Chapter 6 - Carbohydrate Metabolism Flashcards

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1
Q
After digestion of a piece of cake
that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as
its primary ingredients, the major carbohy- drate products entering the blood are which one of the following? Choose the one best answer.
(A) Glucose
(B) Fructose and galactose
(C) Galactose and glucose
(D) Fructose and glucose
(E) Glucose, fructose, and galactose
A

The answer is E. The cake contains starch, lactose (milk sugar), and sucrose (table sugar). Digestion of starch produces glucose. Lactase cleaves lactose to galactose and glucose, and sucrase cleaves sucrose to fructose and glucose. Thus, the intestinal epithelial cells will absorb from the intestinal lumen, and then secrete into the blood, glucose, galactose, and fructose. The intestinal epithelial cells will not use these sugars as an energy source.

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2
Q

The immediate degradation of glycogen under normal conditions gives rise to which one of the following?
(A) More glucose than glucose-1-phosphate
(B) More glucose-1-phosphate than glucose (C) Equal amounts of glucose and
glucose-1-phosphate
(D) Neither glucose nor glucose-1-phosphate
(E) Only glucose-1-phosphate

A

The answer is B. Phosphorylase produces glucose-1-phosphate from glucose residues linked α-1,4. Free glucose is produced from α-1,6-linked residues at branch points by an α-1, 6-glucosidase activity of the debranching enzyme. Degradation of glycogen produces glucose- 1-phosphate and glucose in about a 10:1 ratio, which is the ratio of the α-1,4 linkages to α-1,6 linkages.

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3
Q

Phosphorylase kinase can be best described by which one of the following?

Activated in response to: / Target of enzyme activity: / Active in presence of caffeine? / Required substrate for enzymatic activity

(A) Insulin / Glycogen phosphorylase / Yes / ATP
(B) Insulin / Glycogen phosphorylase / Yes / GTP
(C) Insulin / Branching enzyme / No / ATP
(D) Epinephrine / Branching enzyme / No / GTP
(E) Epinephrine / Glycogen phosphorylase / Yes / ATP
(F) Epinephrine / Glycogen phosphorylase / Yes / GTP

A

The answer is E. Glucagon in the liver and epinephrine in both the liver and muscle
cause cAMP levels to rise, activating protein kinase A. Protein kinase A phosphorylates and activates phosphorylase kinase, which in turn phosphorylates and activates phosphorylase. These phosphorylation reactions require ATP. Branching enzyme is not a substrate for phosphorylase kinase. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors, such as caffeine, keep cAMP elevated, which allows protein kinase A to be active, which keeps phosphorylase kinase active, and in its phosphorylated form.

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4
Q
In an embryo with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, how many net moles of ATP are generated in the conversion of 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
A

The answer is A. Normally, 1 mole of ATP is used to convert 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of glucose-6-phosphate and a second to convert 1 mole of fructose-6-phosphate to the bisphosphate. Two triose phosphates are produced by cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. As the two triose phosphates are converted to pyruvate, four ATPs are generated; two by phosphoglycerate kinase and two by pyruvate kinase. Net, two ATPs are produced. If pyruvate kinase is completely deficient, two less ATPs will be produced, and thus the net ATP production will be zero. It is unlikely that the embryo would survive with a complete deficiency of this enzyme.

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5
Q

Which one of the following is a regulatory mechanism employed by muscle for glycolysis?
(A) Inhibition of PFK1 by AMP
(B) Inhibition of hexokinase by its product
(C) Activation of pyruvate kinase when glucagon levels are elevated
(D) Inhibition of aldolase by fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(E) Inhibition of glucokinase by F-2,6-P

A

The answer is B. Hexokinase is inhibited by its product, glucose-6-phosphate. PFK1 is activated by AMP and F-2,6-P. F-2,6-P does not inhibit glucokinase, nor is glucokinase present in the muscle. Aldolase is not inhibited by its substrate, fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. Pyruvate kinase is inactivated by glucagon-mediated phosphorylation in the liver, but not in the muscle. The muscle isozyme of pyruvate kinase is not a substrate for protein kinase A. In addition, muscle cells do not respond to glucagon as they do not express glucagon receptors.

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6
Q

Caffeine, a methyl xanthine, has been added to a variety of cell types. Which one of the following would be expected in various cell types treated with caffeine and epinephrine?
(A) Decreased activity of liver protein kinase A
(B) Decreased activity of muscle protein kinase A
(C) Increased activity of liver pyruvate kinase
(D) Decreased activity of liver glycogen synthase
(E) Decreased activity of liver glycogen phosphorylase

A

The answer is D. If the phosphodiesterase that degrades cAMP were inhibited (an effect
of caffeine) in the presence of epinephrine, cAMP levels would be elevated. Protein kinase A would become more active in the liver and muscle; pyruvate kinase would become less active in the liver; and glycogen synthase activity would be decreased in both muscle and liver. Phosphorylase activity would be increased in both muscle and liver owing to constant phosphorylation by phosphorylase kinase, which is activated by protein kinase A.

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7
Q

Which one of the following occurs during the conversion of pyruvate to glucose during gluconeogenesis?
(A) Biotin is required as a cofactor.
(B) The carbon of CO2, added in one reaction,
appears in the final product.
(C) Energy is utilized only in the form of GTP.
(D) All of the reactions occur in the cytosol.
(E) All of the reactions occur in the mitochondrion.

A

The answer is A. In the mitochondria, CO2 is added to pyruvate to form oxaloacetate. The enzyme is pyruvate carboxylase, which requires biotin and ATP. Oxaloacetate leaves the mitochondrion as malate or aspartate and is regenerated in the cytosol. Oxaloacetate is converted to phosphoenolpyruvate by a reaction that utilizes GTP and releases the same CO2 that was added in the mitochondrion. The remainder of the reactions occur in the cytosol.

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8
Q

A common intermediate in the conversion of glycerol and lactate to glucose is which one of the following?
(A) Pyruvate
(B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Malate
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate (E) Phosphoenolpyruvate

A

The answer is D. The only intermediate included on the list that the pathway of gluconeogenesis from glycerol has in common with the pathway of gluconeogenesis from lactate is glucose-6-phosphate. Glycerol enters gluconeogenesis as DHAP. Therefore, it bypasses the other compounds (pyruvate, oxaloacetate, malate and phosphoenolpyruvate) through which the carbons of lactate must pass on its pathway to glucose synthesis.

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9
Q

The pentose phosphate pathway generates which one of the following?
(A) NADH, which may be used for fatty acid synthesis.
(B) Ribose-5-phosphate, which may be used for the biosynthesis of ATP.
(C) Pyruvate and fructose 1,6-bisphosphate by the direct action of transaldolase and transketolase.
(D) Xylulose-5-phosphate by one of the oxidative reactions.
(E) Glucose from ribose-5-phosphate and CO2.

A

The answer is B. In the oxidative reactions of the pentose phosphate pathway, glucose is converted to ribulose-5-phosphate and CO2, with the production of NADPH. These reactions are not reversible. Ribose-5-phosphate and xylulose-5-phosphate are formed from ribulose- 5-phosphate by two of the nonoxidative reactions of the pathway. Ribose-5-phosphate is used for biosynthesis of nucleotides such as ATP. A series of reactions catalyzed by transketolase and transaldolase produce the glycolytic intermediates fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. Glucose is produced by gluconeogenesis in humans, and not directly by the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway.

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10
Q
Which one of the following metabolites is used by all cells for glycolysis, glycogen synthesis, and the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway?
(A) Glucose-1-phosphate
(B) Glucose-6-phosphate
(C) UDP-glucose
(D) Fructose-6-phosphate
(E) Phosphoenolpyruvate
A

The answer is B. Glucose-6-phosphate is common to all pathways. It can be converted to glucose-1-phosphate for glycogen synthesis or go directly into the pentose phosphate pathway, or proceed through fructose-6-phosphate in glycolysis. UDP-glucose is formed from glucose- 1-phosphate and can be used to form glycogen, lactose, glycoproteins, and glycolipids.

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11
Q

A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared with a normal person, after eating a bowl of milk and oatmeal sweetened with table sugar, this patient will have higher levels of which one of the following? Choose the one best answer.
(A) Maltose, sucrose, and lactose in the stool
(B) Starch in the stool
(C) Galactose and fructose in the blood
(D) Glycogen in the muscles
(E) Insulin in the blood

A

The answer is A. In this patient, starch will be digested by salivary and pancreatic α-amylases to small oligosaccharides and maltose, but a lower than normal amount of glucose will be produced because of the deficiency of the brush border disaccharidases, which have maltase, isomaltase, sucrase, and lactase activity. Sucrose and lactose will not be cleaved. There will be more maltose, sucrose, and lactose in the stool and less monosaccharides in the blood and tissues. Insulin levels will be lower than normal, due to the reduced levels of glucose entering the blood. Muscle glycogen will not increase since there is less glucose in the circulation, and insulin, which is required for glucose entry into the muscle, may not be secreted under these conditions.

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12
Q
An infant, who was nourished by a synthetic formula, had a sugar in the blood and urine. This compound gave a positive reducing-sugar test but was negative when measured with glucose oxidase. Treatment of blood and urine with acid (which cleaves glycosidic bonds) did not increase the amount of reducing sugar measured. Which of the following compounds is most likely to be present in this infant’s blood and urine?
(A) Glucose
(B) Fructose
(C) Sorbitol
(D) Maltose
(E) Lactose
A

The answer is B. Fructose gives a positive result in a reducing-sugar test and a negative result in a glucose oxidase test. It is a monosaccharide, and, so, is not cleaved by acid. Glucose gives a positive test result with the enzyme glucose oxidase. Sorbitol has no aldehyde or ketone group, and, thus, cannot be oxidized in the reducing-sugar test. Maltose and lactose are disaccharides that undergo acid hydrolysis, which doubles the amount of reducing sugar. This infant probably has benign fructosuria or the more dangerous condition, HFI. A galactose oxidase test would rule out the possibility that the sugar was galactose.

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13
Q

A 3-year-old girl has been a fussy eater since being weaned, particularly when fruit is part of her diet. She would get cranky, sweat, and display dizziness, and lethargy, after eat- ing a meal with fruit. Her mother noticed this correlation, and as long as fruit was withdrawn from her diet the child did not display such symptoms. The problems the girl exhibits when eating fruit is most likely due to which one of the following?
(A) Decreased levels of fructose in the blood
(B) Elevated levels of glyceraldehyde in liver
cells
(C) High levels of sucrose in the stool
(D) Elevated levels of fructose-1-phosphate in
liver cells
(E) Decreased levels of fructose in the urine

A

The answer is D. The patient has HFI, which is due to a mutation in aldolase B. Sucrose would still be cleaved by sucrase, thus it would not increase in the stool. Fructose would not be metabolized normally, therefore it would be elevated in the blood and urine. Aldolase B would not cleave fructose 1-phosphate, thus its levels would be elevated and the product, glyceraldehyde, would not be produced.

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14
Q
A 1-year-old child, on a routine well child visit, was discovered to have cataract formation in both eyes. Blood work demonstrated elevated galactose and galactitol levels. In order to determine which enzyme might be defective in the child, which intracellular metabolite should be measured?
(A) Galactose
(B) Fructose
(C) Glucose
(D) Galactose-1-phosphate
(E) Fructose-1-phosphate
(F) Glucose-6-phosphate
A

The answer is D. The child has a form of galactosemia. The elevated galactitol enters the lens of the eye, and is trapped. The difference in osmotic pressure across the lens of the eye leads
to cataract formation. Galactose is phosphorylated by galactokinase to galactose 1-phosphate, which reacts with UDP-glucose in a reaction catalyzed by galactose-1-phosphate uridylyl trans- ferase to form UDP-galactose and glucose 1-phosphate. An epimerase converts UDP-galactose to UDP-glucose. Deficiencies in either galactokinase (nonclassical) or galactose-1-phosphate uridylyl transferase (classical) result in galactosemia, with elevated levels of galactose and galactitol (reduced galactose) in the blood. An intracellular measurement of galactose-1-phosphate can allow a definitive diagnosis to be obtained (such levels would be nonexistent
if the defect were in galactokinase, and the levels would be greatly elevated if the galactose- 1-phosphate uridylyl transferase enzyme were defective).

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15
Q

A pregnant woman who has a lactase deficiency and cannot tolerate milk in her diet is concerned that she will not be able to produce milk of sufficient caloric value to nourish her baby. The best advice to her is which one of the following?
(A) She must consume pure galactose in order to produce the galactose moiety of lactose.
(B) She will not be able to breastfeed her baby because she cannot produce lactose.
(C) The production of lactose by the mammary gland does not require the ingestion of milk or milk products.
(D) She can produce lactose directly by degrading α-lactalbumin.
(E) A diet rich in saturated fats will enable her to produce lactose.

A

The answer is C. The woman will be able to breastfeed her baby because she can produce lactose from amino acids and other carbohydrates. She will not have to eat pure galactose,
or even lactose, to do so. Glucose, which can be provided by gluconeogenesis or obtained from the diet, can be converted to UDP-galactose (glucose → glucose-6-phosphate → glucose- 1-phosphate → UDP-glucose → UDP-galactose). UDP-galactose reacts with free glucose to form lactose. α-Lactalbumin is a protein that serves as the modifier of galactosyl transferase, which catalyzes this reaction. The amino acids of α-lactalbumin can be used to produce glucose, but the immediate products of α-lactalbumin degradation are not lactose. Carbohydrates cannot be synthesized from fats.

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16
Q

A chronic alcoholic has recently had trouble with their ability to balance, becomes easily confused, and displays nystagmus. An assay of which of the following enzymes can determine a biochemical reason for these symptoms?
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Transaldolase
(C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(D) Transketolase
(E) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A

The answer is D. The patient has the symptoms of beriberi, which is due to a thiamine deficiency. Of the enzymes listed, transketolase would be less active because it requires thiamine pyrophosphate as a cofactor. The other enzymes listed do not require cofactors except for the three dehydrogenases, which require either NAD1 or NADP1, depending on the enzyme.

17
Q

In a glucose tolerance test, an individual in the basal metabolic state ingests a large amount of glucose. If an individual displays a normal response, this ingestion results in which one of the following?
(A) Enhanced glycogen synthase activity in liver
(B) An increased ratio of phosphorylase a to phosphorylase b in the liver
(C) An increased rate of lactate formation by erythrocytes
(D) Inhibition of PP-1 activity in the liver
(E) Increased activity of CREB

A

The answer is A. After ingestion of glucose the insulin:glucagon ratio increases, the cAMP phosphodiesterase is activated, cAMP levels drop, and protein kinase A is inactivated. This leads to the activation of glycogen synthase by PP-1. The ratio of phosphorylase a to phosphorylase b is decreased by PP-1 as well, thus glycogen degradation decreases. Red blood cells continue to use glucose and form lactate at their normal rate as glucose is the sole energy source for such cells. CREB is also inactivated under these conditions, thereby reducing the levels of PEPCK (via transcriptional regulation) within the cell.

18
Q
A 3-month-old infant was cranky and irritable, became quite lethargic between feedings, and began to develop a potbelly. A physical exam demonstrated an enlarged liver, while blood work taken between feedings demonstrated elevated lactate and uric acid levels, as well as hypoglycemia. This child most likely has a mutation in which one of the following enzymes?
(A) Liver glycogen phosphorylase
(B) Glycogen synthase
(C) Glucose 6-phosphatase
(D) Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
(E) Pyruvate kinase
A

The answer is C. The child has the symptoms of von Gierke’s disease, which is due to a lack of glucose 6-phosphatase activity. In this disorder, neither liver glycogen nor gluconeogenic precursors (e.g., alanine and glycerol) can be used to maintain normal blood glucose levels. The last step (conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose) is deficient for both glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Muscle glycogen cannot be used to maintain blood glucose levels because muscle does not contain glucose 6-phosphatase. A defective liver glycogen phos- phorylase (Her’s disease) will not affect the ability of the liver to raise blood glucose levels by gluconeogenesis. In addition, the lack of liver glycogen phosphorylase does not lead to lactic and uric acid accumulation, although mild fasting hypoglycemia can be observed. Defects
in liver glycogen synthase (type 0 glycogen storage disease) will lead to an early death, with hypoglycemia and hyperketonemia observed. Muscle does not contribute to blood glucose levels, so a defect in muscle glycogen phosphorylase (McArdle’s disease) will not lead to the observed symptoms, but will lead to exercise intolerance. A defect in pyruvate kinase will lead to hemolytic anemia, but not the other symptoms observed in the patient.

19
Q

A 16-year-old patient with Type 1 diabetes mellitus was admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. (The reference range for blood glucose is
80 to 100 mg/dL.) One hour after an insulin infusion was begun, her blood glucose level had decreased to 320 mg/dL. One hour later,
it was 230 mg/dL. The patient’s glucose level decreased because the infusion of insulin led to which one of the following?
(A) The stimulation of the transport of glucose across the cell membranes of the liver and brain
(B) The stimulation of the conversion of glucose to glycogen and triacylglycerol in the liver (C) The inhibition of the synthesis of ketone
bodies from blood glucose
(D) The stimulation of glycogenolysis in the
liver
(E) The inhibition of the conversion of muscle
glycogen to blood glucose

A

The answer is B. Blood glucose decreases because insulin stimulates the transport of glucose into muscle and adipose cells and stimulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen and triacylglycerols in the liver. Ketone bodies are not made from blood glucose. During fasting, when the liver is producing ketone bodies, it is also synthesizing glucose. Carbon for ketone body synthesis comes from fatty acids. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthesis, not glycogenolysis. Muscle glycogen is not converted to blood glucose.

20
Q

A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that was found, after extensive laboratory analysis, to inhibit phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.

The patient would have very little glucose produced from which one of the following gluconeogenic precursors?
(A) Alanine
(B) Glycerol
(C) Even-chain fatty acids (D) Phosphoenolpyruvate (E) Fructose

A

The answer is A. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase converts oxaloacetate to phosphoenol- pyruvate. It is a gluconeogenic enzyme required for the conversion of amino acid carbons and lactate (but not phosphoenolpyruvate or glycerol) to glucose. Acetyl-CoA from the oxidation of fatty acids is not converted to glucose. Fructose can be converted to glucose without the need for PEPCK activity (fructose to fructose-1-phosphate, fructose-1-phosphate to DHAP and glyceraldehyde, glyceraldehyde to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, then the production of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate from DHAP and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, loss of phosphate
to fructose-6-phosphate, isomerization to glucose-6-phosphate, then loss of phosphate to produce glucose).x

21
Q

A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that was found, after extensive laboratory analysis, to inhibit phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase.

Administration of a high dose of glucagon to this patient 2 to 3 hours after a high- carbohydrate meal would result in which one of the following?
(A) A substantial increase in blood glucose levels
(B) A decrease in blood glucose levels
(C) Have little effect on blood glucose levels

A

The answer is A. By 2 to 3 hours after a high-carbohydrate meal, the patient’s glycogen stores would be filled. Glucagon would stimulate glycogenolysis, and blood glucose levels would rise. Gluconeogenesis would still be impaired, but since glycogen levels are high, the liver would be able to export significant amounts of glucose.

22
Q

Administration of a high dose of glucagon to this patient 30 hours after a high-carbohydrate meal would result in which one of the following?
(A) A substantial increase in blood glucose levels
(B) A decrease in blood glucose levels
(C) Have little effect on blood glucose levels

A

The answer is C. Thirty hours after a meal, liver glycogen is normally depleted, and blood glucose level is maintained solely by gluconeogenesis after this time. However, in this case, a key gluconeogenic enzyme is inhibited by an endotoxin. Therefore, gluconeogenesis will not occur at a normal rate and glycogen stores will be depleted more rapidly than normal. Blood glucose levels will not change significantly if glucagon is administered after 30 hours of fasting.

23
Q
A 65-year-old patient complains of occasional swelling, pain, and a scraping sensation in the knees. X-rays show a narrowing of the joint space. The patient only wants to take “natural” oral products to help reverse this condition. The products available for consumption are examples of which one of the following types of compounds?
(A) Proteoglycan
(B) Polyol
(C) Glycolipid
(D) Disaccharide
(E) Glycoprotein
A

The answer is A. The patient has osteoarthritis, and wants to use glucosamine/chondroitin sulfate to provide cushioning in the joint. These molecules are proteoglycans, which consist of long, linear chains of glycosaminoglycans attached to a core protein. Each chain is composed of repeating disaccharides, but disaccharides are, by definition, only 2 sugars. A polyol is a polyalcohol. A glycolipid is a sphingolipid, and does not contribute to joint stability. The typical glycoproteins are not found in the joints, nor are they available as oral supplements as the proteoglycans are.

24
Q

A woman undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer has developed bloating, diarrhea, and excess gas whenever she drinks milk. She never had this problem before.

Which one of the following best describes the mechanism causing the symptoms in the above-mentioned patient?
(A) Chemotherapy damage to the salivary gland
(B) Chemotherapy damage of the pancreas
(C) Chemotherapy damage of the brush
border of the intestine
(D) Cancer infiltration into the small intestine
(E) Cancer infiltration into the pancreas
(F) Cancer infiltration into the salivary gland

A

The answer is C. Chemotherapy targets rapidly growing cells. The outer cells of the intestinal lining (brush border) are rapidly growing cells and are commonly affected by chemotherapy. Lactase is found in the brush border. Cancer metastases to the small bowel would not disrupt the entire small intestine. Cancer infiltration to the pancreas or salivary gland would also not affect lactase activity.

25
Q

A woman undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer has developed bloating, diarrhea, and excess gas whenever she drinks milk. She never had this problem before.

The symptoms the woman is experiencing is due to a reduced synthesis of which one of the following enzymes?
(A) Sucrase
(B) Lactase
(C) Amylase
(D) Isomaltase
(E) Trehalase
A

The answer is B. Lactase converts lactose (milk sugar) to glucose and galactose. In the absence of lactase activity (the chemotherapy is destroying the rapidly growing cells, such as the intestinal epithelial cells, where lactase is found), the lactose enters the colon, where the bacterial flora metabolize it to produce gases and acids. The gases produce flatulence, and
the acids lead to an osmotic imbalance that drives water to leave the colonic epithelium and enter the lumen of the colon, leading to the diarrhea. Sucrase converts sucrose (table sugar) to glucose and fructose. Amylase helps digest plant starches. Isomaltase releases glucose residues from branched oligosaccharides. Trehalase splits trehalose, which is glucose α-1,1-glucose
(a disaccharide).

26
Q

A 50-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes is taking glipizide to help control his blood sugar levels. On one day he could not remember if he had taken the medication, so he accidently took a second dose of the drug. Two hours later, he suddenly develops irritability, tremors, tachycardia, and lightheadedness.

The patient is experiencing which one of the following due to his drug overdose?
(A) Hyperglycemia
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) Lactic acidosis
(D) Ketoacidosis
(E) Hyperammonemia
A

The answer is B. The patient has become hypoglycemic due to excessive release of insulin from the pancreas. Glipizide (glucotrol) is a sulfonylurea drug that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas. If taken in excess, the insulin will promote fat and muscle cells to take up glucose from the circulation, leading to hypoglycemia and insufficient blood glucose levels for normal brain function. Lactic acidosis may result from such an overdose, but it would
be secondary to the hypoglycemic symptoms observed. Elevated ammonia levels would not occur, as glipizide does not alter amino acid metabolism. The high levels of insulin released by the drug would inhibit fatty acid release from the adipocytes, and therefore the precursors for ketone body synthesis are not available, and ketoacidosis would not occur.

27
Q

A 50-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes is taking glipizide to help control his blood sugar levels. On one day he could not remember if he had taken the medication, so he accidently took a second dose of the drug. Two hours later, he suddenly develops irritability, tremors, tachycardia, and lightheadedness.

The symptoms the patient is experiencing are caused by which one of the following hormones?
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Glucocorticosteroids
(E) Testosterone
A

The answer is C. The patient is having a hypoglycemic attack. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas and can cause hypoglycemia. Glucagon, epineph- rine, and glucocorticosteroids are all released to raise blood glucose levels. The symptoms observed in the patient are side effects of epinephrine, acting in the autonomic nervous system. Testosterone levels would not be altered in the presence of glipizide.

28
Q

A 50-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes is taking glipizide to help control his blood sugar levels. On one day he could not remember if he had taken the medication, so he accidently took a second dose of the drug. Two hours later, he suddenly develops irritability, tremors, tachycardia, and lightheadedness.

In response to the overdose of glipizide, the patient has released hormones that will lead to glucose being released by the liver. This occurs through an initial activation of which one of the following liver enzymes?
(A) Adenylate cyclase
(B) Protein kinase A
(C) Glycogen synthase
(D) Phosphorylase kinase
(E) Glycogen phosphorylase
A

The answer is A. Epinephrine, via binding to its receptor, activates a Gs-protein, which binds to and activates adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase will convert ATP to cAMP. As cAMP levels increase, the cAMP binds to the regulatory subunits of protein kinase A, allowing the regulatory subunits to be released from the catalytic subunits. This activates protein kinase A, which then phosphorylates both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase kinase. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated by phosphorylation by phosphorylase kinase. Thus, of the events listed, activation of adenylate cyclase is the initial event.

29
Q
A patient with Type 1 diabetes self-injected insulin prior to their evening meal, but then was distracted and forgot to eat. A few hours later, the individual fainted, and after the paramedics arrived they did a STAT blood glucose level and found it to be 45 mg/dL. The blood glucose level was so low because which one of the following tissues assimilated most of it under these conditions?
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Red blood cells
(D) Adipose tissue
(E) Intestinal epithelial cells
A

The answer is D. Insulin stimulates glucose transport into muscle and adipose cells through mobilization of GLUT4 transporters from internal vesicles to the cell surface. Insulin does not significantly stimulate glucose transport into tissues such as liver, brain, or RBCs, which utilize different variants of the glucose transporters. Only GLUT4 is insulin-responsive.

30
Q
A patient has been diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes in their late teens and is being treated with exogenous insulin, but a second physician is not convinced that the patient has Type 1 diabetes, but rather has Type 2 diabetes. A measurement of which one of the following would allow the physician to determine which diagnosis is correct?
(A) Insulin levels
(B) C-peptide levels
(C) Glucagon levels
(D) Epinephrine levels
(E) HbA1c levels
A

The answer is B. The major difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes is the ability of the body to produce endogenous insulin. Patients with Type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, whereas patients with Type 2 diabetes do produce insulin, but have difficulty responding to the insulin. When insulin is synthesized as preproinsulin, it is then modified and the C-peptide is removed from the molecule, to produce active insulin. Persons with Type 1 diabetes would be lacking C-peptide (exogenous insulin that is injected also lacks C-peptide), whereas persons with Type 2 diabetes would be producing C-peptide. The levels of glucagon and epinephrine would be similar in both types of diabetes. Since the patient is on insulin already, measuring the level of mature insulin in the blood would be unhelpful. HbA1c levels measure glycemic control over the past 6 weeks, and are usually elevated in both types of diabetes. Measuring
HbA1c would not enable one to distinguish between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in this patient.

31
Q
A 3-month-old infant, who was experiencing seizures, was diagnosed with a GLUT1 deficiency, resulting in reduced glucose uptake into the brain. As a result, which one of the following substrates was providing energy for the brain?
(A) Lactate
(B) Amino acids
(C) Fatty acids
(D) Glycerol
(E) Ketone bodies
A

The answer is E. The brain can only use glucose or ketone bodies as an energy source. Even though the heart can use lactate for energy, the brain does not do so. If glucose levels are low, the only available substrate would be ketone bodies. Fatty acids will not cross the blood–brain barrier and are not a good energy source for the brain. The liver will convert fatty acids to ketone bodies for use by the brain. Amino acids are a good source of carbon for gluconeogenesis, but the brain does not oxidize amino acids at an appreciable rate. Glycerol cannot be used by the brain as an energy source as the brain lacks glycerol kinase, a necessary enzyme in the metabolism of glycerol. The treatment for a GLUT1 deficiency is a ketogenic diet–one high in fats such that ketone bodies are continuously generated to provide fuel for the brain.

32
Q

A 50-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents with episodes of light- headedness, tremors, palpitations, hunger, headache, weakness, and confusion. He is fine between episodes. He had such an episode at his last doctor’s visit, at which time blood was drawn for various analyses. The lab results revealed high insulin, high C-peptide, and low blood glucose levels.

Which of the following would be most consistent with his symptoms and lab values?
(A) Insulinoma
(B) Pheochromocytoma
(C) Exogenous insulin injection
(D) Carcinoid tumor
(E) Liver cancer
A

The answer is A. The symptoms and lab results are classic for insulinoma. An insulinoma is
a tumor of the pancreatic β cells that episodically releases large amounts of insulin. At those times, the patient experiences the symptoms of hypoglycemia. A pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal gland that episodically releases epinephrine and norepinephrine throughout the body. A pheochromocytoma would not lead to hypoglycemia (epinephrine stimulates the liver to export glucose), or high insulin or C-peptide levels. If the patient were injecting insulin, the C-peptide should be low, as exogenous insulin lacks the C-peptide. Neither a liver tumor nor a carcinoid tumor would release insulin to the blood.

33
Q

A 50-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents with episodes of light- headedness, tremors, palpitations, hunger, headache, weakness, and confusion. He is fine between episodes. He had such an episode at his last doctor’s visit, at which time blood was drawn for various analyses. The lab results revealed high insulin, high C-peptide, and low blood glucose levels.

In order to treat the patient’s symptoms during an episode, which one of the following would be safest to administer?
(A) Epinephrine
(B) Glucagon
(C) Insulin
(D) Amylin
(E) Testosterone
A

The answer is B. Glucagon is the major catabolic hormone that counters insulin’s effects. It can raise blood glucose through stimulation of gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. Adding insulin would exacerbate the metabolic situation, as excessive insulin is causing the problem. Amylin suppresses glucagon action, and would not overcome the effects of the high insulin levels. Epinephrine can help counter insulin and raise blood glucose, but would be dangerous in a patient with known coronary artery disease (CAD) and palpitations.

34
Q

Patients with diabetes frequently report changing visual acuities when their glucose levels are chronically high. Which of the following could explain the fluctuating acuity with high blood glucose levels?
(A) Increased sorbitol in the lens
(B) Decreased fructose in the lens
(C) Increased oxidative phosphorylation in the
lens
(D) Macular degeneration
(E) Increased galactitol in the lens

A

The answer is A. Fluctuating levels of sugars and sugar alcohols in the lens can cause fluctuating visual acuity. With high blood glucose, there would be increased levels of sorbitol in the lens. The lens does not contain mitochondria and cannot use the TCA cycle/electron trans- port chain to generate energy. Galactitol causes the same problems as sorbitol, but galactitol
is derived from galactose, whereas sorbitol is produced from glucose. The patient has high glucose levels, so galactitol would not be expected to accumulate in the lens. Macular degeneration affects the retina, but in this case, it is the lens that is the affected tissue. Reducing fructose levels in the lens would reduce sorbitol levels, which would ease the visual acuity problem, not make it occur.

35
Q

A couple and their two sons were going to visit Panama in the summer, and obtained drugs from friends (who had these leftover from their trip the year before) to help combat the possibility of acquiring the malarial parasite while in that country. The family members took one drug every day while visiting, then, once they arrived back home, they had to continue the drug treatment for an additional week. During the trip, one of the sons complained of being tired; after the family returned home, he was even more tired and complained of pain in his upper abdomen. He was taken to the emergency department where it was determined that he was anemic. Careful examination demonstrated a slight yellowing in the whites of his eyes. In the presence of the drug, the boy had difficulty in carrying out which one of the following reactions?
(A) The synthesis of heme
(B) The conversion of oxidized glutathione to
reduced glutathione
(C) The absorption of iron, reducing hemoglobin synthesis
(D) The conversion of superoxide to oxygen
(E) The conversion of hydrogen peroxide to
oxygen

A

The answer is B. The boy lacks glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase activity (an X-linked disorder) and, in response to the drug (most likely primaquine), has developed a hemolytic anemia due to an inability to regenerate reduced glutathione to protect red blood cell membranes from oxidative damage. The yellow in the eyes is due to a buildup of bilirubin, as the released hemoglobin from the red blood cells cannot be adequately metabolized by
the liver, and converted to the more soluble diglucuronide form. The abdominal pain may be due to bilirubin stones being formed in the gall bladder. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase produces NADPH in the red blood cells, which is required for glutathione reductase, the enzyme that converts oxidized glutathione to reduced glutathione. The drug does not block heme synthesis, the absorption of iron, or affect radical oxygen species metabolism (superoxide dismutase or catalase).