Chapter 51 & 52 HW#3_Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory & URINALYSIS Flashcards
A centrifuge is used to separate:
solids from liquids. blood cells from serum or plasma. crystals from urine. *all of the above. Centrifugation is used to separate blood cells from serum, solid materials (e.g., cells and crystals) from urine, and solids from liquids.
An MSDS contains which of the following?
Trade and chemical names Hazardous ingredients Manufacturer’s name and address *All of the above The MSDS contains the basic information about a specific chemical or products, including the trade name, chemical name and synonyms, chemical family, manufacturer’s name and address, emergency telephone number, hazardous ingredients, physical data, fire and explosion data, and health hazard and protection information.
Pipettes used to deliver or transfer specified volumes of liquid to prepare reagents include which type(s)?
Graduated
Volumetric
*Both B and C
For most general laboratory procedures, two main types of manual pipettes are used, the volumetric pipette, which is used for transferring, and the graduated pipette, which is used for measuring. Serologic pipettes permit a fast flow of liquid with less accuracy and should not be used in the preparation of reagents.
Aerosolization in a centrifuge can be prevented by ensuring that:
Tubes to be centrifuged should be tightly capped to prevent the emission of aerosols.
Which of the following is a qualitative laboratory test result?
Fecal occult blood test: positive
For qualitative tests, no numeric value is attached to the result, which is reported simply as positive or negative.
In the identification system of the National Fire Protection Association, the white diamond indicates ______ of the chemical.
special hazards
The bottom diamond is white and provides special hazard information, including radioactivity, special biohazards, and other dangerous situations.
Which of the following is most accurate for measuring 500 mL?
500-mL volumetric flask
The most accurate measurement is obtained with a volumetric flask. Volumetric glassware must undergo rigorous calibration to ensure the accuracy of the measurement.
Decreased hemoglobin levels are seen in which of the following illnesses?
Iron deficiency anemia Hyperthyroidism Cirrhosis of the liver *All of the above A decrease in hemoglobin levels in RBCs is seen in iron deficiency anemia, hyperthyroidism, and cirrhosis of the liver.
The microscope component that directs the light up through the stage is the:
The condenser directs light up through the stage, and the iris diaphragm regulates the amount of light passing through the specimen.
The ocular of the microscope generally magnifies the image:
The usual magnification is ten times (10´).
Laboratory tests performed in a physician’s office are most likely to be categorized as:
waived.
moderate complexity.
*both a and b
Laboratory tests performed in a physician’s office are most likely to be waived and moderate-complexity tests.
You mix 2 mL of a patient’s serum with 18 mL of diluent to prepare a _____ dilution.
A 1:10 dilution can be prepared by mixing 2 mL of sample and 18 mL of diluent.
Immersion oil can be used with which of the following objective lenses of the microscope?
Oil immersion (100´) allows the finest focusing of the object and requires the use of a special oil, which is placed directly on the slide.
Which of the following is the most efficient method of preventing the spread of infection in a laboratory?
Washing or sanitizing the hands is the single most effective way to prevent the spread of all infections.
The act passed by Congress to establish quality standards for all laboratory testing is referred to as (the):
CLIA
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) established quality standards for all laboratory testing to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of patients’ test results.
You are required to transfer 10 mL of urine from a 24-hour specimen into a special tube to be sent to a referral laboratory. You:
use a serologic pipette to transfer the urine into the tube.
Serologic pipettes are calibrated to their tip.
When the 40´ objective is in place on the microscope, the total magnification of the specimen is:
400´
The total magnification of the specimen being observed is determined by multiplying the magnification of the objective lens by 10.
Categories of tests performed in the clinical laboratory are assigned by the FDA on the basis of the:
potential risk to public health.
CLIA regulatory categories are based on their potential risk to public health.
Balancing a centrifuge requires that all tumbles in the load:
have a partner directly across in the rotor holder.
Balancing a centrifuge requires that tubes of equal size and containing equal volume are positioned directly across from one another in the rotor holders.
A blood culture and sensitivity (C&S) test is most likely to be performed in which division of the clinical laboratory?
Microbiology
Blood cultures are performed in the microbiology laboratory.
__________ is the study of bacteria, fungi, yeasts, parasites, and viruses.
Microbiology is the study of microorganisms that cause disease.
A portion of a well-mixed sample that is removed for testing is called a(n):
A portion of a well-mixed sample that is removed for testing is called a(n):
The aliquot is the part of the sample that is removed for the laboratory test.
The pledge of healthcare professionals to work to achieve the highest degree of excellence in the care given to every patient is otherwise known as:
quality assurance (QA). QA is the pledge of healthcare professionals to work to achieve the highest degree of excellence in the healthcare given every patient. QA encompasses a comprehensive set of policies and procedures developed to ensure the reliability of laboratory testing.
An autoclave can best be compared with a(n):
pressure cooker.
An autoclave sterilizes instruments through the use of steam under pressure, which is similar to the way food cooks in a pressure cooker.
Which of the following is not a waived test?
Gram staining is not a waived tes
The clinical chemistry department performs which of the following tests?
Lipid profile
The clinical chemistry department analyzes specimens for a number of related analytes.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the medical assistant in the clinical laboratory?
Interpreting abnormal results and providing patients with diagnoses
The medical assistant is not trained to interpret results and diagnose patients.
A term used to describe a blood sample in which the red blood cells have ruptured is:
hemolyzed
A hemolyzed blood sample can no longer be examined for RBCs.
You are preparing a chemical hygiene plan for your employer and need copies of the MSDS for several products in use in your laboratory. The first step is to contact:
The manufacturer provides information for the MSDS.
Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?
Bilirubin
Direct light causes the decomposition of bilirubin.
One of the first detectable signs of liver disease is:
bilirubinuria
Bilirubin is broken down in a healthy liver, not excreted in the urine.
A urine sample that can be collected at any given time is called a:
A random sample of urine can be collected at any time.
The specific gravity of a urine specimen reads 1.035 g/mL. This value is considered:
abnormally high.
The normal specific gravity of urine ranges from 1.005 to 1.030 g/mL, depending on the patient’s fluid intake. Most samples fall between 1.010 and 1.025 g/mL.
One of the first detectable signs of renal disease is:
proteinuria
Protein is found in the urine when there is a problem with glomerular filtration.
A child whose urine has a mousy smell most likely would be diagnosed with:
phenylketonuria (PKU)
The accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood and urine gives body fluids an odor similar to that of wet fur.
A small amount of which of the following is always present in normal urine?
Urobilinogen
Urobilinogen normally is present in urine in small amounts. The amount increases with increased RBC destruction and in liver disease.
Which of the following is mismatched concerning urine color and the likely pathologic cause?
Reddish brown—diabetes
Glycosuria does not alter the appearance of urine.
Which statement is true about the pH of urine?
The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria
With gross bacteriuria, the urine pH is alkaline as a result of bacterial conversion of urea to ammonia.
In the microscopic observation of urine sediment, yeast most resembles:
red blood cells
Yeasts are easily confused with red blood cells because they have a similar shape.
You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor. The level of which test result do you expect to be elevated on chemical analysis?
Ketones
The odor of the urine of a patient with uncontrolled diabetes is described as fruity because of the presence of ketones, which are the products of fat metabolism.
A medical assistant instructs a patient to collect a first morning specimen for which of the following tests?
Pregnancy testing Culture for bacteriuria Quantitative protein determination *All of the above First morning specimens are most concentrated and are best for nitrite and protein determination, bacterial culture, pregnancy testing, and microscopic examination.
Casts in a urine specimen develop in which part of the urinary tract?
Renal tubules
Casts are formed into the shape of the renal tubule where they developed.
If a urine specimen cannot be analyzed within 30 minutes, the best course of action is to:
refrigerate the specimen
Refrigeration is crucial to maintaining the quality of the urine specimen.
On chemical analysis, a urine specimen from a female with a urinary tract infection (UTI) most likely reveals _____ pH, _____ nitrite, and _____ leukocyte esterase.
increased; increased; increased
A UTI is indicated if the urine is more alkaline, bacteria have broken down nitrate into nitrite, and white blood cells (WBCs) are present.
When instructing a female patient on how to obtain a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen, you should tell her to use how many antiseptic towelettes?
Three
The patient should be instructed to wipe three times, each time with a clean towelette.
Physical assessment of a urine sample reveals clear, pale, straw-colored urine, with a sweet odor. Which pathologic condition might this suggest?
Diabetes mellitus
Glucose in the urine has a sweet odor.
A turbid urine sample means that the specimen is:
cloudy
Turbid means that the sample is cloudy and indicates the presence of particles in the urine.
A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?
Creatinine clearance rates
Twenty-four-hour urine specimens are collected for quantitative chemical analysis, such as determination of hormone levels and the creatinine clearance rate, a procedure for evaluating the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys.
Which of the following is not used to measure specific gravity?
Microscope
A microscope cannot determine the concentration of substances dissolved in the urine.
You are examining a patient’s urinalysis report. Which of the following factors is normal?
Color, light amber
Normal urine color is a shade of yellow, ranging from pale straw to yellow to amber.
A urine specimen is tested and shown to have a pH of 8.0. This value is:
Normal, freshly voided urine may have a pH range of 5.5 to 8.
The cell most likely seen in a normal specimen of urine is a:
squamous epithelial cell.
Squamous epithelial cells line the lower portion of the genitourinary tract and so would be seen most often in a normal specimen.
Which of the following is a tubular structure found in the urine and composed mainly of mucoprotein secreted by certain cells of the kidney?
A cast. A cast is formed when protein accumulates and precipitates in the kidney tubules and is washed into the urine. The protein takes on the size and shape of the tubules.
A urine pregnancy test result is positive:
from implantation of the fertilized egg through delivery
After implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus, the serum hCG level doubles every few days. Within 72 hours of delivery, the hormone disappears.
A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of the presence of which of the following?
Amorphous crystals
Crystals settle out of urine when the sample cools. The other products alter the appearance of the urine.
Polyuria may be caused by:
he excessive intake of fluids The consumption of caffeine Diabetes mellitus Taking a diuretic *All of the above
When performing a microscopic examination of urine, the presence of how many white blood cells/HPF is considered normal?
0 to 8
In the female, the urethra functions in:
Transporting urine
Which urinary structure or structures normally contain microorganisms?
Urinary meatus
Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has hepatitis?
Bilirubin
A 24-hour urine specimen may be collected to:
Determine the cause of kidney stone formation
Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has undiagnosed diabetes mellitus?
Glucose
When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the specimen to:
Flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra
When a patient has a urinary tract infection, all of the following tests may be positive EXCEPT:
Ketone bodies
The type of specimen that should be used to test for the presence of nitrite in the urine is a:
First-voided morning specimen
What is the term for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine?
Ketonuria
How should urine reagent strips be stored?
In a cool area In a dark container In a dry area With the cap tightly closed *All of the above
The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be:
Yellow-brown in color
After a urine culture has been inoculated, it must be:
Incubated for 18 to 24 hours
A urine culture is used in the diagnosis of:
A urinary tract infection
Which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient with candidiasis?
Yeast
Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system?
To regulate the temperature of the body
Casts are formed:
In the lumen of the nephron tubules
Which of the following tests require a clean-catch midstream specimen?
Urine culture
Which of the following test results indicates a concentrated urine specimen?
Specific gravity: 1.025
The function of the urinary bladder is to:
Store and expel urine
Which of the following represents an ERROR in technique when performing a urine pregnancy test?
*None of the above
A clean specimen container is used to collect the specimen
A first-voided morning specimen is used to run the test
The urine specimen is at room temperature
The specific gravity of the specimen is 1.020
What is included in a complete urinalysis?
A physical examination of urine
A chemical examination of urine
Microscopic examination of urine sediment
*All of the above
Why is a first-voided morning specimen preferred for performing a microscopic examination of urine?
It contains more dissolved substances
A urinalysis may be performed to:
Diagnose a pathological condition Treat a patient’s condition Screen a patient for the presence of disease Evaluate the effectiveness of therapy *All of the above
What odor would a urine specimen have that has been allowed to stand at room temperature for long time?
Ammonia
Which of the following represents an ERROR in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?
Touching the test areas with the fingers
Which of the following substances is normally present in urine?
Urea
What is the term for the functional unit of the kidney?
Nephron
When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a front-to-back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to:
Avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is:
Alkaline
Which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result?
500 mg/dl
When using the slide agglutination test, a positive pregnancy test is evidenced by:
The absence of agglutination
Blood may normally be present in the urine owing to:
Menstruation
The external opening of the urethra is known as the:
Urinary meatus
What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman?
Human chorionic gonadotropin
How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day?
750 to 2000 ml
Which of the following does NOT result in oliguria?
Edema
If a urine specimen is a light yellow color, this means that:
The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances
The pH of most urine specimens is:
Acidic
What occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature?
It becomes cloudy
What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells?
It causes them to shrink and become crenated
If a freshly voided specimen is cloudy, this means that:
A urinary tract infection may be present
Which of the following is an example of a CLIA waived test?
Urine pregnancy testing
Which of the following assists the physician in making a diagnosis?
Health history Physical examination Laboratory tests Diagnostic tests *All of the above
