Chapter 6: Internal Control Flashcards
Which of the following best describes an internal auditor’s purpose in reviewing the organization’s existing governance, risk management, and control processes?
a. To help determine the nature, timing, and extent of tests necessary to achieve engagement objectives.
b. To ensure that weaknesses in the internal control system are corrected.
c. To provide reasonable assurance that the processes will enable the organization’s objectives and goals to be met efficiently and economically.
d. To determine whether the processes ensure that the accounting records are correct and that financial statements are fairly stated.
C is the best answer. Answer A is incorrect because it is a purpose of audit planning. Answer B is incor-rect because correcting control weaknesses is a function of management, not of the internal auditor. Answer D is incorrect because it is a basic objective from a financial accounting and auditing perspec-tive, but it is not broad enough to cover the internal auditor’s entire purpose for review.
What is residual risk?
a. Impact of risk.
b. Risk that is under control.
c. Risk that is not managed.
d. Underlying risk in the environment.
C is the best answer. Residual risk is the risk that is left over after all controls and risk management techniques have been applied. Answer A is incorrect because the impact of risk is its consequence. Answer B is incorrect because risk that is under control is managed risk. Answer D is incorrect because the underlying risk is the absolute risk.
The requirement that purchases be made from suppliers on an approved vendor list is an example of a:
a. Preventive control.
b. Detective control.
c. Compensating control.
d. Monitoring control.
A is the best answer. Preventive controls are actions taken prior to the occurrence of transactions with the intent of stopping errors from occurring. Use of an approved vendor list is a control to prevent the use of unacceptable suppliers. Answer B is incorrect because a detective control identifies errors after they have occurred. Answer C is incorrect because compensating controls are designed to supplement key controls that are either ineffective or cannot fully mitigate risks by themselves to acceptable levels. Answer D is incorrect because monitoring controls are designed to ensure the quality of the control system’s performance over time.
An effective system of internal controls is most likely to detect a fraud perpetrated by a:
a. Group of employees in collusion.
b. Single employee.
c. Group of managers in collusion.
d. Single manager.
B is the best answer. An effective system of internal controls is likely to expose a fraud if it is perpe-trated by one employee without the aid of others. Answer A is incorrect because a group has a better chance of successfully perpetrating an irregularity than does an individual employee. Answers C and D are incorrect because management can often override controls, singularly or in groups.
The control that would most likely ensure that payroll checks are written only for authorized amounts is to:
a. Conduct periodic floor verification of employees on the payroll.
b. Require the return of undelivered checks to the cashier.
c. Require supervisory approval of employee time cards.
d. Periodically witness the distribution of payroll checks.
C is the best answer. The employee’s supervisor would be in the best position to ensure payment of the proper amount. Answer A is incorrect because employees may be properly included on payroll, but the amounts paid may be unauthorized. Answer B is incorrect because undelivered checks provide no evi-dence regarding validity of the amounts. Answer D is incorrect because witnessing a payroll distribu-tion would not assure that amounts paid are authorized.
An internal auditor plans to conduct an audit of the adequacy of controls over investments in new financial instruments. Which of the following would not be required as part of such an engagement?
a. Determine whether policies exist that describe the risks the treasurer may take and the types of instruments in which the treasurer may invest.
b. Determine the extent of management oversight over investments in sophisticated instruments.
c. Determine whether the treasurer is getting higher or lower rates of return on investments than treasurers in comparable organizations.
d. Determine the nature of monitoring activities related to the investment portfolio.
C is the best answer. Although this might be informational, there is no need to develop a comparison of investment returns with other organizations. Indeed, some financial investment scandals show that such comparisons can be highly misleading because high returns were due to taking on a high level of risk. Also, this is not a test of the adequacy of the controls.
Appropriate internal control for a multinational corporation’s branch office that has a department responsible for the transfer of money requires that:
a. The individual who initiates wire transfers does not reconcile the bank statement.
b. The branch manager must receive all wire transfers.
c. Foreign currency rates must be computed separately by two different employees.
d. Corporate management approves the hiring of employees in this department.
A is the best answer. Independent reconciliation of bank accounts is necessary for good internal control.
Who has primary responsibility for the monitoring component of internal control?
a. The organization’s independent outside auditor.
b. The organization’s internal audit function.
c. The organization’s management.
d. The organization’s board of directors.
C is the best answer. The organization’s management has primary responsibility for the monitoring component of internal control.
Reasonable assurance, as it pertains to internal control, means that:
a. The objectives of internal control vary depending on the method of data processing used.
b. A well-designed system of internal controls will prevent or detect all errors and fraud.
c. Inherent limitations of internal control preclude a system of internal control from providing absolute assurance that objectives will be achieved.
d. Management cannot override controls, and employees cannot circumvent controls through collusion.
C is the best answer. Inherent limitations of internal control do, in fact, preclude a system of inter-nal control from providing absolute assurance that objectives will be achieved.
Which of the following best exemplifies a control activity referred to as independent verification?
a. Reconciliation of bank accounts by someone who does not handle cash or record cash transactions.
b. Identification badges and security codes used to restrict entry to the production facility.
c. Accounting records and documents that provide a trail of sales and cash receipt transactions.
d. Separating the physical custody of inventory from inventory accounting.
A is the best answer. A reconciliation performed by someone not otherwise involved in processing a transaction is an example of an independent verification control activity.
The risk assessment component of internal control involves the:
a. Independent outside auditor’s assessment of residual risk.
b. Internal audit function’s assessment of control deficiencies.
c. Organization’s identification and analysis of the risks that threaten the achievement of its objectives.
d. Organization’s monitoring of financial information for potential material misstatements.
C is the best answer. The risk assessment component of internal control involves an organization’s identification and analysis of the risk that threaten the achievement its objectives.
COSO’s Internal Control Framework consists of five internal control components and 17 principles for achieving effective internal control. Which of the following is/are (a) principle(s)?
I. The organization demonstrates a commitment to integrity and ethical values.
II. Monitoring activities.
III. A level of assurance that is supported by generally accepted auditing procedures and judgments.
IV. A body of guiding principles that form a template against which organizations can evaluate a multitude of business practices.
V. The organization selects, develops, and performs ongoing and/or separate evaluations to ascertain whether the components of internal control are present and functioning.
a. II only.
b. I and V only.
c. II and IV only.
d. I, II, III, IV, and V.
B is the best answer. I is principle 1 under Control Environment. V is principle 16 under Monitoring Activities. II is one of the five elements. III is the definition of reasonable assurance. IV is the definition of a framework.
When assessing the risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
a. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
b. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
c. Update the risk management process based on risk exposures.
d. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
B is the best answer. The other choices reflect activities that should be performed by management.
Determining that engagement objectives have been met is ultimately the responsibility of the:
a. Internal auditor.
b. Audit committee.
c. Internal audit supervisor.
d. CAE.
D is the best answer. The CAE has ultimate responsibility for all activities performed by the internal audit function. Internal auditors and internal audit supervisors do not have the same level of responsi-bility as the CAE. The audit committee doesn’t have this level of responsibility.
An adequate system of internal controls is most likely to detect an irregularity perpetrated by a:
a. Group of employees in collusion.
b. Single employee.
c. Group of managers in collusion.
d. Single manager.
B is the best answer. To be designed adequately and operating effectively, ICFR should address the concepts of initiation, authorization, recording, processing, and reporting. Seeking is not addressed by ICFR