Chapter 5 - Q & A

Question 1

During an examination, the nurse can assess mental status by which activity?

a. Examining the patient’s electroencephalogram
b. Observing the patient as he or she performs an intelligence quotient (IQ) test
c. Observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction
d. Examining the patient’s response to a specific set of questions

Answer 1

ANS: C

Mental status cannot be directly scrutinized like the characteristics of skin or heart sounds. Its functioning is inferred through an assessment of an individual’s behaviors, such as consciousness, language, mood and affect, and other aspects. Mental status cannot be directly scrutinized through tests such as an electroencephalogram, intelligence quotient (IQ) test, or responses to questions. Instead, the functioning of mental status is inferred through an assessment of an individual’s behaviors, such as consciousness, language, mood and affect, and other aspects.

Question 2

The nurse is assessing the mental status of a child. Which statement about children and mental status is true?

a. All aspects of mental status in children are interdependent.
b. Children are highly labile and unstable until the age of 2 years.
c. A child’s mental status is impossible to assess until the child develops the ability to concentrate.
d. Children’s mental status is largely a function of their parents’ level of functioning until the age of 7 years.

Answer 2

ANS: A

It is difficult to separate and trace the development of just one aspect of mental status. All aspects are interdependent. For example, consciousness is rudimentary at birth because the cerebral cortex is not yet developed. The infant cannot distinguish the self from the mother’s body. The other statements are not true. Options B, C, and D are all false statements. It is difficult to separate and trace the development of just one aspect of mental status. All aspects are interdependent. For example, consciousness is rudimentary at birth because the cerebral cortex is not yet developed. The infant cannot distinguish the self from the mother’s body.

Question 3

The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. What should the nurse expect when performing the mental status portion of the
assessment?

a. Will have no decrease in any of his abilities, including response time.
b. Will have difficulty on tests of remote memory because this ability typically decreases with age.
c. May take a little longer to respond, but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined.
d. Will exhibit a decrease in his response time because of the loss of language and a decrease in general knowledge.

Answer 3

ANS: C

The aging process leaves the parameters of mental status mostly intact. General knowledge does not decrease, and little or no loss in vocabulary occurs. Response time is slower than in a youth. It takes a little longer for the brain to process information and to react to it. Recent memory, which requires some processing, is somewhat decreased with aging, but remote memory is not affected.

Question 4

When assessing aging adults, what is one of the first things the nurse should assess before making judgments about the aging person’s mental status?

a. Presence of phobias
b. General intelligence
c. Sensory-perceptive abilities
d. Presence of irrational thinking patterns

Answer 4

ANS: C

Presence of phobias, general intelligence, and presence of irrational thinking patterns are not one of the first things a nurse should assess before making a judgment about an aging person’s mental status. Age-related changes in sensory perception can affect mental status. For example, vision loss (as detailed in Chapter 14) may result in apathy, social isolation, and depression. Hearing changes are common in older adults, which produce frustration, suspicion, and social isolation and make the person appear confused.

Question 5

The nurse is preparing to conduct a mental status examination. Which statement is true regarding the mental status examination?

a. A patient’s family is the best resource for information about the patient’s coping skills.
b. Gathering mental status information during the health history interview is usually sufficient.
c. Integrating the mental status examination into the health history interview takes an enormous amount of extra time.
d. To get a good idea of the patient’s level of functioning, performing a complete mental status examination is usually necessary.

Answer 5

ANS: B

The full mental status examination is a systematic check of emotional and cognitive functioning. The steps described, however, rarely need to be taken in their entirety. Usually, one can assess mental status through the context of the health history interview. A patient’s family is not the best resource for information about the patient’s coping skills. The nurse can gain ample data to assess mental health and coping skills during the health history with the mental health examination integrated into it.

Question 6

A woman brings her husband to the clinic for an examination. She is particularly worried because, after a recent fall, he seems to have lost a great deal of his memory of recent events. Which statement reflects the nurse’s best course of action?

a. Perform a complete mental status examination.
b. Refer him to a psychometrician.
c. Plan to integrate the mental status examination into the history and physical
examination.
d. Reassure his wife that memory loss after a physical shock is normal and will soon
subside.

Answer 6

ANS: A

Performing a complete mental status examination is necessary when any abnormality in affect or behavior is discovered or when family members are concerned about a person’s behavioral changes (e.g., memory loss, inappropriate social interaction) or after trauma, such as a head injury.

Question 7

The nurse is conducting a patient interview. Which statement made by the patient should the nurse more fully explore to assess the mental status during the interview?

a. “I sleep like a baby.”
b. “I have no health problems.”
c. “I never did too good in school.”
d. “I am not currently taking any medications.”

Answer 7

ANS: C

In every mental status examination, the following factors from the health history that could affect the findings should be noted: any known illnesses or health problems, such as alcoholism or chronic renal disease; current medications, the side effects of which may
cause confusion or depression; the usual educational and behavioral level, noting this level as the patient’s normal baseline and not expecting a level of performance on the mental status examination to exceed it; and responses to personal history questions,
indicating current stress, social interaction patterns, and sleep habits. A patient stating that he/she sleeps like a baby, has no health problems, or is currently not taking any medications are not r/t the patient’s mental status.

Question 8

A patient is admitted to the unit after an automobile accident. The nurse begins the mental status examination and finds that the patient has dysarthric speech and is lethargic. How should the nurse proceed?

a. Defer the rest of the mental status examination.
b. Skip the language portion of the examination and proceed onto assessing mood and affect.
c. Conduct an in-depth speech evaluation and defer the mental status examination to another time.
d. Proceed with the examination and assess the patient for suicidal thoughts because dysarthria is often accompanied by severe depression.

Answer 8

ANS: A

In the mental status examination, the sequence of steps forms a hierarchy in which the most basic functions (consciousness, language) are assessed first. The first steps must be accurately assessed to ensure validity of the steps that follow. For example, if consciousness is clouded, then the person cannot be expected to have full attention and to cooperate with new learning. If language is impaired, then a subsequent assessment of new learning or abstract reasoning (anything that requires language functioning) can give erroneous conclusions. Dysarthric speech and lethargy are signs of altered consciousness and answers to questions on the
mental status examination may be invalid. The nurse should not proceed with any further part of the mental status examination at this time.

Question 9

A 19-year-old woman comes to the clinic at the insistence of her brother. She is wearing black combat boots and a black lace nightgown over the top of her other clothes. Her hair is dyed pink with black streaks throughout. She has several pierced holes in her nares and ears and is wearing an earring through her eyebrow and heavy black makeup. Which is an appropriate conclusion for the nurse draw?

a. She probably does not have any problems.
b. She is only trying to shock people and that her dress should be ignored.
c. She has a manic syndrome because of her abnormal dress and grooming.
d. More information should be gathered to decide whether her dress is appropriate.

Answer 9

ANS: D

Grooming and hygiene should be noted—the person is clean and well-groomed, hair is neat and clean, women have moderate or no makeup, and men are shaved or their beards or mustaches are well-groomed. Care should be taken when interpreting clothing that is disheveled, bizarre, or in poor repair because these sometimes reflect the person’s economic status or a deliberate fashion trend.

Question 10

A patient has been in the intensive care unit for 10 days. He has just been moved to the medical-surgical unit, and the admitting nurse is planning to perform a mental status examination. What should the nurse expect during this patient’s tests of cognitive function?

a. May display some disruption in thought content.
b. Will state, “I am so relieved to be out of intensive care.”
c. Will be oriented to place and person, but the patient may not be certain of the date.
d. May show evidence of some clouding of his level of consciousness.

Answer 10

ANS: C

The nurse can discern the orientation of cognitive function through the course of the interview or can directly and tactfully ask, “Some people have trouble keeping up with the dates while in the hospital. Do you know today’s date?” Many hospitalized people have trouble with the exact date but are fully oriented on the remaining items.

Question 11

During a mental status examination, the nurse wants to assess a patient’s affect. Which question the nurse should ask?

a. “How do you feel today?”
b. “Would you please repeat the following words?”
c. “Have these medications had any effect on your pain?”
d. “Has this pain affected your ability to get dressed by yourself?”

Answer 11

ANS: A

Mood and affect should be judged by observing body language and facial expression and by directly asking, “How do you feel today?” or “How do you usually feel?” The mood should be appropriate to the person’s place and condition and should appropriately change with the topics. Options B, C, and D do not assess affect.

Question 12

The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. Which is the best way for the nurse to do this?

a. Administer the FACT test.
b. Ask him to describe his first job.
c. Give him the Four Unrelated Words Test.
d. Ask him to describe what television show he was watching before coming to the clinic.

Answer 12

ANS: C

To assess new memory, the nurse should ask questions that can be corroborated, which screens for the occasional person who confabulates or makes up answers to fill in the gaps of memory loss. The Four Unrelated Words Test tests the person’s ability to lay down new memories and is a highly sensitive and valid memory test. The FACT test, describing his first job, or describing the television show he was watching before coming to the clinic, does not test new memory.

Question 13

A 45-year-old woman is at the clinic for a mental status assessment. Which describes the expecting findings on the Four Unrelated Words Test?

a. Invents four unrelated words within 5 minutes
b. Invents four unrelated words within 30 seconds
c. Recalls four unrelated words after a 30-minute delay
d. Recalls four unrelated words after a 60-minute delay

Answer 13

ANS: C

The Four Unrelated Words Test tests the person’s ability to lay down new memories. It is a highly sensitive and valid memory test. It requires more effort than the recall of personal or historic events. To the person say, “I am going to say four words. I want you to remember them. In a few minutes I will ask you to recall them.” After 5 minutes, ask for the four words. The normal response for people under 60 years is an accurate three- or four-word recall after a 5-, 10-, and 30-minute delay.

Question 14

During a mental status assessment, which question by the nurse would best assess a person’s judgment?

a. “Do you feel that you are being watched, followed, or controlled?”
b. “Tell me what you plan to do once you are discharged from the hospital.”
c. “What does the statement, ‘People in glass houses shouldn’t throw stones,’ mean to you?”
d. “What would you do if you found a stamped, addressed envelope lying on the sidewalk?”

Answer 14

ANS: B

A person exercises judgment when he or she can compare and evaluate the alternatives in a situation and reach an appropriate course of action. Rather than testing the person’s response to a hypothetical situation (as illustrated in the option with the envelope), the nurse should be more interested in the person’s judgment about daily or long-term goals, the likelihood of acting in
response to delusions or hallucinations, and the capacity for violent or suicidal behavior.

Question 15

Which of these individuals would the nurse consider at the highest risk for a suicide attempt?

a. Man who jokes about death
b. Woman who, during a past episode of major depression, attempted suicide
c. Adolescent who just broke up with her boyfriend and states that she would like to kill herself
d. Older adult man who tells the nurse that he is going to “join his wife in heaven” tomorrow and plans to use a gun

Answer 15

ANS: D

When the person expresses feelings of sadness, hopelessness, despair, or grief, assessing any possible risk for physical harm to him or herself is important. The interview should begin with more general questions. If the nurse hears affirmative answers, then he or she should continue with more specific questions. A precise suicide plan to take place in the next 24 to 48 hours with use of a lethal method constitutes a high risk.

Question 16

The nurse is assessing orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses would lead the nurse to conclude that this patient is oriented?

a. “I know my name is John. I couldn’t tell you where I am. I think it is 2010, though.”
b. “I know my name is John, but to tell you the truth, I get kind of confused about the date.”
c. “I know my name is John; I guess I’m at the hospital in Spokane. No, I don’t know the date.”
d. “I know my name is John. I am at the hospital in Spokane. I couldn’t tell you what date it is, but I know that it is February of a new year—2010.”

Answer 16

ANS: D

Many aging people experience social isolation, loss of structure without a job, a change in residence, or some short-term memory loss. These factors affect orientation, and the person may not provide the precise date or complete name of the agency. You may consider aging people oriented if they generally know where they are and the present period. They should be considered oriented to time if the year and month are correctly stated. Orientation to place is accepted with the correct identification of the type of setting
(e.g., hospital) and the name of the town.

Question 17

The nurse is performing the Denver II screening test on
a 12-month-old infant during a routine well-child visit. What should the nurse tell the infant’s parents about the Denver II screening test?

a. Tests three areas of development: cognitive, physical, and psychological
b. Will indicate whether the child has a speech disorder so that treatment can begin
c. Is a screening instrument designed to detect children who are slow in development
d. Is a test to determine intellectual ability and may indicate whether problems will develop later in school

Answer 17

ANS: C

The Denver II is a screening instrument designed to detect developmental delays in infants and preschoolers. It tests four functions: gross motor, language, fine motor-adaptive, and personal-social. The Denver II is not an intelligence test; it does not predict current or future intellectual ability. It is not diagnostic; it does not suggest treatment regimens. The Denver II does not asses cognitive, physical, and psychological domains; is not an intelligence test and it does not predict current or future intellectual ability; and does not diagnose speech disorders or suggest treatment regimens.

Question 18

A patient drifts off to sleep when she is not being stimulated. The nurse can easily arouse her by calling her name, but the patient remains drowsy during the conversation. What is the best description of this patient’s level of consciousness?

a. Lethargic
b. Obtunded
c. Stuporous
d. Semi-coma

Answer 18

ANS: A

The term lethargic best describes a patient who drifts off to sleep when not being stimulated, can easily be aroused by calling his or her name, but remains drowsy during conversation. Lethargic (or somnolent) is when the person is not fully alert, drifts off to sleep
when not stimulated, and can be aroused when called by name in a normal voice but looks drowsy. He or she appropriately responds to questions or commands, but thinking seems slow and fuzzy. He or she is inattentive and loses the train of thought.
Spontaneous movements are decreased. Obtunded is a transitional state between lethargy and stupor. Stuporous and semi-coma
have the same meaning which is unconscious and responding only to persistent or vigorous shaking or pain.

Question 19

A patient has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). He is trying very hard to communicate. He seems driven to speak and says, “I buy obie get spirding and take my train.” What is the best description of this patient’s problem?

a. Echolalia
b. Global aphasia
c. Broca’s aphasia
d. Wernicke’s aphasia

Answer 19

ANS: D

This type of communication illustrates Wernicke’s or receptive aphasia. The person can hear sounds and words but cannot relate them to previous experiences. Speech is fluent, effortless, and well-articulated, but it has many paraphasias (word substitutions that
are malformed or wrong) and neologisms (made-up words) and often lacks substantive words. Speech can be totally incomprehensible. Often, a great urge to speak is present. Repetition, reading, and writing also are impaired. Echolalia is an imitation or the repetition of another person’s words or phrases. With global aphasia, spontaneous speech is absent or reduced to a
few stereotyped words or sounds and comprehension is absent or reduced to only a person’s own name and a few select words. With Broca’s aphasia the person can understand language but cannot express himself using words or language.

Question 20

A patient repeatedly seems to have difficulty coming up with a word. He says, “I was on my way to work, and when I got there, the thing that you step into that goes up in the air was so full that I decided to take the stairs.” How should the nurse record this on his chart?

a. Blocking
b. Neologism
c. Circumlocution
d. Circumstantiality

Answer 20

ANS: C

Circumlocution is a roundabout expression, substituting a phrase when one cannot think of the name of the object. The statement in the question is not an example of blocking, neologism, or circumstantiality. Blocking is when a person experiences sudden interruption in train of thought and unable to complete sentences which seems r/t strong emotion. Neologism involves coining a
new word which is inventing or making up words that have no real meaning except for the person. Circumstantiality is when a person talks excessively with unnecessary detail and delays reaching the point. Their sentences have a meaningful connection but are irrelevant. The statement in the question is an example of circumlocution which is a roundabout expression, substituting a phrase when one cannot think of the name of the object.

Question 21

During an examination, the nurse notes that a patient is exhibiting flight of ideas. Which statement by the patient is an example of flight of ideas?

a. “My stomach hurts. Hurts, spurts, burts.”
b. “Kiss, wood, reading, ducks, onto, maybe.”
c. “I wash my hands, wash them, wash them. I usually go to the sink and wash my hands.”
d. “Take this pill? The pill is red. I see red. Red velvet is soft, soft as a baby’s bottom.”

Answer 21

ANS: D

Flight of ideas is demonstrated by an abrupt change, rapid skipping from topic to topic, and practically continuous flow of accelerated speech. Topics usually have recognizable associations or are plays on words. Options A, B, and C are not examples of a flight of ideas that have an association.

Question 22

A patient describes feeling an unreasonable, irrational fear of snakes. His fear is so persistent that he can no longer comfortably look at even pictures of snakes and has made an effort to identify all the places he might encounter a snake and avoids them. What is the best description of this patient’s condition?

a. A snake phobia
b. A hypochondriac
c. An obsession with snakes
d. A delusion that snakes are harmfully stemming from an early traumatic incident involving snakes

Answer 22

ANS: A

This is an example of a phobia. A phobia is a strong, persistent, irrational fear of an object or situation; the person feels driven to avoid it. The situation in the question is not an example of hypochondria, an obsession, or a delusion. A hypochondriac is a person
who is morbidly worried about his/her own health and/or feels sick with no actual basis for that assumption. An obsession is an unwanted, persistent thought or impulse in which logic will not purge him/her from his/her consciousness and is intrusive and
senseless. A delusion is a firm, fixed, false belief that is irrational and that a person clings to despite objective evidence to the contrary. Instead, the situation in the question is an example of a phobia. A phobia is a strong, persistent, irrational fear of an object
or situation; the person feels driven to avoid it.

Question 23

During a recent interview, a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia shows the nurse a picture of a man holding a decapitated head. He describes this picture as horrifying but then laughs loudly at the content. What is the best description of this behavior?

a. Confusion
b. Ambivalence
c. Depersonalization
d. Inappropriate affect

Answer 23

ANS: D

This is an example of inappropriate affect. An inappropriate affect is an affect clearly discordant with the content of the person’s speech. The patient’s behavior is not an example of confusion, ambivalence, or depersonalization. Confusion is a disturbance of consciousness characterized by inability to engage in orderly thought or by lack of power to distinguish, choose, or act decisively. Ambivalence is the existence of opposing emotions toward an idea, object, or person. Depersonalization is a loss of identity, feeling of being estranged, or perplexed about one’s own identity and meaning of existence. The example in the question demonstrates inappropriate affect. An inappropriate affect is an affect clearly discordant with the content of the person’s speech.

Question 24

During change of shift report, the nurse hears that a patient is experiencing hallucinations. Which is an example of a hallucination?

a. Man believes that his dead wife is talking to him.
b. Woman hears the doorbell ring and goes to answer it, but no one is there.
c. Child sees a man standing in his closet. When the lights are turned on, it is only a dry cleaning bag.
d. Man believes that the dog has curled up on the bed, but when he gets closer he sees that it is a blanket.

Answer 24

ANS: A

Hallucinations are sensory perceptions for which no external stimuli exist. They may strike any sense: visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, or gustatory.

Question 25

A 20-year-old construction worker has been brought into the emergency department with heat stroke. He has delirium as a result of a fluid and electrolyte imbalance. When conducting the mental status examination for this patient, what should the nurse assess first?

a. Affect and mood
b. Memory and affect
c. Cognitive abilities
d. Level of consciousness

Answer 25

ANS: D

The sequence of steps for a mental status examination forms a hierarchy in which the most basic functions (consciousness, language) are assessed first. The first steps must be assessed accurately to ensure validity for the steps that follow (i.e., if consciousness is clouded, the person cannot be expected to have full attention and to answer accurately or cooperate with new
learning).

Question 26

A 26-year-old woman was robbed and beaten a month ago. She is returning to the clinic today for a follow-up assessment. The nurse will want to ask her which of these questions?

a. “How are things going with the trial?”
b. “How are things going with your job?”
c. “Tell me about your recent engagement!”
d. “Are you having any disturbing dreams?”

Answer 26

ANS: D

Following a traumatic event outside the range of usual human experience that involves actual or threatened death or violence, such as rape, many people experience posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). One of the symptoms of PTSD is sleep problems. With
PTSD the person relieves the trauma many times, intrusively and unwillingly. The same feelings of helplessness, fear, or horror recur. Avoidance of any trigger associated with the trauma occurs, and the person has hypervigilance, sleep problems, and
difficulty concentrating, leading to feelings of being permanently damaged. The nurse should assess for symptoms of PTSD and options A, B, and C do not assess for those symptoms.

Question 27

The nurse is performing a mental status examination. Which statement is true regarding the assessment of mental status?

a. Mental status assessment diagnoses specific psychiatric disorders.
b. Mental disorders occur in response to everyday life stressors.
c. Mental status functioning is inferred through the assessment of an individual’s behaviors.
d. Mental status can be directly assessed, similar to other systems of the body (e.g., heart sounds, breath sounds).

Answer 27

ANS: C

Mental status functioning is inferred through the assessment of an individual’s behaviors. It cannot be directly assessed like the characteristics of the skin or heart sounds.

Question 28

A 23-year-old patient in the clinic appears anxious. Her speech is rapid, and she is fidgety and in constant motion. Which of these questions or statements would be most appropriate for the nurse to use in this situation?

a. “How do you usually feel? Is this normal behavior for you?”
b. “I am going to say four words. In a few minutes, I will ask you to recall them.”
c. “Describe the meaning of the phrase, ‘Looking through rose-colored glasses.’”
d. “Pick up the pencil in your left hand, move it to your right hand, and place it on
the table.”

Answer 28

ANS: D

This patient appears to have symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) (restless, fidgeting, excess talking). The nurse should assess the patient’s attention span. Attention span is evaluated by assessing the individual’s ability to concentrate and complete a thought or task without wandering. Giving a series of directions to follow is one method used to assess attention span. Options A, B, and C do not assess attention span.

Question 29

The nurse is planning health teaching for a 65-year-old woman who has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and has aphasia. Which of these questions is most important to use when assessing the mental status of this patient?

a. “Please count backward from 100 by 7.”
b. “I will name three items and ask you to repeat them in a few minutes.”
c. “Please point to articles in the room and parts of the body as I name them.”
d. “What would you do if you found a stamped, addressed envelope on the sidewalk?”

Answer 29

ANS: C

Additional tests for people with aphasia include word comprehension (asking the individual to point to articles in the room or parts of the body), reading (asking the person to read available print), and writing (asking the person to make up and write a sentence). Aphasia is a disorder of language comprehension. To assess the mental status of a patient with aphasia, the nurse should ask questions to assess her comprehension. The other options do not assess a person’s comprehension.

Question 30

A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the nurse’s best response in this situation?

a. “Do you have a weapon?”
b. “How do other people treat you?”
c. “Are you feeling so hopeless that you feel like hurting yourself now?”
d. “People often feel hopeless, but the feelings resolve within a few weeks.”

Answer 30

ANS: C

When the person expresses feelings of hopelessness, despair, or grief, assessing the risk for physical harm to him or herself is important. This process begins with more general questions. If the answers are affirmative, then the assessment continues with
more specific questions.

Question 31

The nurse is providing instructions to newly hired graduates for the mini–mental state examination (MMSE). Which statement best describes this examination?

a. Scores below 30 indicate cognitive impairment.
b. The MMSE is a good tool to evaluate mood and thought processes.
c. This examination is a good tool to detect delirium and dementia and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness.
d. The MMSE is a useful tool for an initial evaluation of mental status. Additional tools are needed to evaluate cognition changes over time.

Answer 31

ANS: C

The MMSE is a quick, easy test of 11 questions and is used for initial and serial evaluations and can demonstrate a worsening or an improvement of cognition over time and with treatment. It evaluates cognitive functioning, not mood or thought processes. MMSE is a good screening tool to detect dementia and delirium and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness.

Question 32

The nurse discovers speech problems in a patient during an assessment. The patient has spontaneous speech, but it is mostly absent or is reduced to a few stereotypical words or sounds. This finding reflects which type of aphasia?

a. Global
b. Broca’s
c. Dysphonic
d. Wernicke’s

Answer 32

ANS: A

Global aphasia is the most common and severe form of aphasia. Spontaneous speech is absent or reduced to a few stereotyped words or sounds, and prognosis for language recovery is poor. Dysphonic aphasia is not a valid condition. The description of the patient in the question does not describe Broca’s or Wernicke’s aphasia. With Broca’s aphasia the person can understand language but cannot express himself using words or language. With Wernicke’s or receptive aphasia the person can hear sounds and words but cannot relate them to previous experiences. Speech is fluent, effortless, and well-articulated, but it has many paraphasias (word substitutions that are malformed or wrong) and neologisms (made-up words) and often lacks substantive words. Speech can be totally incomprehensible. Often, a great urge to speak is present. Repetition, reading, and writing also are impaired. Dysphonic aphasia is not a valid condition.

Question 33

A patient repeats, “I feel hot. Hot, cot, rot, tot, got. I’m a spot.” What term should the nurse use to document this?

a. Blocking
b. Clanging
c. Echolalia
d. Neologism

Answer 33

ANS: B

Clanging is word choice based on sound, not meaning, and includes nonsense rhymes and puns. This is not an example of blocking, echolalia, or neologism. Blocking is when a person experiences sudden interruption in train of thought and unable to complete sentences which seems r/t strong emotion. Echolalia is an imitation or the repetition of another person’s words or phrases.
Neologism involves coining a new word, which is inventing or making up words that have no real meaning except for the person. The statement in the question is an example of clanging.

Question 34

During an interview, the nurse notes that the patient gets up several times to wash her hands even though they are not dirty. This is an example of what behavior?

a. Social phobia
b. Compulsive disorder
c. Generalized anxiety disorder
d. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Answer 34

ANS: B

Repetitive ritualistic actions, such as handwashing, that a person feels driven to perform are compulsions. These behaviors are done to decrease anxiety and prevent a catastrophe (e.g. contamination [fear of germs], violence, perfectionism, and superstitions). A social phobia is a persistent and irrational fear of being in social situations. Generalized anxiety disorder is a pattern of excessive
worrying and morbid fear about anticipated “disasters” in the job, personal relationships, health, or finances. With PSTD the person relieves the trauma many times, intrusively and unwillingly. The same feelings of helplessness, fear, or horror recur. Avoidance of
any trigger associated with the trauma occurs, and the person has hypervigilance, sleep problems, and difficulty concentrating, leading to feelings of being permanently damaged. The repetitive behavior of handwashing in this question is a behavior
characteristic of compulsive disorder. People with compulsive disorder feel driven to perform repetitive, ritualistic actions in an attempt to decrease anxiety and prevent a catastrophe (e.g. contamination [fear of germs], violence, perfectionism, and
superstitions.

Question 35

The nurse is administering a Mini-Cog test to an older adult woman. When asked to draw a clock showing the time of 10:45, the patient drew a clock with the numbers out of order and with an incorrect time. This result indicates which finding?

a. Amnesia
b. Delirium
c. Cognitive impairment
d. Attention-deficit disorder

Answer 35

ANS: C

The Mini-Cog is a newer instrument that screens for cognitive impairment, often found with dementia. The result of an abnormal drawing of a clock and time indicates a cognitive impairment.

Question 36

During morning rounds, the nurse asks a patient, “How are you today?” The patient responds, “You today, you today, you today!” and mumbles the words. This is an example of which speech pattern?

a. Echolalia
b. Clanging
c. Word salad
d. Perseveration

Answer 36

ANS: A

Echolalia occurs when a person imitates or repeats another’s words or phrases, often with a mumbling, mocking, or a mechanical tone. Clanging is word choice based on sound, not meaning, and includes nonsense rhymes and puns. Word salad is an incoherent mixture of words, phrases, and sentences. Perseveration is the persistent repeating of verbal or motor response, even with varied stimuli. The statements in this question describe echolalia.

Question 37

1. The nurse is assessing a patient who is admitted with possible delirium. Which of these are manifestations of delirium? (Select all that apply.)

a. Person experiences agnosia.
b. Person demonstrates apraxia.
c. Develops over a short period
d. Person exhibits memory impairment or deficits.
e. Occurs as a result of a medical condition, such as systemic infection

Answer 37

ANS: C, D, E

Delirium is a disturbance of consciousness that develops over a short period and may be attributable to a medical condition. Memory deficits may also occur. Apraxia and agnosia occur with dementia. Agnosia and apraxia are not symptoms of delirium.