answer 22

e. Reveal the agent’s identity

Question 23

The principal item of expense in an investigations budget will be:

a. Communications
b. Equipment
c. Maintenance
d. Personnel costs
e. Training

Answer 23

d. Personnel costs

Question 24

The single most important administrative control in handling investigations is:

a. Indexing
b. Case assignment
c. Case review
d. Documentation of status
e. Case “ticklers”

Answer 24

a. Indexing

Question 25

The frequency of a reinvestigation of the “financial lifestyle” inquiry should generally be:

a. Never
b. Every 6 months
c. Every year
d. Every 18 months
e. Every 3 years

Answer 25

d. Every 18 months

Question 26

In conducting interviews during an investigation concerning “financial lifestyle,” the investigator should more appropriately tell the person being interviewed that the employee is:

a. Being considered for a position.
b. Suspected of wrongdoing.
c. Being interviewed in connection with a position of trust.
d. Being considered for a promotion.
e. None of the above: Tell the interviewee nothing.

Answer 26

c. Being interviewed in connection with a position of trust.

Question 27

One of the following is not prohibited by the Federal Civil Rights Act during an investigation:

a. Asking questions about prior arrests
b. Asking questions about prior convictions
c. Directing inquiry into areas of race or color for discriminatory purposes
d. Directing inquiry into areas of religion or sex for discriminatory purposes
e. None of the above

Answer 27

b. Asking questions about prior convictions

Question 28

Age discrimination in the Employment Act of 1967 bans discrimination against workers or applicants who are:

a. At least 35 but less than 60
b. At least 45 but less than 70
c. At least 50 but less than 70
d. At least 30 but less than 60
e. At least 40 but less than 65

Answer 28

e. At least 40 but less than 65

Question 29

Questions on an application left blank or field investigative inquiries that deal with a union membership or affiliation should be avoided as they may lead to charges that constitute violations of:

a. The National Labor Relations Act
b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. The Civil Rights Act of 1976
d. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
e. The Federal Tort Claims Act

Answer 29

a. The National Labor Relations Act

Question 30

As a general rule, the number of consecutive years of employment or nonemployment to be verified preceding the date of investigation is:

a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. 10 years

Answer 30

b. 7 years

Question 31

Any investigation containing unfavorable information should be retained in a file for a period of not less than:

a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
e. 10 years

Answer 31

c. 3 years

Question 32

A question on an application form inquiring about prior arrests is illegal as a violation of:

a. The National Labor Relations Act
b. The Federal Tort Claim Act
c. The Omnibus Crime Control Act
d. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
e. The Federal Full Employment Act

Answer 32

d. The Civil Rights Act of 1964

Question 33

The rule that states that approximately 1 in 10 applications will have major omissions, which will require going back to the applicant, is called:

a. The Rule of Ten
b. The Rule of Nine
c. The 1-10 Rule
d. The Verification Rule
e. Sullivan’s Rule

Answer 33

a. The Rule of Ten

Question 34

Who of the following should be interviewed last or near the end of an investigation under usual circumstances?

a. Those with extensive information
b. Those preparing to take a trip out of the area
c. Those likely to be hostile
d. Those with less than extensive information
e. Those only in the area temporarily

Answer 34

c. Those likely to be hostile

Question 35

If the interviewee during an investigation is hostile, it is preferable to conduct the interview:

a. At the security office
b. In the home of the interviewee
c. At a neutral spot
d. In an automobile
e. At the office of the interviewee’s lawyer

Answer 35

a. At the security office

Question 36

Which of the following characterizations regarding investigative surveillance is not true?

a. It is expensive.
b. It is time consuming.
c. It is often nonproductive.
d. It is illegal in most jurisdictions.
e. It can be fixed or mobile.

Answer 36

d. It is illegal in most jurisdictions.

Question 37

The process whereby communications are intercepted or recorded is known as:

a. Physical surveillance
b. Technical surveillance
c. Surreptitious surveillance
d. Black bag operations
e. None of the above

Answer 37

b. Technical surveillance

Question 38

Situations in which at least one party to a communication is aware and willing that the recording of his or her conversation with another person or persons is being made are:

a. A violation of the Omnibus Crime Control Act
b. A violation of the Federal Communications Act
c. Not a violation
d. Allowed by the Federal Anti-Racketeering Statute
e. Allowed by 18 USC 2511

Answer 38

c. Not a violation

Question 39

The specific emplacement of an agent or operative in an environment or situation in which the agent’s true role is unknown with the purpose of developing information to be used later in a criminal investigation is known as:

a. Closed investigation
b. Secret investigation
c. Technical investigation
d. Concealed investigation
e. Undercover investigation

Answer 39

e. Undercover investigation

Question 40

It is becoming increasingly more difficult to do a good preemployment background investigation because of:

a. The expense
b. The lack of skilled investigators
c. Various rulings and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques or instruments available
d. The uncooperative attitudes of persons interviewed
e. Such investigations being illegal in a number of states

Answer 40

c. Various rulings and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques or instruments available

Question 41

Which of the following is an advantage of having investigations conducted by in-house security staff?

a. It is cheaper as a general rule, depending on number of checks being done.
b. In-house staff is better trained.
c. In-house staff has a better grasp as to the objective of the investigation.
d. In-house staff has better sources of information.
e. None of the above.

Answer 41

c. In-house staff has a better grasp as to the objective of the investigator.

Question 42

The most widely recognized and best-known instrument designed to detect deception is:

a. Fingerprint classifier
b. Voice analyzer
c. Polygraph
d. Truth serum
e. Stress analyzer

Answer 42

c. Polygraph

Question 43

The most important factor in the use of a polygraph is:

a. The examiner
b. The make of the instrument
c. Environmental factors
d. The time of day
e. The types of questions

Answer 43

a. The examiner

Question 44

Which of the following is not a good procedure with regard to the use of the polygraph by investigators?

a. Pointing out its effectiveness
b. Describing it as infallible
c. Withholding detailed information from the examinee
d. Telling the examinee how experienced the examiner is
e. Working with the examiner as a team member

Answer 44

b. Describing it as infallible

Question 45

The US Army trains its polygraph operators as well as those from other US agencies at:

a. West Point, New York
b. Washington, DC
c. Fort Gordon, Georgia
d. Fort Leavenworth, Kansas
e. Fort Meade, Maryland

Answer 45

c. Fort Gordon, Georgia

Question 46

A device used to detect deception through stress recorded by voice modulations is known as (a):

a. Polygraph
b. Lie detector
c. Psychological stress analyzer
d. Truth serum
e. Hypnotism

Answer 46

c. Psychological stress analyzer

Question 47

Which of the following characteristics relate to the psychological stress analyzer?

a. No physical connection with the body is required.
b. The subject is not required to answer in a terse yes-or-no format.
c. It can be used covertly.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

Answer 47

d. All of the above.

Question 48

The effectiveness of the voice analyzer in accurately detecting deception is:

a. 100%
b. 96%
c. 94%
d. 85%
e. Not determined

Answer 48

e. Not determined

Question 49

Identify the act that basically prohibits discrimination, discharge, failure or refusal to hire, etc. on any of the grounds of race, color,
religion, sex, or national origin:

a. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. The First Amendment
d. The Omnibus Crime Control Act
e. None of the above

Answer 49

b. The Civil Rights Act of 1964

Question 50

Under court interpretations of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which of the following are not allowed during investigations?

a. Questions regarding prior arrests
b. Questions regarding prior convictions
c. Questions regarding age
d. Questions regarding residence
e. Questions regarding prior employment

Answer 50

a. Questions regarding prior arrests

Question 51

Interviews should be conducted:

a. In the company of the suspect’s attorney
b. In an area where distractions are minimal
c. In a comfortable room that is well furnished, like at home
d. In an area where the light is focused on the suspect’s face
e. None of the above

Answer 51

b. In an area where distractions are minimal

Question 52

The witness’s idea of the suspect, described in words, is called:

a. Portrait parle
b. Modus operandi
c. Corpus delecti
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 52

a. Portrait parle

Question 53

The most important qualification of a good undercover operator is:

a. Resourcefulness
b. Education
c. Experience
d. Good contacts
e. None of the above

Answer 53

a. Resourcefulness

Question 54

The main function of the private security agent is to:

a. Locate stolen goods
b. Ascertain and report illegal activities
c. Receive well-rounded investigative experience
d. Ascertain the state of morale
e. None of the above

Answer 54

b. Ascertain and report illegal activities

Question 55

The person best suited for physical surveillance work is one who:

a. Is tall enough to see over crowds
b. Will blend into the area
c. Has a college education
d. Has a background of police work
e. None of the above

Answer 55

b. Will blend into the area

Question 56

In conducting a polygraph, it is important to note that the most important measure of stress is recorded by:

a. Breathing
b. Galvanic skin response
c. Heartbeats
d. Perspiration
e. None of the above

Answer 56

c. Heartbeats

Question 57

The pretesting interview prior to the polygraph examination itself is for the purpose of:

a. Helping the subject to relax
b. Helping the examiner to get to know the subject
c. Helping the examiner to judge the subject’s character
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 57

d. All of the above

Question 58

On average, a polygraph examination takes:

a. 10 h
b. 1 h
c. 15 min
d. 5 h
e. 4 h

Answer 58

b. 1 h

Question 59

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the polygraph?

a. The polygraph is not a lie detector.
b. The polygraph does not automatically register truth or falsehood.
c. A polygraph test is conclusive.
d. Historically, polygraphs have more often been used to establish innocence rather than to prove guilt.
e. None of the above.

Answer 59

c. A polygraph test is conclusive.

Question 60

Persons are protected from abuses of polygraph by:

a. The courts through civil lawsuits
b. State labor departments
c. The National Labor Relations Board
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 60

d. All of the above

Question 61

The best way to verify an applicant’s statements is:

a. By judicious use of the telephone
b. By a personal visit with the applicant
c. By mail
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 61

e. None of the above

Question 62

Which of the following should not be included in the written investigative report of an applicant?

a. Derogatory information
b. Confidential sources of information
c. Results of a lie detector examination
d. Arrest records
e. None of the above

Answer 62

b. Confidential sources of information

Question 63

Of all those with mental disorders, the most dangerous subject to handle is:

a. One suffering hysteria
b. A paranoid psychotic
c. A neurotic
d. One suffering phobia
e. Schizophrenic

Answer 63

b. A paranoid psychotic

Question 64

Mental disorders may be determined by symptoms. Which of the following is such a symptom?

a. Sudden changes in behavior
b. Behavior that is not harmonious with a situation
c. Unduly prolonged depression
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 64

d. All of the above

Question 65

In handling a mentally disturbed person, one should:

a. Take a strong position as the boss
b. Assume a calm and friendly position
c. Leave the impression he or she has control of the situation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Answer 65

b. Assume a calm and friendly position

Question 66

Which of the following is true in handling persons with mental disorders?

a. Don’t deceive them.
b. Don’t become involved in their personal problems.
c. Where physical restraint is required, use two officers.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

Answer 66

d. All of the above.

Question 67

There are several stages in an investigative process. Which of the following is not considered a stage?

a. Whether to investigate
b. Legal evaluation
c. Gathering information
d. Managerial decision making

Answer 67

b. Legal evaluation

Question 68

Which of the following is not a requirement for a successful undercover investigation?

a. A qualified investigator
b. A plausible cover story
c. An effective control scheme
d. Developing necessary evidence for prosecution

Answer 68

d. Developing necessary evidence for prosecution

Question 69

The principal item of expense in an investigations budget will be:

a. Office supplies
b. Equipment
c. Maintenance
d. Personnel costs

Answer 69

d. Personnel costs

Question 70

The single most important administrative control in handling investigations is:

a. Indexing
b. Case assignment
c. Case review
d. Documentation of status

Answer 70

a. Indexing

Question 71

As a general rule, the number of consecutive years of employment or nonemployment that should be verified preceding the date of investigation is:

a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years

Answer 71

a. 5 years

Question 72

Any investigation containing unfavorable information should be retained in file for a period not less than:

a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years

Answer 72

c. 3 years

Question 73

The rule that states that approximately 1 in 10 applications will have major omissions, which will require going back to the applicant, is called:

a. The Rule of Ten
b. The Rule of Nine
c. The 1-10 Rule
d. The Verification Rule

Answer 73

a. The Rule of Ten

Question 74

Which of the following should be interviewed last or near the end of an investigation under usual circumstances:

a. Those with extensive information
b. Those preparing to take a trip out of the area
c. Those likely to be hostile
d. Those with less than extensive information

Answer 74

c. Those likely to be hostile

Question 75

If interviewee during investigations is hostile, it is preferable to conduct the interview:

a. At the security office
b. In the home of the interviewee
c. At a neutral location
d. In an automobile

Answer 75

a. At the security office

Question 76

Which of the following characterization regarding investigative surveillance is not true?

a. It is expensive
b. It is time consuming
c. It is often nonproductive
d. It is illegal in most jurisdictions

Answer 76

d. They are illegal in most jurisdictions.

Question 77

The process whereby communications are intercepted or recorded is known as:

a. Physical surveillance
b. Technical surveillance
c. Surreptitious surveillance
d. Black bag operations

Answer 77

b. Technical surveillance

Question 78

It is becoming increasingly more difficult to do a good preemployment background investigation because of:

a. Expense
b. Lack of skilled investigators
c. Various laws and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques and/or instruments available
d. Uncooperative attitude of persons interviewed

Answer 78

c. Various laws and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques and/or instruments available

Question 79

An undercover operator should be:

a. A member of the investigative staff of the organization
b. A trusted employee in the department under investigation
c. Unknown by anyone likely to be in the target population
d. An off-duty law enforcement officer

Answer 79

c. Unknown by anyone likely to be in the target population

Question 80

One of the objectives of an undercover investigation is not to:

a. Establish a method of diversion of goods
b. Ascertain the level of organized labor activity in the workforce
c. Provide information for personnel action
d. Obtain evidence of past or future crime

Answer 80

b. Ascertain the level of organized labor activity in the workforce

Question 81

In an incident investigation, the general rule is to first interview persons who:

a. Are not likely to be available for later interview
b. Are likely to be hostile
c. Have the most extensive information about the incident
d. Are familiar with some part of the subject matter

Answer 81

a. Are not likely to be available for later interview

Question 82

Which of the following is not true regarding communications with an undercover agent:

a. Normal contact is initiated by the agent.
b. The contact telephone should be answered with the name of the company.
c. An alternate contact telephone number should be established.
d. The telephones should be reserved exclusively for investigations.

Answer 82

b. The contact telephone should be answered with the name of the company.

Question 83

The basic rules of collecting, preserving, and maintaining evidence:

a. Must be done by many untrained people
b. Must be done in a quick manner
c. Must follow the chain of custody to be used in court
d. Must not be documented properly
e. None of the above

Answer 83

c. Must follow the chain of custody to be used in court

Question 84

Which of the following is not a kind of evidence:

a. Physical evidence
b. Scientific evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
e. All of the above

Answer 84

e. All of the above

Question 85

Hearsay evidence is:

a. Based on a witness’s personal knowledge
b. Usually admissible in court
c. Information revealed to the witness by another person
d. Never admissible in court
e. None of the above

Answer 85

c. Information revealed to the witness by another person

Question 86

A pen register is:

a. A device that records all numbers dialed on a telephone
b. Used to keep track of those entering an event
c. Signatures of those registering for an event
d. A surveillance technique using a pen camera
e. None of the above

Answer 86

a. A device that records all numbers dialed on a telephone

Question 87

Which of the following are the types of surveillance that can be used in an investigation?

a. Fixed surveillance
b. Proprietary surveillance
c. Moving surveillance
d. Relaxed surveillance
e. Answers a and c

Answer 87

c. Moving surveillance

Question 88

What are some common ways applicants falsify applications?

a. Incomplete application
b. Willful omission of facts or job references
c. Misrepresentation of job history or education
d. References that are nonexistent
e. All of the above

Answer 88

e. All of the above

Question 89

Which act prohibits discrimination in hiring, firing, promoting, or giving raises or other benefits because of an employee’s race,
religion, sex, or national origin?

a. Fair Credit Reporting Act
b. Age Discrimination in Employment Act—1967
c. Civil Rights Act—1964
d. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
e. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)

Answer 89

c. Civil Rights Act—1964

Question 90

An explosion is defined as:

a. An item that can cause fire damage
b. A sudden, violent, noisy eruption, outburst, or discharge by material acted upon with force such as fire, shock, or electrical charge that causes the solid or liquid material to convert into gas and violently expand or burst
c. Any chemical compound, mixture, or device that functions by explosion to release instantaneous gas and heat
d. Objects that produce significant sound waves
e. Materials that can cause injury to others

Answer 90

b. A sudden, violent, noisy eruption, outburst, or discharge by material acted upon with force such as fire, shock, or electrical charge that causes the solid or liquid material to convert into gas and violently expand or burst

Question 91

Which of the following are exceptions to the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Street Act of 1968 (Title III)?

a. Wiretapping takes place in a one-party consent state.
b. The wiretap is obtained with a court order called an ex parte order.
c. It is necessary for emergency cases involving national security.
d. Answers a and b
e. All of the above

Answer 91

d. Answers a and b

Question 92

Embezzlement is:

a. Borrowing money from a company with the intent to pay it back
b. The misappropriation of money and wrongful conversion of merchandise
c. Taking money that does not belong to the taker
d. Taking merchandise that does not belong to the taker
e. None of the above

Answer 92

b. The misappropriation of money and wrongful conversion of merchandise

Question 93

Bombs are defined as:

a. Items that can cause fire damage
b. Materials that can cause injury to others
c. Objects that produce significant sound waves
d. Any chemical compound, mixture, or device that functions by explosion to release instantaneous gas and heat
e. A sudden, violent, noisy eruption, outburst or discharge bybmaterial acted upon with force such as fire, shock, or electrical
charge that causes the solid or liquid material to convert into gas and violently expand or burst