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Private Oral Exam > Chapter 6 cross country flight planning > Flashcards

Chapter 6 cross country flight planning Flashcards

1
Q

3 common ways to navigate

A

A. Pilotage ( reference of landmarks)
B. Dead Reckoning ( computing direction and distance from a known position)
C. Radio Navigation ( by use of radio aids)

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2
Q

Charts available for VFR nagivation

A

A. Sectional Charts
B. VFR terminal Area Charts
C. VFR flyway planning Charts

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3
Q

Isogonic line

A

Broken magenta lines, connect equal magnetic variation. Show amount and direction of magnetic variation

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4
Q

Magnetic variation

A

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. Expressed as east variation or west variation depending upon whether magnetic North (MN) is to the east or west of the true north

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5
Q

Convert true direction to a magnetic direction

A

East is least (subtract)

West is Best (add)

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6
Q

Latitude

A

Run parallel to the equator (east and west)

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7
Q

Longitude

A

Un perpendicular to the equator (north and south)

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8
Q

Magnetic deviation

A

The electrical components fucking up the magnetic compass

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9
Q

Types of navigational aids

A

A. VOR
B. VORTAC
C. DME
D. RNAV

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10
Q

VOR or VORTAC

A

VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360) from the station. Each radials denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR will be VORTACs- provides standard bearing infor of a VOR plus distance infor to pilots of airplanes which have distance measuring equipments

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11
Q

What frequency range do VORs operate

A

VHF band between 108 and 117.95 MHz. immediately below aviation communication frequencies

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12
Q

What is VOR radial

A

Line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range (VOR). Projects 380 radials from the station. Also identified ‘from’ the station. 360 will always be located north of the station

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13
Q

VOR NAVAIDS classified

A

Terminal, low, high

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14
Q

Limitations to VOR reception distances

A

VORS are subject to line-of-sight restrictions and the range varies proportionally to the alt of the receiving equipment

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15
Q

Different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment j

A 
A. VOT check - plus or minus 4 degree
B. Ground checkpoint - 
C. Airborne checkpoint 
D. Dual VOR check
E. Selected radial over a know ground point
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16
Q

DME

A

Distance measuring equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in NM, slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equiped with it are provided with distance and ground speed info when receiving VORTAC

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17
Q

GPS

A

Global Positioning System is a satellite radio based navigation system that broadcast a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world. Receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo-range measurements that is then used to determine the users location

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18
Q

3 functional elements of GPS

A

Space element - consists of 30 satellites
Control element - consists of a network of ground based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks
User element - consists of antennas and receiver - processors onboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user

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19
Q

Different types of GPS receiver available for use

A

GPS receivers used fro VFR naviagtion vary from fully integrated IFR/VFR installations used to support VFR operations to handheld devices

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20
Q

Purpose of RAIM

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is self monitoring function performed by a GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times. GPS will alert pilot if there is no integrity of the GPS

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21
Q

Where can pilot obtain RAIM availability info

A

Using manufacturer supplied RAIM prediction tool or SAPT on FAA website

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22
Q

If RAIM capability is lost in flight, can you continue using GPS for nav

A

Without RAIM have no reassurance of accuracy

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23
Q

Preflight checks for GPS equipment

A

A. Verify that GPS equipment is properly installed and certified fro the planned operation
B. Verify that the databases (nav, terrain, obstacles) have not expired
C. Review GPS NOTAM/RAIM info related to the planned route of flight
D. Review operational status of ground - based NAVIADS and related equipment , appropriate to route of flight
E. Determine that GPS receiver operation manual or plane flight manual supplement is onboard and available for use

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24
Q

Determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for

A

Reference POH/AFM and supplements to determine limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed

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25
Q

FSS briefer provide GPS notams

A

No must request GPS/WAAS NOTAMS

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26
Q

WAAS

A

Wide area augmentation System is a ground and satellite intregrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the Global Positioning System. Provides extremely accurate lateral and vertical naviagtion signals to aircraft equiped

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27
Q

Limitations of GPS

A

A. RAIM capability - many VFR receivers and all hand - held units have no RAIM alerting capability
B. Database currency - must always update for IFR requirements
C. Antenna Location - location matter of convenience that’s performance.

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28
Q

VFR waypoint

A

Provide pilots with supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigation visually in aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers. Provide navigational aids for pilots unfamiliar with an area. 5 letter identifier beginning with VP and retrievable from navigation databases, only used when operating under VFR

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29
Q

After takeoff, attempt to activate VFR flight plan but are unable to contact FSS. What will happen to flight plan

A

Be held by FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time and then is cancelled

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30
Q

If disoriented or lost on cross country flight

A
  • straighten up and fly right. Fly a specific heading in a direction you believe to correct read book page 6-15
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31
Q

Low on fuel; weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and/or equipment malfunctioning

A

GET ON THE GROUND

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32
Q

If cannot locate position

A

4 c’s

  • Climb - higher alt allows better communication capability as well as better visual range for identification of landmarks
  • Communicate - use the system. Use 121.5 MHz
  • Confess- once communications are established, let them know the problem
  • Comply - follow instructions
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33
Q

Most common type of communication radio equipment, and how Many channels are available

A

Most common type is VHF, operates on frequencies between 118.0 and 136.97 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760 depending on number of channels it can accommodate. 720 and 760 uses .025 spacing with 720 having frequency range up to 135.975 and the 760 going up to 136.975

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34
Q

Universal VHF ‘emergency’

A

121.5 MHz. This frequency guarded by military towers, most civil towers, FSS and radar facilities

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35
Q

Frequencies used for ground control

A

121.6 to 121.9 MHz

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36
Q

CTAF

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency, designated for purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. May be UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or TOWER frequency

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37
Q

UNICOM

A

Nongovernmental communication facility which provide airport info at certain airports. Use 122.7, 122.725,, 122,8, 122,975, 123.0, 123.05 and 123.075. And with control tower FSS 122.950

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38
Q

ATIS

A

Automatic terminal info service, continous broadcast of recorded no control info in selected high activity terminal areas. Improve controller effectiveness and relieve frequency congestion by automating the competitive transmission of essential but routine info

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39
Q

Airport without control tower of FSS or UNICOM

A

Where there is no tower, use multicom frequency 122.9 for self announce procedures. MULTICOM is mobile service not open to public use

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40
Q

RCO

A

Remote communication outlet, in unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel, provides ground to ground communications between ATC and pilots at satellite airports. IFR cancellation or departure/landing times, departure authorization. Used for advisory whenever plane is below coverage of primary air/ground frequency

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41
Q

How to determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne

A

A. Ask FSS briefer during preflight weather briefing

B. Consult communication section under flight service for airport of departure in chart supplement

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42
Q

Heavy - lined box surrounding NAVAID frequency

A

Indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243, 255.4 are available and if frequency is on top of the box meaning they are addition to FSS

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43
Q

Thin lined blue box surrounding NAVAID frequency

A

Without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. ‘No voice’ symbol

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44
Q

Why would frequency be on top of thin lined blue box

A

Best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of NAVAID site, and ensure reception by the controlling FSS at low alts without terrain interference. Followed by R indicating FSS only receives on that frequency. Pilot will listen for response over NAVAID

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45
Q

Determine HIWAS from sectional

A

NAVIADS that have hiwas depicted with ‘H’ in upper right corner of identification box

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46
Q

Inflight emergency, what authority and responsibilites does he/she have

A

A. PIC is directly responsible for and is final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft
B. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to extent required to meet that emergency
C. Each PIC who deviates from Part 91 shall, upon request, send a written report of that deviation

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47
Q

Restrictions of alcohol

A

A. Within 8 hrs after consumption of any alcoholic beverage
B. While under the influence
C. While using any drug that affects persons safety
D. While having an alcohol concentration of .04 or more

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48
Q

Portable electronics on plane

A

Under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices

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49
Q

Objects dropped from aircraft

A

May not drop from aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to person or property. But does not prohibit

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50
Q

Preflight action required in local area

A

Familiarize with info concerning flight, runway lengths and take off and landing distance

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51
Q

Preflight action away from local area

A

Notams
Weather reports and forecast
Known ATC traffic delays
Runaway lengths at airports of intended use
Alternatives available if planned flight cannot be completed
Fuel requirements

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52
Q

Seatbelt use

A

Each person onboard must have safety belt and harness on taxi, takeoff and landing. PIC must ensure everyone has seatbelt on

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53
Q

Crew members seatbelt

A

Harness and belt on taxi, takeoff, landing. Belt only airborne

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54
Q

Close proximity in formation flight

A

A. May operate to another plane to create collision hazard
B. In formation only in arrangement with each PIC
C. May no have passengers for hire

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55
Q

Right of way by aircraft

A 
Balloons 
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
Refueling aircraft has right of way over anyone plane
And aircraft in distress over that
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56
Q

Converging

A

Aircraft on right has right of way

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57
Q

Approach head on

A

Both aircraft shall alter course to right

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58
Q

Overtaking

A

Plane being overtaken has right of way; pilot overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right

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59
Q

Right of way rules when two or more aircraft are approaching airport for landing

A

On final or landing have right of way over plane in flight or on runway but don’t take advantage and force someone off runway who just landed and are attempting to taxi off. Two or more approaching, the lowest alt has right of way but cannot cut in front of plane on final to land

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60
Q

Max airspeed below 10000’

A

<250K

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61
Q

Min safe alt over congested area

A

Except for take off and landing- city, town, settlement or over open air assembly of persons, below alt of 1000’ above highest obstacle and within 2000’ horizontal radius

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62
Q

Min safe alt other than congested area

A

No lower than 500’ AGL expect over open water. In water no closer than 500’ of person, vessel

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63
Q

Min safe alt

A

Alt allowing, if power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to person or property

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64
Q

Min safe alt over national parks

A

Min alt of 2000’ AGL

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65
Q

Flying below 18000’ MSL alt setting???

91.121

A

If under 31.00 hg follow ATC alt of within 100 NM of airport

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66
Q

Altimeter not available before flight

A

Elevation of departure airport

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67
Q

When may deviate from ATC clearance

A

A. Amended clearance has been obtained
B. Emergency exit
C. Response to traffic or collision avoidance system resolution advisory

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68
Q

Action required if deviated from ATC and priority is given

A

A. If deviate from ATC because of collision avoidance must notify ATC asap
B. Given priority by ATC because of emergency just report within 48 hours to manager of ATC facility if requested

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69
Q

Steady green

A

On ground - cleared for takeoff

In air - cleared to land

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70
Q

Flashing green

A

On ground - cleared to taxi

In air - return for landing

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71
Q

Steady red

A

On ground - stop

In air - yield, continue circling

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72
Q

Flashing red

A

On ground - taxi clear of runway

In air - unsafe, do not land

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73
Q

Flashing white

A

On groun - return to start

In air - nothing

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74
Q

Alternate red/green

A

On ground - exercise extreme caution

In air - exercise extreme caution

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75
Q

Radio fails under VFR while operating in towered controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing

A

A. Weather conditions must be at or above VFR min
B. Visual contact with the tower is maintained
C. Clearance to land is received

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76
Q

Rules traffic pattern operations at non towered airports within class E or G

A

Approaching to land, make all turns to the left unless airport displays otherwise
Departing comply with traffic patterns established for airport

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77
Q

In class D, procedure used when approaching to land on runway with VASI

A

Maintain alt at or above glide slope until lower alt is necessary for safe landing

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78
Q

fuel requirement for VFR flight at night

A

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and assuming normal cruising speed, fly after at least 45 min

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79
Q

Fuel VFR requirement for day

A

Fly to first point of intended landing with normal cruising speed, fly after for 30 min

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80
Q

Level cruising flight at alt more than 3000’ above surface, rules concerning specific alt. Flown

A

Above 3000’ but less that not 18000’ magnetic course 0 to 179 degrees, fly at odd thousand foot MSL plus 500’. When magnetic course of 180 to 359 degree, fly at even thousand foot MSL plus 500’

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81
Q

ELT

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter - radio transmitter attached to aircraft structure, operates from its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 MHz and 406 MHz. Aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward - sweeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second. Function without human action after accident. Tested during first 5 min after any hour

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82
Q

ELT required on all aircraft

A 
No one may operate plane unless there is a attached to plane an automatic - type ELT and in operable condition.
Except:
Engaged in design and testing
New aircraft arriving for delivery
Agriculture operations
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83
Q

Battery replaced or recharged for ELT

A

A. Transmitter been used for more than 1 cumulative hour

B. 50% of useful life has expired

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84
Q

Supplemental oxygen on board

A

Alt above 12,500 MSL up to and including 14000 MSL, part of flight more than 30 min, min flight crew must have and use supplemental oxygen.
Alt above 14000 MSL, for the entire time at those alt. Flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen
At cabin pressure alt above 15000 MSL, each occupant provided with oxygen

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85
Q

Aerobatic flight of aircraft not permitted

A 
Over congested
Over open air assembly of persons
Lateral boundaries of surface areas of Class B, class C, D or E 
4 NM center line of federal airway
Below an alt of 1500’ above surface
Flight visibility is less than 3 SM
86
Q

Aerobatic flight

A

Intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in planes attitude, or acceleration

87
Q

Parachutes required on board

A

Bank angle of 60 degree
Nose up or down attitude of 30 degree
Does not apply for tests for pilot certification
And spins and other flight maneuvers

88
Q

Class A

A

18000MSL up to and including FL600, airspace overlying waters within 12 NM of the coast. Designated international airspace beyond 12 NM of the coast, within domestic radio navigation signal or ATC

89
Q

VFR flight in Class A

A

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC and under instrument flight rules

90
Q

Min pilot certification for operation in class A

A

Private certification with instrument rating

91
Q

Min equipment for Class A

A

2 way radio communication with ATC on frequency
Mode C alt encoding transponder
Equiped with instrument and equipment required for IFR operation

92
Q

Class B

A

Surface to 10000’MSL (busiest airports)

93
Q

MIn pilot certification to operate within Class B

A

PIC holds private pilot cert
PIC holds recreational and met CFR 61.101
PIC sport certification and met CFR 81.325
Student pilot met requirements 61.94 or 61.95

94
Q

Min equipment for Class B

A

2 way radio comm
Mode C
If IFR, VOR or TAC receiver and RNAV system

95
Q

Basic requirements for Class B

A

Must obtain ATC clearance

96
Q

Weather condition for VFR in Class B

A

Clear of clouds with at least 3SM visibility

97
Q

Class B depicted on charts

A

Solid shaded blue line

98
Q

ATC services provided in Class B

A

VFR pilots provided sequencing and separation from planes

99
Q

Max speed in Class B under 10000’MSL

A

250 Knots

100
Q

Max speed in Class C or D or within 4 NM of airport

A

200 Knots

101
Q

Class C

A

Surface to 4000’MSL, operational control tower and certain number of IFR operations

102
Q

Dimensions of Class C

A

5 NM radius core surface extends from the surface to 4000’ MSL, 10 NM radius shelf area extends from 1200’ to 4000’ MSL

103
Q

Min pilot certification for Class C

A

Student pilot certificate

104
Q

Min equipment to operate in Class C

A

2 way radio comm

Automatic pressure alt reporting equipment with Mode C capability

105
Q

Basic requirements for Class C

A

Each person must establish 2 way comm with ATC providing air traffic services prior to enetering and maintain communication

106
Q

Radio established meaning Class C

A

ATC has said your call sign back and meaning are allowed to enter
If call sign not repeated radio comm have not been established and may not enter airspace

107
Q

Departing satellite airport w/out operative control tower located within class C & D, requirements

A

Each person must establish and maintain 2 way comm with ATC facilities have jurisdiction over C asap

108
Q

Min weather condition for VFR in class C

A

3 SM visibility and cloud clearance 500’ below, 1000’ above and 2000’ horizontal clouds

109
Q

Class C depicted on charts

A

Solid magenta line

110
Q

ATC services in Class C

A

All VFR
Sequenced to primary airport
Provided class C services within airspace and outer area
Basic radar services beyond the outer area on workload permitting basis

111
Q

Various types of terminal radar services available for VFR

A

Basic radar service
TRSA
Class C
Class B

112
Q

Basic radar service

A

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established

113
Q

TRSA service

A

Radar sequencing and separation for VFR

114
Q

Class C service

A

Addition to basic radar, separation between IFR and VFR

115
Q

Class B service

A

Addition to basic radar, separation between IFR, VFR, and/or weight and sequencing of VFR arrivals

116
Q

Mode C required

A

At or above 10000’ MSL
Within 30 miles of class B, below 10000 MSL
Within and above all Class C, up to 10000’MSL
Within 10 Miles of designated airports except outside of class D airspace and below 1200’ AGL

117
Q

Max speed in Class C

A

At or below 2500’ AGL within 4 NM of primary airport no more than 200 Knots

118
Q

Class D

A

Extends upward from surface to 2500’ MSL

119
Q

Requirements for Class D

A

Establish 2 way comm with ATC providing air traffic services prior to entering and thereafter maintaining comm

120
Q

ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through Class E area arrival extension

A

Class E may be extension of Class B, C, D and E. Begins at surface and extend up to overlying controlled airspace. Extension provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a comm requirement on pilots operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of surface area and are in effect during the same times as surface area

121
Q

Min weather conditions required for VFR in Class D

A

3 SM visibility

Cloud clearance 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontal

122
Q

Class D depicted on charts

A

Blue segmented lines

123
Q

Air traffic control in Class D

A

No separation services to VFR. Pilot responsible. controller will proved safety alerts and sequencing on workload permitting

124
Q

Max speed in Class D

A

At or below 2500’ AGL within 4 NM of airport more than 200 Knots

125
Q

Class D control tower closes

A

Tower is closed, its Class E rules down to 700’ AGL and Class G to surface

126
Q

Class E

A

ATC service provided to IFR and VFR with airspace classification

127
Q

Operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements for Class E

A

A. Min pilot cert - student pilot
B. No specific equipment
C. No specific for arrival or thru flight

128
Q

Class E transition areas

A

Extend upward from either 700’AGL (magenta) or 1200’AGL (blue). Help separate arriving and departing IFR from VFR

129
Q

Comm in Class E

A

Comm must be established with ATC and two way communication must be established and maintained. Established prior to 4 NM up and including 2500’ AGL

130
Q

Class E depicted on chart

A

Magenta segmented line

131
Q

Class G

A

Uncontrolled and has not been designated as any other class. ATC has no authority or responsibility to control traffic

132
Q

Comm with a tower located within class G

A

Comm must be established with ATC prior to entering and maintained. prior to 4 NM up to and including 2500’ AGL

133
Q

Vertical limits of Class G

A

Begins at surface and continues put overlying controlled space, not exceed 14500 MSL

134
Q

Min weather requirements in Class G and below 1200’ AGL

A

When visibility is less than 3 SM but not less than 1 SM during night, operated clear of clouds within 1.5 of runway

135
Q

Basic VFR weather min required

A

1000’ ceiling and 3 miles visibility

136
Q

Special VFR

A

Special VFR clearance must be obtained if cannot fly VFR, prior to entering class B, Class C, D, E provided flight can remain clear of clouds and 1 SM ground visibility

137
Q

Special VFR availablitly

A

Pilots may request and be given clearance to enter, leave or operate within class D & E and some B and C traffic permitting.

138
Q

Contact to obtain special VFR

A

Control tower, request to tower. Class E from nearest tower, FSS or center

139
Q

Special VFR at night

A

Not allowed unless IFR rated

140
Q

Prohibited area

A

Defined dimensions identified by area on surface of earth, where flight is prohibited
Associated with security and national welfare

141
Q

Restricted Area

A

Identified by area of surface of earth within flight is subject to restrictions. Often hazards to plane like gun fire, aerial gunnery

142
Q

Enter restricted or prohibited areas

A

May not operate within those areas, unless have permission of the using or control agency. Usually no operation in prohibited and prior permission for restriced

143
Q

Warning area

A

Defined dimensions extending from 3 NM outward from coast containing activity that may be hazardous. Is to warn pilots

144
Q

MOA

A

Military operating area, separating military training activities from IFR traffic. VFR exercise extreme caution. Active/Inactive. Contact FSS within 100 Miles of area to obtain times. Prior to entering contact controlling agency

145
Q

Alert Area

A

Area contain high volume pilot training. On alert when flyging thru these areas and follow regulations

146
Q

Controlled firing areas

A

Contain activities hazardous to non participating planes. Firing is suspended immediately when plane is spotted. Not charted

147
Q

National Security Area

A

Areas where requirements for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots voluntary avoid. Can be temporarily prohibited for increase security

148
Q

Special Flight Rules Area

A

SFRA, special federal aviation regulations apply. Like Washington DC. Regulations and operations found in CFR part 93 and chart legend

149
Q

Special use airspace be found

A

Charted on IFR or visual charts

150
Q

VFR flyaways, VFR corridors, Class B transition routes

A

Depicted on reverse side of VFR terminal area charts aka class b airspace charts

151
Q

Military training routes

A

Use by military for low alt, high speed training. Above 1500’AGL (3 digits) flown max extent, under IFR. Routes 1500’AGL and below (4 digits) flown under VFR.

152
Q

TRSA

A

Terminal radar service area, airspace surrounding designated airports within ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on full time basis for IFR and participating VFR. Urged not mandatory

153
Q

What class is TRSA

A

Does not fit in any class. Airports within trsa become class D remaining portion trsa overlies other contorted space, normally class E

154
Q

TRSAs depicted

A

On VFR sectional and terminal charts with solid black line and alt segments. Class D portion with blue segmented line

155
Q

ADIZ

A

Air defense identification zone, airspace over land or water, extending upward from surface
Locations:
Domestic - located within US along international boundary
Coastal - over coastal waters
Distant early warning ident Zone - over coastal waters of Alaska
Land based ADIZ - over US merto areas

156
Q

Requirements prior to operations into, within or across ADZ

A

Flight plan filed
Transponder - equiped with operable beacon Mode C and turned on and assigned ATC code
Position reports - for IFR, normal positioning reporting
Etc….

157
Q

Immediate notification to NTSB required

A

Serious incidents:
Flight control system malfunction
Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
Inflight fire
Aircraft collision inflight
Property damage greater than 25k
Overdue aircraft
Release of all portion of prop blade from plane
Complete loss of info, from more than 50% of EFIS display

158
Q

Aircraft incident

A

Occurrence other than an accident associated with operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect safety of operation

159
Q

Aircraft accident

A

Occurrence associated with the operation of plane which takes place between the time any person boards the plane with intention of flight and all that have disembarked. Person suffers death or serious injury, aircraft receives substantial damage

160
Q

Serious injury

A

Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hrs commencing within 7 days from the date of injury
Broken bones
Severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
Involving internal organ
2-3 degree burn more than 5% body

161
Q

Substantial damage

A

Damage of failure adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of plane and require major repair. Engine failure need replacement, dented skin and etc

162
Q

Notification to NTSB be necessary for any accident even if no injuries

A

All depends on the definition of accident

163
Q

Where are accident or incident reports filed

A

With field office of the board nearest accident or incident. National Transportation Safety Board field offices are listed in US govt pages of telephone directories

164
Q

After accident or incident , how soon must report be filed to NTSB

A

Within 10 days of accident

When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing

165
Q

Can FAA use reports submitted to NASA for enforcement reasons

A

FAA will not use NASA under the Aviation Safety reporting program in any enforcement action except info concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program. By submitting report within 10 days pilot is not protected from FAA finding violation of regulation, but providing some immunity from civil penalty

166
Q

VASI

A

Visual approach slope indicator, system of lights provide visual descent guidance info during the approach to runway.
Red over red - below glide path
Red over white - on glide path
White over white - above glide path

167
Q

PAPI

A 
Precision approach path indicator, use lights similar to VASI. Single row. 5 miles day and 20 miles night
4 white - high
3 white - slightly high
2 white - on glide path 
1 white - slightly low
4 red -  low
168
Q

Airport rotating beacon during hours of daylight

A

Class B, C, D, E - indicate ground visibility less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1000’

169
Q

Mandatory instruction sign

A

Red background/white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or prohibited area

170
Q

Location sign

A

black background/yellow inscription yellow border; no arrows; identify taxiway or runway location, boundary of runway, or ILS critical area

171
Q

Direction sign

A

Yellow background/black inscription; identifies designation of intersection taxiway leading out of an intersection that a pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of

172
Q

Destination sign

A

Yellow background/black inscription and also contain arrows; provides info on locating runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation

173
Q

Info sign

A

Yellow background/black inscription; used to provide pilot with info on areas that cant be seen from control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures

174
Q

Runway distance remaining sign

A

Black background/white numeral inscription; indicates distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet

175
Q

What color are runway markings and taxiway markings

A

Runways are white

Markings for taxiway. Not intended for use by aircraft, and holding positions are yellow

176
Q

Methods pilot may use to determine proper runway

A

Listening to UNICOM and weather services
Wind direction socket
Traffic patterns
Landing strip

177
Q

Standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing

A

All turns must be made to the left unless traffic pattern indicates the turns to the right

178
Q

Standard alt traffic pattern alt

A

1000’AGL is recommended. Usually 600’ to 1500’

179
Q

Recommended entry and departure procedures used at airports without operating control tower

A

Enter traffic patten in level flight, abeam midpoint of runway at pattern alt. Departing traffic pattern, continue straight out, exit with 45 degree beyond departure end of runway after reaching pattern alt

180
Q

Traffic pattern alt located

A

Chart supplement US

181
Q

What is ARTCC and what useful service can it provide to VFR

A

Air route traffic control center, facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during en route phase. Air route surveillance radar allows capability to detect and display aircrafts positon while en route. Work loaded permit, certain advisory are provided for VFR. Frequencies from FSS or chart supplement

182
Q

Transponder codes

A

1200 - VFR operations
7500 - Hijack
7600 - Communication failure
7700 - emergency

183
Q

Initial Contact with operating control tower

A

Maintain two way comm while operating in Class B, C, D unless told other wise. Initial call up 15 miles from airport

184
Q

Comm procedures recommended when departing class D area

A

Remain on tower frequency for purpose of receiving traffic info. Reducing tower congestion, no need to request permission to leave tower frequency once outside Class B, C, D

185
Q

Standard to Zulu time

A 
EST -  +5
CST  - +6
MST - +7
PST - +8
Daylight saving time subtract 1 hr from above
186
Q

Radio facilites in order

A

arriving - ATIS, approach, control wotwer, ground

departing - ATIS, clearance delivery, ground control, control tower, depature control

187
Q

NOTAMS

A

Notice to airmen - time critical aeronautical info for temp or not know in advance to be published . NOTAMS can affect a pilots decision to make flight. includes runway closure, changes in status of nav aids, ILS and other info

188
Q

D NOTAMS

A

info that requires wide dissemination via telecommunciation and pertains to en route nav aids, civil public use airports listed in AFD, facilities, services, and procedures

189
Q

FDC NOTAMS

A

flight info that is regulatory in nature, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage

190
Q

POINTER NOTAMS

A

issued by flight service to highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as FDC NOTAM. use for cross referencing important info

191
Q

SAA NOTAMS

A

issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published times

192
Q

MILITARY NOTAMS

A

pertain to military nav aids/airports that are part of NAS

193
Q

TFR

A

temp flight restrictions issued via NOTAMS, restrict plane from flying over certain areas on a temp basis, to protect person or property in air or ground. special event hazard, general warning

194
Q

NOtAM info obtained

A 
FSS
NTAP
DUATS
internet
FIS-B
195
Q

VFR required to be filed

A

not requried , but strongly recommended filed with FAA FSS to receive search and rescue

196
Q

DVFR

A

defense vfr, requried to file for security purposes. because flights into coastal or domestic ADIZ

197
Q

Does tower automatically close your flight plan

A

No not for VFR. Pilot is responsible to ensure plan is canceled. Close on FSS or ask ATC

198
Q

If behind schedule on filed flight

A

Report or cancel flight plan within 30 min or search and rescue is started

199
Q

Wake turbulence

A

Passage of aircraft thru atmosphere. Includes vortices, thrust stream turb, jet wash, prop wash, and rotor wash. In ground and in air

200
Q

Where are wake turb and wingtip vortices likely to occur

A

All aircraft generate turb and vortices. Avoid behind plane especially at low alt,

201
Q

LAHSO

A

Land and hold short operation at controlled airports. At intersecting taxiway, runway or other designated areas from ATC. PIC can accept or deny depending on safety and below basic VFR

202
Q

Available landing data (ALD) found

A

In special notices section of chart supplement and in Terminal procedure controllers provide the info

203
Q

Look for drones

A

Cannot operate in controlled airspace without a waiver from FAA. Must fly below 400’AGL and in daylight

204
Q

3 areas that contribute to runway incursions

A

Comm - misunderstanding, failure to comm
Airport knowledge - failure to nav the airport correctly, interpret signs
Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - failure to maintain situational awareness

205
Q

Preflight includes

A

A. Review and understand signs, marking and lighting
B. Review airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify hot spots
C. NOTAMS and ATIS
D. Pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing
E. Plan for critical times and locations on taxi route
F. Plan to complete as many plane checklist items as possible prior to taxi

206
Q

Hot Spot

A

Runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airport. Complex confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersection. Lack of visibility may exist or tower may be unable to see at certain areas

207
Q

Sterile cockpit procedures

A

Focus on duties without distraction by non-flight matters unrelated to safety and procedures. Refrain from nonessential items. Brief passengers on this

208
Q

Progressive taxi

A

Pilot unfamiliar with airport and confused, includes step by step taxi directions

209
Q

Write down taxi instructions

A

Reduces pilots vulnerability to forget and reference for read back

210
Q

When issued taxi route, automatically authorize to cross any runway that intersects

A

NO, must receive runway crossing for each runway that taxi route crosses

211
Q

Read back info to controller

A

Runway assignment
Any clearance to enter specific runway
Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or Lin up

Private Oral Exam (5 decks)

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