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NASM Free ch. 5, 6 Movement Science, Assessments > Chapter 6 Assessment > Flashcards

Chapter 6 Assessment Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a Fitness Assessment?

A

Involves a series of measurements that help to determine the current health and fitness levels of clients

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2
Q

What is the purpose of conducting Fitness Assessment?

How does a trainer decide which tests to conduct?

A
  • Helps maintain and monitor fitness goals if a baseline is set
  • Observe and document structural and functional status
  • Which specific tests depends on fitness goals of individual, the trainers experience, the type of workout routines being performed and availability of equipment
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3
Q

Guidelines for Health and Fitness Professionals: 6 DO NOTs (what Health and Fitness Professionals DON’T do)

A
  • Diagnose medical conditions
  • Prescribe diets
  • Prescribe treatment
  • Provide treatment of any kind for injury or disease
  • Provide rehabilitation services for clients
  • Provide counseling services for clients
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4
Q

Instead of diagnosing medical conditions, do what instead?

A
  • Obtain exercise or health guidelines from a physician, physical therapist, or registered dietitian
  • Follow national consensus guidelines of exercise prescription for medical disorders
  • Screen clients for exercise limitations
  • Identify potential risk factors for clients from screening procedures
  • Refer clients who experience difficulty or pain or exhibit other symptoms to a qualified medical practitioner
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5
Q

What does SUBJECTIVE INFORMATION provide within a fitness assessment

A

General History

Medical History

Occupation

Lifestyle

Personal Information

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6
Q

Why is it important to ask a client’s OCCUPATION and what kind of information does it provide?

A
  • Common movement patterns
  • Energy expenditure levels during an average day
  • Helps understand musculoskeletal structure and function
  • Helps determine potential health and physical limitation and restrictions
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7
Q

What 6 categories does OBJECTIVE INFORMATION have in a fitness assessment?

A
  1. Physiological measurements (blood pressure, heart rate)
  2. Body composition assessments (height, weight, body fat percentage, circumference)
  3. Cardiorespiratory assessments
  4. Static posture assessment
  5. Movement assessments (dynamic posture)
  6. Performance assessments
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8
Q

Why is it important to ask a client’s LIFESTYLE and what kind of information does it provide?

A
  1. Recreation: physical activities outside of the work environment “leisure time” - golf, ski, tennis, etc - gives general idea about other athleticism outside of gym / motivation towards enhancing performance - example: “better golf swing”
  2. Hobbies: not necessarily athletic in nature (gardening, working on cars, playing cards, watching TV, videogames, etc) - may help as a motivational tool
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9
Q

What information (list 4) is important to collect in the client’s medical history?

Why is each important?

A
  1. Past Injuries: strong predictor of future musculskeletal injury during physical activity
  2. Past Surgeries: can cause pain and inflammation that can alter neural control to the affected muscles and joints if not rehabilitated properly
  3. Chronic Conditions: risk of chronic disease dramatically increase with lack of physical fitness
  4. Medications: meds may have an effect on the way the body (heart rate and blood pressure) as well as the way it may react to exercise
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10
Q

What effect do ANKLE SPRAIN injuries have on the functioning of the HMS?

A
  1. Decreases the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
  2. Can lead to poor control of the lower extremities during functional activities (which can lead to injury)
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11
Q

What effect do KNEE injuries have on the functioning of the HMS?

Non contact knee injuries are often the result of what?

A
  1. Decreases the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella (kneecap) and lead to further injury
  2. Non-contact knee injuries are often the result of ankle or hip dysfunctions, (example: result of ankle sprain). This can result in altered movement and force distribution of the knee
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12
Q

What effect do LOW BACK injuries have on the functioning of the HMS?

Where can further dysfunction develope as a result?

A
  1. Decreases neural control to the stabilizing muscles of the core, resulting in poor stabilization of the spine
  2. can lead to further dysfunction of upper and lower extremities
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13
Q

What effect do SHOULDER injuries have on the functioning of the HMS?

A

Cause altered neural control of the rotator cuff muscles, which can lead to instability of the shoulder joint during functional activities

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14
Q

What are some OTHER types of injuries that may have on the functioning of the HMS / muscle imbalances?

A

Repetitive Hamstring Strains, Groin Strains, Patellar Tendonitis (jumper’s knee), Plantar Fasciitis (pain in the heel and bottom of the foot), Posterior Tibialis Tendonitis (shin splint), Biceps Tendonitis (shouder pain), and headaches

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15
Q

What are Beta-Blockers generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. Anti-hypertensive (high blood pressure) and Arrhythmias (irregular heart beat) by blocking norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) from binding to beta receptors on nerves
  2. HR: decreases
  3. BP: decreases
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16
Q

What are Calcium-Channel Blockers generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. Hypertension and Angina (Chest Pain) by preventing calcium from entering cells of the heart and blood vessel walls
  2. HR: may increase or decrease or no effect ?
  3. BP: decreases
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17
Q

What are Nitrates generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. Hypertension and Congestive Heart Failure by increasing the flow of blood and oxygen to the heart and thereby INCREASING THE AMOUNT OF WORK THE HEART CAN DO by dilating (expanding) the arteries and veins
  2. HR: may increase or have no effect
  3. BP: may decrease or have no effect
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18
Q

What are Diuretics generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. Hypertension, Congestive Heart Failure, Peripheral Edema
  2. HR: no effect
  3. BP: may decrease or have no effect
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19
Q

What are Bronchodilators generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. To correct prevent bronchial smooth muscle constriction in individuals with asthma and other pulmonary diseases
  2. HR: no effect - really?!
  3. BP: no effect
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20
Q

What are Vasodilators generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. Hypertension and Congestive Heart Failure
  2. HR: may increase or decrease or no effect ?
  3. BP: may decrease
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21
Q

What are antidepressants generally prescribed for?

What does it do to a person’s heart rate?

Blood pressure?

A
  1. Various psychiatric and emotional disorders
  2. HR: may increase or have no effect
  3. BP: may decrease or have no effect
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22
Q

How should a resting heart rate be tested?

A

Measure number of pulses for 60 seconds.

Right when they wake up

at the same time 3 mornings in a row (take average),

while they are calm

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23
Q

What is the purpose of Target Heart Rate Training Zone 1?

A

Builds aerobic base and aids in recovery

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24
Q

What is the purpose of Target Heart Rate Training Zone 2?

A

Increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance

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25
Q

What is the purpose of Target Heart Rate Training Zone 3?

A

Builds high-end work capacity

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26
Q

How do you determine a client’s estimated maximal heart rate or HRmax?

A

-Subtract client’s age by 220 example: 220 - 31 = 189

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27
Q

What is the Straight Percentage Method to determine Peak Maximal Heart Rate or Target Heart Rate (THR)?

A
  • HRmax times the appropriate zone intensity percent
    example: 189 (x) 0.75 (zone 1) = 141.75 THR
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28
Q

How do you determine which “Target Heart Rate Zone” your client should be in?

A

Based off of “3-Minute Step Test” results

or Rockport Walk Test

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29
Q

What are the percentage ranges for each zone for Target Heart Rate?

A

Zone 1: 65-75%

Zone 2: 76-85%

Zone 3: 86-95%

times maximal heart rate (HRmax)

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30
Q

What is the HR Reserve (HRR) method or the Karvonen Method?

A

A method of establishing training intensity on the basis of the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and their resting heart rate.

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31
Q

What is the formula for the HR Reserve (HRR) method or the Karvonen Method?

A

THR = [desired intensity x (HRmax - HRrest)] + HRrest

example: THR = [(189 - 63) x 0.75] + 63 THR = [126 x 0.75] + 63 THR = [94.5] + 63 THR = 157.5 bpm

Multiply the percentage of intensity from the appropriate zone, times the difference between only your resting and maximum heart rate, then add back the resting heart rate.

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32
Q

Name 6 body composition assessments.

A
  1. Skinfold Measurment
  2. Bioelectrical Impedance
  3. Underwater Weighing (hydrostatic weighing) (based on the fact that fat floats)
  4. Circumference Measurements
  5. Waist-To-Hip
  6. BMI
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33
Q

What is a skinfold (SKF) measurement?

What does it show?

How many places do you record and where (and what side of the body)?

A
  1. uses a caliper to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin
  2. body fat %
  3. 4 places - Biceps, Triceps, Subscapular, Iliac Crest
  4. Right side of body
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34
Q

What is bioelectrical impedance?

A
  1. A portable instrument used to conduct an electrical current through the body to estimate fat
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35
Q

What is a limitation of circumference measurements?

A

Circumference is affected by both fat and muscle and therefore do not provide accurate estimates of fatness.

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36
Q

Why is a waist-to-hip ratio important?

A

there is a correlation between chronic diseases and fat stored in the midsection

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37
Q

A waist-to-hip ratio greater than _.__ for women and _.__ for men may put these individuals at risk for a number of diseases.

A

0.80 for women 0.95 for men

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38
Q

How do you determine a client’s Body Mass Index (BMI)?

A

BMI = [weight (lbs) / Height (inches squared)] x 703

BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (meters squared)

EXAMPLE: BMI = [108 / (64)x(64)] x 703 BMI = [108 / 4096] x 703 BMI = 0.2636719 x 703 BMI = 18.5361328 BMI = 18.54

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39
Q

What BMI classifies as underweight?

What is its risk of disease?

A

<18.5

Increased risk for disease

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40
Q

What is classified as an acceptible BMI?

A

22-25

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41
Q

What BMI is classified as overweight? What is its risk of disease?

A

25-30

Increased risk for disease

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42
Q

What BMI range is classified as obese? What is the risk of disease?

A

30-35

High risk of disease

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43
Q

What is the BMI range for Obesity II? What is the risk of disease?

A

35-40

Very High risk of disease

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44
Q

What are two common cardiorespiratory assessments?

A
  1. YMCA 3-Minute Step Test 2. Rockport Walk Test
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45
Q

How do you conduct a YMCA 3-Minute Step Test?

A

Step 1: have client perform 96 steps/minute on a 12-inch step for a total of 3 minutes. It is important to stay consistent with steps (metronome or counting out loud may be necessary)

Step 2: Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, measure client’s resting heart rate for a period of 60 seconds and record it as the “recovery pulse”

Step 3: Locate the recovery pulse number on designated chart based off correct categories

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46
Q

What is a PAR-Q?

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire

Determines the possible risks of exercising because of possible cardiovascular disease

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47
Q

What are 4 tendencies of clients who sit for long periods of time throughout the day?

A
  • Tight hip flexors
  • Rounded shoulders
  • Forward head
  • Poor cardio-respiratory conditioning
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48
Q

Working with arms over head for long periods of time may lead to weakness and tightness in what muscles.

How does this affect the shoulder during activity?

A
  • Tight lats
  • Weak rotator cuff
  • Causes improper shoulder motion and stabilization during activity
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49
Q

Wearing high heals causes tightness in which muscles and tendon?

What sort of postural imbalance does this cause?

What then happens to the foot?

A
  • Tight gastrocnemius, soleus, and achilles tendon
  • Leads to decreased dorsiflexion and overpronation
  • Flattening of the arch
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50
Q

What are the effects of stress and anxiety?

A
  • Elevated resting heart rate
  • Elevated blood pressure
  • Abnormal breathing patterns
  • Which cause muscle imbalances in the neck shoulder chest and low back
  • Leading to postural distortion
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51
Q

How good is resting heart rate and exercise heart rate as an indicator of how well the clients cardiorespiratory system is responding to exercise?

A
  • resting HR- fairly good
  • exercise HR- strong indicator
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52
Q

What is the typical resting heart rate?

What is average for a male and a female?

A

Between 70 and 80 beats per minute

70 for male

75 for female

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53
Q

When measuring blood pressure what is the top number called?

What does it represent?

A

The top number is called systolic and represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts.

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54
Q

When measuring blood pressure what is the bottom number called?

What does it represent?

A

Diastolic. it represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling up with blood.

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55
Q

What is an accpetable blood pressure measurement according to the American Heart Association?

A

Systolic <120 mm Hg

Diastolic <80bmm Hg

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56
Q

What is the most valid measurement of functional capacity of the cardiopulmonary system? (heart and lungs)

A

Cardiopulmonary Exercise Text (maximal oxygen uptake) (VO2max)

57
Q

How do you perform the Rockport Walk Test?

A

Have the client walk 1 mile as fast as they can control.

Measure heart rate and performance time.

Use a formula to determine their ideal heart rate for each zone.

58
Q

Name 3 biological outcomes of proper posture. Describe four benefits of these outcomes and how it works.

A
  1. Optimal neuromuscular efficiency–helps for safe and effective movement
    2a. Optimally aligned muscles with proper length-tension relationships-needed for
    2b. Efficient force coupling, creating appropriate muscle recruitment–Both maximize force production (strength).
  2. Proper arthrokinematics (joint motion)–effective absorption and distribution of forces (kinetic chain)–alleviates stress on joints
59
Q

What is a restraint of observing static posture?

A

Doesn’t indicate whether a problem is structural or from poor muscular recruitment patterns.

60
Q

In pronation distortion syndrom which 5 muscles are short?

A
  1. Calfs (limits dorsi flexion so the feet turn out to get mor ROM)
  2. Peroneals (everts the ankle)
  3. Adductors
  4. Biceps femoris short head (attaches lower femur to fibula, flexes knee and ext. rot. lower leg)
  5. TFL (causes slight int rot of femur and ext rot of tibia though its ITB connection to the tibia and the fact that the ilium attachment is more anterior.)
61
Q

In Pronation Distortion Syndrome which 8 muscles are lengthened?

A
  1. /2. Tibialis anterior and posterior (if strong, would cause ankle inversion)
  2. Medial gastroc (if strong, tibia int. rot.)
  3. Medial hamstring (tibia int. rot.)
  4. Popliteus (tibia int. rot. and knee stabilization)
  5. Gracilis (tibia int. rot. and knee stabilization
  6. Sartorius (laterally rotates the thigh when knee is straight)
  7. Vastus medialis (aligns patella and knee stabilization)
62
Q

In pronation distortion syndrom which 4 joint mechanics are increased?

A

Knee adduction

Knee internal rotation

Foot pronation

Foot external rotation

63
Q

In pronation distortion syndrome which 2 jont mechanics are decreased in the ankle?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion

Ankle inversion

64
Q

In pronation distortion syndrome what are 4 common possilbe injuries?

A

Plantar fascitis

Posterior tibialis tendonitis (shin splints)

Patellar tendonitis

Low back pain

65
Q

Pronation distortion syndrome is characterized by what tendencies in the feet and knees?

A

Feet pronation (flat feet)

Adducted and internally rotated knees (knock knees)

66
Q

Lower Crossed Syndrome is characterized by what postural distortion?

A

Anterior pelvic tilt

67
Q

Upper crossed syndrome is characterized by what two postural distortions?

A

Forward head

Rounded shoulders

68
Q

What 6 muscles are SHORT in LOWER CROSSED syndrome?

A

gastrocnemius

soleus

hip flexors

adductors

latissimus dori

erector spinae

69
Q

What 3 muscle groups are LENGTHENED in LOWER CROSSED syndrome?

A

Tibialis anterior/posterior

Gluteals

Abdominal muscles

70
Q

What joint movement is increased and which is decreased in the lower back and hips for LOWER CROSS syndrome?

A

Increased: lumbar extension

Decreased: hip extension

71
Q

What 3 possible injuries occur from LOWER CROSSED syndrome?

A
  1. Hamstring complex strain (because of excessive pull on their length)
  2. Anterior knee pain (because of tendncy to lock the knees)
  3. Low back pain (because of hyperlordosis)
72
Q

What 8 muscles are short in UPPER CROSSED syndrome?

A
  1. Upper trapezius
  2. Levator scapula
  3. SCM
  4. Scalines
  5. Pecs
  6. Lats (adducts extends internally rotates horizontally abducts shoulder) (probably upper lats just below lower border of scapula causing int. rotation of shoulder by pulling the humerus backwards)
  7. Teres major (due to insertion at anterior humerus, causes arm behind back movement direction)
  8. Subscapularis (humerus internal rotation and adduction)
73
Q

What 7 muscles are LENGTHENED in UPPER CROSSED syndrome?

A
  1. deep cervical flexors (chin tuck head lift)
  2. serratus anterior inferior
  3. rhomboids
  4. mid-trapezius
  5. lower trapezius
  6. teres minor (lawn mower cord pulling movement)
  7. infraspinatus (shoulder external rotation)
74
Q

Which joint mechanics are increased (list 3) and decreased (list 2) in UPPER CROSSED syndrome?

A

Increased:

Cervical extension

Scapular protraction

Scapular elevation

Decreased:

Shoulder extension (because arms are in front of you not behind?)

Shoulder external rotation

75
Q

What are 4 common injuries with UPPER CROSSED syndrome?

A
  1. Headaches
  2. Biceps tendonitis
  3. Rotator cuff impingement
  4. Thoracic outlet syndrome
76
Q

In a static postural assessment, what 3 things should be observed in the FEET/ANKLES?

A

Arch height

Rotation

Angle of leg to foot (from side view)

77
Q

What 2 things should be observed in the KNEES during a static postural assessment?

A

Alignment compared to toes (adduction or abduction)

Hyper extension

78
Q

What 2 things should be observed in the HIPS during static postural assessment?

A

Height of superior illiac spines (L/R)

Flexion or extension of lower back

79
Q

What 4 things should be observed in the SHOULDERS and THORACIC SPINE during a static postural assessment?

A

Elevation

Elevation of L versus R

Kyphotic curve

Protaction (medial boarders of scapulas in posterior view)

80
Q

What 3 things should be observed in the HEAD position when performing a static postural assessment?

A

Tilt

Rotation

Extension (jutting forward)

81
Q

If there is excessive forward lean during the overhead squat test, which 3 muscle groups are probably OVERACTIVE/SHORT?

A
  1. Calfs (limited doriflexion means client has to lean forward to offset center of gravity and prevent from falling backwards)
  2. Hip flexors
  3. Abdominals
82
Q

What are 5 kinetic chain checkpoints?

A
  1. Foot/ankle
  2. Knee
  3. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC)
  4. Shoulders
  5. Head and cervical spine
83
Q

KNOCKED KNEES during the OVERHEAD SQUAT TEST is influenced by weakness in which 2 muscle groups?

Tightness in which muscle group?

Restriction in which joint?

A

WEAK:

  • Hip abductors
  • Hip external rotators

TIGHT:

-Hip adductors

RESTRICTION:

-Ankle dorsi flexion

84
Q

What is the starting position of the overhead squat assessment?

A

Feet shoulder width apart

Shoes off

Straight arms raised overhead in line with torso

85
Q

What movement instructions should be given for the overhead squat test?

Repeat how many times?

A

Squat to roughly the hight of a chair seat.

Return to starting position.

Repeat 5 times from the front and side

86
Q

What 2 compensation patterns should be looked for in the ANTERIOR view of the overhead squat test?

A
  1. Feet–Do they flatten and/or turn out?
  2. Knees–Do they adduct and internally rotate?
87
Q

What 3 compensation patterns should be looked for in the LATERAL view of the overhead squat test?

A

Lumbo-pelvic hip complex

  1. Arch in low back?
  2. Torso too leaned forward (not parallel with angle of lower legs)?

Shoulder

  1. Do the arms fall forward? (not stay aligned with line of lower back?)
88
Q

If there is excessive forward lean during the overhead squat test, which 3 muscle groups are probably UNDERACTIVE?

A
  1. Tibialis anterior (can’t pull knee forward into dorsi flexion)
  2. Gluteus maximus (needed to maintain toso alignment during a squat)
  3. Erector spinae
89
Q

If the LOWER BACK ARCHES during the overhead squat test, which 3 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE?

A
  1. Hip flexors (shortens distance between lower back and femor)
  2. Erector spinae (cause spinal extension)
  3. Lats (shortened during lumbar spine extension)
90
Q

If the LOWER BACK ARCHES during the overhead squat test, which 4 muscles are probably UNDERACTIVE?

A
  1. Gluteus max (cannot maintain force production for hip extension so erector spinae compensate, altering spinal alignment)
  2. Hamstrings (same as glut max)
  3. Intrinsic core stabilizers (needed to maintain a neutral spine)(same for spinal extension)
  4. Abdominals (promote spinal flexion)
91
Q

If the ARMS FALL FORWARD during the overhead squat test, which 3 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE?

A
  1. Lats
  2. Teres major
  3. Pecs
92
Q

If the ARMS FALL FORWARD during the overhead squat test, which 4 muscles are probably UNDERACTIVE?

A
  1. Middle and lower trapezius
  2. Rhomboids
  3. Infraspinatus
  4. Posterior deltoid
93
Q

If the FEET TURN OUT and FLATTEN during the overhead squat test, which 3 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE?

A
  1. Peroneals
  2. Lateral gastrocnemius
  3. Biceps femoris (short head)- (lateral hamstring that attaches lower femur to fibula. ext rot lower leg)
94
Q

If the FEET TURN OUT and FLATTEN during the overhead squat test, which 5 muscles are probably UNDERACTIVE?

A
  1. Medial gastrocnemius
  2. Medial hamstrings
  3. Gracilis
  4. Sartorius
  5. Popliteus
95
Q

If the KNEES MOVE INWARD during the overhead squat test, which 4 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE?

A
  1. Adductor complex
  2. Bicepts femoris (short head) (flexes knee and int. rot. tibia)
  3. TFL (causes slight int rot of femur and ext rot of tibia though its ITB connection to the tibia and the fact that the ilium attachment is more anterior.)
  4. Vastus lateralis (from a bow string effect)
96
Q

If the KNEES MOVE INWARD during the overhead squat test, which 2 muscles are probably UNDERACTIVE?

A
  1. Gluteus medius/maximus
  2. Vastus medialis oblique
97
Q

Which tests work well for measuring lower extremity movement patterns?

A

Overhead squat test

Single leg squat assessment

98
Q

KNEE VALGUS during the single leg squat assessment is influenced by WEAKNESS in which 2 movements?

and INCREASED ACTIVITY in…

and RESTRICTED MOVEMENT in…

A

Weak:

  1. Hip abductor
  2. Hip external rotation

Increased activity:

  1. Adductors

Restrictions:

  1. Ankle dorsi flexion
99
Q

When the single leg squat assessment is too difficult what 2 things can be done?

A

Use outside support for assistance

or

change it to a balance assessment (observe movement compensation)

100
Q

What POSITION should the client start in during the single leg squat assessment?

A

Hands on hips

Eyes focusing on object straight ahead

Foot pointed straight ahead

101
Q

What movement instructions should be given during the single leg squat assessment?

How many repetions on each side?

A

Squat to a comfortable level and return to the starting position.

5 repetitions on each side

102
Q

What compensation pattern should be checked for during the single leg squat assessment?

A

Does the knee adduct and internally rotate?

(knee should track in line with the 2nd and 3rd toes)

103
Q

When the knee moves inward during a single-leg squat assessment, which 4 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE?

A
  1. Adductors
  2. Biceps femoris (short head)
  3. TFL
  4. Vastus lateralis
104
Q

When the knee moves inward during a single-leg squat assessment, which 2 muscles are probably UNDERACTIVE?

A
  1. Gluteus medius/maximus
  2. Vastus medialis oblique
105
Q

What is the starting position for the pushin and pulling assessment?

A

Stand in a split stance with toes pointing forward. Draw the abdomen inward

106
Q

What movement instructions should be given for the pushing and pulling assessment?

How many repititions?

A

Press handles forward and return to starting position.

Pull handles toward the body and return to starting position.

20 reps

107
Q

What 3 things should be looked for when the client performs the pushing or pulling assessment?

A
  1. Does the low back arch?
  2. Do the shoulders elevate?
  3. Does the head migrate forward?
108
Q

During the pushing or pulling assessment, which 2 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE and what muscle is probably UNDERACTIVE if the LOW BACK ARCHES?

A

OVERACTIVE:

  1. Hip flexors
  2. Erector spinae

UNDERACTIVE:

  1. Intrinsic core stabilizers
109
Q

During the pushing or pulling assessment, which 3 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE and what muscle is probably UNDERACTIVE if the SHOULDER ELEVATES?

A

OVERACTIVE:

  1. Upper trapezius
  2. SCM
  3. Levator scapulae

UNDERACTIVE:

  1. Mid/lower trapezius
110
Q

During the pushing or pulling assessment, which 3 muscles are probably OVERACTIVE and what muscle is probably UNDERACTIVE if the HEAD MIGRATES FORWARD?

A

OVERACTIVE:

  1. Upper trapezius
  2. SCM
  3. Levator scapulae

UNDERACTIVE:

  1. Deep cervical flexors
111
Q

Which test measures muscular endurance of the upper body especially pushing muscles.

A

Push-up Test

112
Q

In the Push-Up Test, what 3 compensation patterns should be checked for?

A
  1. Arch in low back
  2. Extended cervical spice
  3. Not actually touching the chest to the floor
113
Q

What test measures agility and stabilization of the upper extremities?

A

Davies Test

114
Q

What type of client should avoid the Davies Test?

A

Clients who lack shoulder stability

115
Q

What is the STARTING POSITION for the DAVIES TEST?

A
  1. Place two pieces of tape 3 ft. apart on the floor
  2. Have client assume the push-up position with one hand on each piece of tape.
116
Q

What MOVEMENTS should be instructed for the DAVEIS TEST?

How long?

A

1, Quickly move one hand to touch the other alternating each side

  1. Continue for 15 seconds. Repeat 3 times.
117
Q

What test assesses agility and neuromuscular control of the lower extremity?

A

Shark Skill Test

118
Q

Which clients should not perform the shark skill test?

A

Clients who had difficulty with the single leg squat test.

119
Q

What is the starting postion for the SHARK SKILL TEST?

A
  • Client stands on one leg
  • With hands on hips
  • In the center box of a 9 squared, square grid.
120
Q

What movements should be instructed for a SHARK SKILL TEST?

How many times?

How should the time be calculated?

A
  1. Hop to each box in a designated pattern, always returning to the center box. (Be consistent with the pattern).
  2. Have one practice run through for each foot.
  3. Perform the test twice for each foot
  4. Record time adding .1 second for each fault:
    - Non hopping leg touches the ground
    - Hands come off hips
    - Foot goes in the wrong square
    - Foot doesn’t return to center square
121
Q

What is the BENCH PRESS Assessment designed to assess?

What is it used to determine?

A

The one-rep maximum overall, upper body strength of the pressing musculature.

Use to determine training intensities for the bench press.

122
Q

What goals should the BENCH PRESS and SQUAT be used for?

Which should it not be used for?

A

Used for strength-specific goals

Not suitable for general fitness or weight-loss goals

123
Q

What is the STARTING POSITION for the BENCH PRESS?

A
  • Position client on a bench, laying on their back
  • LOW BACK should be in NEUTRAL position
  • FEET should be POINTED STRAIGHT ahead
124
Q

What MOVEMENT INSTRUCTIONS should be given for the BENCH PRESS?

A
  1. Warm up with light, resistance that can be easily performed for 8-10 reps
  2. 1 minute rest
  3. Add 30-40 lbs (10% of initial load) perform 3-5 reps
  4. 2 minute rest
  5. Repeat steps 3 and 4 until client fails
  6. Use the one-rep maximum estimation chart
125
Q

What is the SQUAT assessment designed to estimate?

What can it be used to determine?

A

The one-rep squat maximum and overall lower body strength.

Used to determine training intensities for squats.

126
Q

What is the STARTING POSITION for the SQUAT assessment?

A
  • Feet shoulder width apart
  • Pointed straight ahead
  • Knees in line with toes
  • Low back in a neutral position
127
Q

What MOVEMENT INSTRUCTIONS should be given for the SQUAT assessment?

A
  1. Warm up with light resistance that can be easily performed for 8-10 reps
  2. 1 minute rest
  3. Add 30 to 40 lbs (10-20% of initial load) and perform 3-5 reps
  4. 2 minute rest
  5. Repeat steps 3 and 4 until client fails
  6. Use the one-rep maximum estimation chart in the appendix to calculate one-repetition max.
128
Q

What 3 short/tight muscles can cause the knees to bow outwards?

A
  1. Piriformis
  2. Biceps Femoris (lateral hamstring attaches from ichial tuberosity which is medial, to the outer knee which is lateral, causing ext. rot)
  3. TFL (when not acting as stabilizers, can become synergistically dominant for glute med and pull the knee out)
129
Q

What 3 underactive/long muscles would cause the knees to move outwards?

A
  1. Adductors
  2. Medial hamstring
  3. Glut med/max (Can lead to TFL synergistically dominate for frontal plane control)
130
Q

What 3 SHORT/OVERACTIVE muscles cause rounding of the lower back during overhead squat?

A
  1. Hamstrings (short hams resist hip flex, so lumbar spine compensates)
  2. Adductor magnus (attaches to ischial tuberosity and if short will resist hip flexion, so lumbar spine compensates)
  3. Rectus abdominis/external obliques (cause excessive spinal flexion)
131
Q

What 4 LONG/UNDERACTIVE muscles cause rounding of the lower back during overhead squat?

A
  1. Glut Max
  2. Hip flexors
  3. Intrinsic core stabilizers (can’t stabilize spine) just like in spinal extension
  4. Lats
132
Q

The human movement system can also be referred to as what?

which is comprised of what 3 parts?

A

The kinetic chain

  1. Nervous System
  2. Muscular System
  3. Skeletal System
133
Q

The KINETIC CHAIN can be defied as what?

A
  1. The human movement system
  2. How different segments of the body work together
134
Q

If one link breaks down in the kinetic chain what happens?

A

It will affect how well the rest of the structure can do its job.

135
Q

What 4 factors lead to neuromuscular disfunction and arthrokinematics, which causes a chain reaction affecting other muscles and joints around the body?

A
  1. Poor posture
  2. Repetitive movement/Pattern overload
  3. Lack of movement
  4. Injury
136
Q

What are 2 main neuromuscular issues that can happen from patterns of movement dysfunction?

A
  1. Altered Recrprocal Inhibition
  2. Synergistic Dominance
137
Q

What is ALTERED RECIPRICAL INHIBITION?

A

When a tight muscle causes decreased neural drive of its antagonist. (the opposing muscle will be lengthened and in an underactive state)

138
Q

Explain how tight hamstrings during a squat can demonstrate RECIPRICAL INHIBITION and SYNERGISTIC DOMINANCE.

A
  • TIGHT HAMS during SQUATS (which use glutes and quads but some hams because of hip extension)
  • Causes REDUCED SIGNALS from brain TO GLUT MAX (which performs majority of heavy lifting)
  • Causes SYNERGISTS like PIRAFORMIS to TAKE OVER
139
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.

A

Synnergistic Dominance

NASM Free ch. 5, 6 Movement Science, Assessments (2 decks)

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