Chapter 13 - Q & A

Question 1

The nurse educator is preparing an education module on skin, hair, and nails for the nursing staff. Which of these statements about the epidermal layer of the skin should be included in the module?

a. Highly vascular
b. Thick and tough
c. Thin and nonstratified
d. Replaced every 4 weeks

Answer 1

ANS: D

The epidermis is thin yet tough, replaced every 4 weeks, avascular, and stratified into several zones. The epidermis is avascular, not highly vascular; thin and tough, not thick; and stratified into several zones, not nonstratified. The epidermis is also replaced every 4 weeks.

Question 2

The nurse educator is preparing an education module on skin, hair, and nails for the nursing staff. Which of these statements about the dermal layer of the skin should be included in the module?

a. Contains mostly fat cells
b. Consists mostly of keratin
c. Is replaced every 4 weeks
d. Contains sensory receptors

Answer 2

ANS: D

The dermis consists mostly of collagen, has resilient elastic tissue that allows the skin to stretch, and contains nerves, sensory
receptors, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. It is not replaced every 4 weeks. The dermal layer consists mostly of collagen, not
fat or keratin cells and is not replaced every 4 weeks. The dermis has resilient elastic tissue that allows the skin to stretch, and
contains nerves, sensory receptors, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels.

Question 3

The nurse is examining a patient who tells the nurse, “I sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor.”
The nurse knows that this is likely r/t a disorder with what part of the body?

a. Eccrine glands
b. Apocrine glands
c. Disorder of the stratum corneum
d. Disorder of the stratum germinativum

Answer 3

ANS: A

The eccrine glands are coiled tubules that directly open onto the skin surface and produce a dilute saline solution called sweat.
Apocrine glands are primarily located in the axillae, anogenital area, nipples, and naval area and mix with bacterial flora to produce
the characteristic musky body odor. The patient’s statement is not r/t disorders of the stratum corneum or the stratum
germinativum. Apocrine glands are primarily located in the axillae, anogenital area, nipples, and naval area and mix with bacterial
flora to produce the characteristic musky body odor. The part of the body that produces sweat are the eccrine glands.

Question 4

A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby checkup. The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of
which of these factors?

a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the newborn.
b. Sebaceous glands are overproductive in the newborn.
c. The newborn’s skin is more permeable than that of the adult.
d. The amount of vernix caseosa dramatically rises in the newborn.

Answer 4

ANS: C

The newborn’s skin is thin, smooth, and elastic and is relatively more permeable than that of the adult; consequently, the infant is at
greater risk for fluid loss. The subcutaneous layer in the infant is inefficient, not thick, and the sebaceous glands are present but
decrease in size and production. Vernix caseosa is not produced after birth. The subcutaneous layer in the infant is inefficient, not
thick, and the sebaceous glands are present but decrease in size and production. Infants are at greater risk for fluid loss because the
newborn’s skin is thin, smooth, and elastic and is relatively more permeable than that of the adult.

Question 5

The nurse is bathing an 80-year-old man and notices that his skin is wrinkled, thin, lax, and dry. This finding would be r/t which factor in the older adult?

a. Increased vascularity of the skin
b. Increased numbers of sweat and sebaceous glands
c. An increase in elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat
d. An increased loss of elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat

Answer 5

ANS: D

An accumulation of factors place the aging person at risk for skin disease and breakdown: the thinning of the skin, a decrease in
vascularity and nutrients, the loss of protective cushioning of the subcutaneous layer, a lifetime of environmental trauma to skin, the social changes of aging, an increasingly sedentary lifestyle, and the chance of immobility. With aging there is a decrease in the
vascularity, number of sweat and sebaceous glands, and elastin not an increase.

Question 6

During the aging process, the hair can look gray or white and begin to feel thin and fine. What should the nurse understand causes
this?

a. Increased adipose tissue
b. Increase in the vascularity of the scalp
c. Decrease in the number of functioning phagocytes
d. Decrease in the number of functioning melanocytes

Answer 6

ANS: D
In the aging hair matrix, the number of functioning melanocytes decreases; as a result, the hair looks gray or white and feels thin and fine. The other options are not correct. Adipose tissue does not affect the color or texture of the hair and does not increase with aging, but decreases. Vascularity of the skin, including the scalp, decreases with aging, not increases. Phagocytes are cells that help protect the body from foreign microorganisms. What does cause the hair to look gray or white and feel thin and fine in the aging hair matrix is a decrease in the number of functioning melanocytes in the hair matrix that occurs with aging.

Question 7

During an examination, the nurse finds that a patient has excessive dryness of the skin. How should the nurse document this
finding?
a. Xerosis
b. Pruritus
c. Alopecia
d. Seborrhea

Answer 7

ANS: A

Xerosis is the term used to describe skin that is excessively dry. Pruritus refers to itching, alopecia refers to hair loss, and seborrhea refers to oily skin. Pruritus refers to itching, alopecia refers to hair loss, and seborrhea refers to oily skin. Xerosis is the term used to describe skin that is excessively dry.

Question 8

A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of severe sunburn and states, “I was out in the sun for just a couple of minutes.” The nurse begins a medication review with her, paying special attention to which medication class?

a. Tetracyclines for acne
b. Proton pump inhibitors for heartburn
c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain
d. Thyroid replacement hormone for hypothyroidism

Answer 8

ANS: A

Drugs that may increase sunlight sensitivity and give a burn response include sulfonamides, thiazide diuretics, oral hypoglycemic
agents, and tetracycline. Proton pump inhibitors, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and thyroid replacement hormone are not
associated with skin sensitivities or sunburn.

Question 9

A woman is leaving on a trip to Hawaii and has come in for a checkup. During the examination the nurse learns that she has diabetes and is prescribed oral hypoglycemic agents. What should the nurse include in this patient’s teaching?

a. Increased possibility of bruising
b. Importance of sunscreen and avoiding direct sunlight
c. Lack of availability of glucose-monitoring equipment
d. Skin sensitivity as a result of exposure to salt water

Answer 9

ANS: B

Oral hypoglycemic agents may increase sunlight sensitivity and could result in sunburn. Other drugs that increase sunlight
sensitivity include sulfonamides, thiazide diuretics, and tetracycline. Oral hypoglycemic agents are not associated with increased bruising. Glucose-monitoring equipment is readily available in retail stores. Exposure to salt water does not typically cause skin sensitivity. However, oral hypoglycemic agents and other drugs such as sulfonamides, thiazide diuretics, and tetracycline may increase sunlight sensitivity and cause sunburn.

Question 10

A 13-year-old girl is interested in obtaining information about the cause of her acne. What should the nurse include in the
information about acne?

a. It is contagious.
b. It has no known cause.
c. It is caused by increased sebum production.
d. It has been found to be r/t poor hygiene

Answer 10

ANS: C

Approximately 90% of males and 80% of females will develop acne; causes are increased sebum production and epithelial cells that do not desquamate normally. Acne is not contagious or r/t poor hygiene. The cause is not unknown, but is caused by increased sebum production and epithelial cells that do not desquamate normally.

Question 11

A 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease has been trying to remove a corn on the bottom
of her foot with a pair of scissors. Why is it important that the nurse encourage her to stop trying to remove the corn with scissors?

a. The woman could be at increased risk for infection and lesions because of her
chronic disease.
b. With her diabetes, she has increased circulation to her foot, and it could cause
severe bleeding.
c. She is 75 years old and is unable to see; consequently, she places herself at
greater risk for self-injury with the scissors.
d. With her peripheral vascular disease, her range of motion is limited and she may not be able to reach the corn safely.

Answer 11

ANS: A

A personal history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease increases a person’s risk for skin lesions in the feet or ankles. The patient needs to seek a professional for assistance with corn removal. Diabetes does not cause increased circulation to the feet; instead, it often results in decreased circulation. Although this older adult may have vision problems and decreased range of motion
that could result in self-injury, those are not the best options.

Question 12

The nurse keeps in mind that a thorough skin assessment is extremely important. What can the skin provide important information
about?

a. Support systems
b. Circulatory status
c. Socioeconomic status
d. Psychological wellness

Answer 12

ANS: B

The skin holds information about the body’s circulation, nutritional status, and signs of systemic diseases, as well as topical data on the integumentary system itself. Assessment of the skin does not typically provide information on support systems, socioeconomic status, or psychological wellness.

Question 13

A patient comes in for a physical examination in late July and states that she was “freezing to death” while waiting for her
examination. The nurse notes that her skin is pale and cool. What should the nurse understand is the likely cause?

a. Venous pooling
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Peripheral vasoconstriction
d. Decreased arterial perfusion

Answer 13

ANS: C

A chilly or air-conditioned environment causes vasoconstriction, which results in false pallor and coolness. Venous pooling and peripheral vasodilation do not cause pale or cool skin. Although decreased arterial perfusion can cause pale, cool skin, it is usually
in the distal lower extremities and not generalized feeling cold.

Question 14

A patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that he has been confined to his recliner chair for approximately 3 days with his
feet down and he asks the nurse to evaluate his feet. What should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?

a. Pallor
b. Coolness
c. Distended veins
d. Prolonged capillary filling time

Answer 14

ANS: C

Keeping the feet in a dependent position causes venous pooling, resulting in redness, warmth, and distended veins. Prolonged
elevation would cause pallor and coolness. Immobilization or prolonged inactivity would cause prolonged capillary filling time.

Question 15

A patient is especially worried about an area of skin on her feet that has turned white. The health care provider has told her that her condition is vitiligo. What should the nurse include in the teaching of vitiligo?

a. It is associated with an excess of melanin pigment.
b. It is a result of excess apocrine glands in her feet.
c. It is caused by the complete absence of melanin pigment in an area.
d. It is r/t impetigo and can be treated with a prescription ointment.

Answer 15

ANS: C

Vitiligo is the complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas of white or light skin on the face, neck, hands, feet, body folds, and around orifices—otherwise, the depigmented skin is normal.

Question 16

A patient tells the nurse that he has noticed that one of his moles has started to burn and bleed. When assessing his skin, the nurse pays special attention to the danger signs for pigmented lesions and is concerned with which additional finding?

a. Color variation
b. Border regularity
c. Symmetry of lesions
d. Diameter of less than 6 mm

Answer 16

ANS: A

Abnormal characteristics of pigmented lesions are summarized in the mnemonic ABCD: asymmetry of pigmented lesion, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter greater than 6 mm.

Question 17

A patient comes to the clinic and states that he has noticed that his skin is redder than normal. The nurse understands that this
condition is erythema. What is the likely cause?

a. Decreased amounts of bilirubin in the blood
b. Excess blood in the underlying blood vessels
c. Decreased perfusion to the surrounding tissues
d. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries

Answer 17

ANS: D

Erythema is an intense redness of the skin caused by excess blood (hyperemia) in the dilated superficial capillaries.

Question 18

During a skin assessment, the nurse notices that a Mexican-American patient has skin that is yellowish-brown; however, the skin
on the hard and soft palate is pink and the patient’s scleras are white. From these findings, what can the nurse rule out?

a. Pallor
b. Jaundice
c. Cyanosis
d. Iron deficiency

Answer 18

ANS: B

Jaundice is exhibited by a yellow color of the skin and mucous membranes, which indicates rising levels of bilirubin in the blood.
Jaundice is first noticed in the junction of the hard and soft palate in the mouth and in the scleras. Pallor occurs when the red-pink
tones from oxygenated Hb are lost and the skin takes on the color of the connective tissue (collagen) which is mostly white.
Cyanosis is a bluish-gray color of the skin. Iron deficiency can cause nails with a concave (spoon-like) shape.

Question 19

A black patient is in the intensive care unit because of impending shock after an accident. The nurse expects to find what
characteristics in this patient’s skin?

a. Ruddy blue
b. Generalized pallor
c. Ashen, gray, or dull
d. Patchy areas of pallor

Answer 19

ANS: C

Pallor attributable to shock, with decreased perfusion and vasoconstriction, in black-skinned people will cause the skin to appear
ashen, gray, or dull.

Question 20

An older adult woman is brought to the emergency department after being found lying on the kitchen floor for 2 days; she is
extremely dehydrated. What would the nurse expect to see during the examination?

a. Pale mucous membranes
b. Smooth mucous membranes and lips
c. White patches on the mucous membranes
d. Dry mucous membranes and cracked lips

Answer 20

ANS: D

With dehydration, mucous membranes appear dry and the lips look parched and cracked. The other responses are not found in
dehydration. Pale mucous membranes, smooth mucous membranes and lips, and white patches on the mucous membranes are not
signs of dehydration.

Question 21

A 42-year-old woman states that she has noticed several small, slightly raised, bright red dots on her chest. On examination, the
nurse confirms the presence of these “dots.” How should the nurse document these findings?
a. Anasarca
b. Scleroderma
c. Senile angiomas
d. Latent myeloma

Answer 21

ANS: C
Cherry (senile) angiomas are small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk of adults over 30
years old. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema all over the body. Scleroderma is tight, “hard” skin that causes problems with
mobility. Myeloma is cancer of plasma cells. The small, smooth, slightly raised bright red dots this patient has are cherry (senile)
angiomas. These commonly appear on the trunk of adults over 30 years old.

Question 22

A 65-year-old man with emphysema and bronchitis has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. On assessment, the nurse
might expect to see which finding?
a. Anasarca
b. Scleroderma
c. Pedal erythema
d. Clubbing of the nails

Answer 22

ANS: D
Clubbing of the nails occurs with congenital cyanotic heart disease and neoplastic and pulmonary diseases. The other responses are
assessment findings not associated with pulmonary diseases. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema all over the body and is not
associated with pulmonary diseases. Scleroderma is tight, “hard” skin that causes problems with mobility and is not associated with
pulmonary diseases. Pedal erythema is redness of the feet and is not associated with pulmonary diseases.

Question 23

A newborn infant has Down syndrome. During the skin assessment, the nurse notices a transient mottling in the trunk and extremities in response to the cool temperature in the examination room. The infant’s mother also notices the mottling and asks
what it is. What should the nurse tell the mother that this mottling is called?

a. Carotenemia
b. Acrocyanosis
c. Café au lait
d. Cutis marmorata

Answer 23

ANS: D
Persistent or pronounced cutis marmorata occurs with infants born with Down syndrome or those born prematurely and is a
transient mottling in the trunk and extremities in response to cool room temperatures. Carotenemia produces a yellow-orange color in light-skinned persons. Acrocyanosis is a bluish color around the lips, hands and fingernails, and feet and toenails. A café au lait spot is a large round or oval patch of light-brown pigmentation.

Question 24

A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for a monthly appointment. During the assessment, the nurse notices that she
has a brown patch of hyperpigmentation on her face. The nurse continues the skin assessment. What other finding should the nurse
expect?
a. Xerosis
b. Chloasma
c. Keratoses
d. Acrochordons

Answer 24

ANS: B

In pregnancy, skin changes can include striae, linea nigra (a brownish-black line down the midline), chloasma (brown patches of
hyperpigmentation), and vascular spiders. Xerosis is dry skin and keratoses are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that look
crusted, scaly, and warty; neither of which are common in pregnancy. Acrochordons are skin tags, and these often occur in the
aging adult.

Question 25

A man has come in to the clinic for a skin assessment because he is worried he might have skin cancer. During the skin assessment
the nurse notices several areas of pigmentation that look greasy, dark, and “stuck on” his skin. Which is the best description of
these?
a. Senile lentigines, which do not become cancerous
b. Seborrheic keratoses, which do not become cancerous
c. Acrochordons, which are precursors to squamous cell carcinoma
d. Actinic keratoses, which are precursors to basal cell carcinoma

Answer 25

ANS: B
Seborrheic keratoses appear like dark, greasy, “stuck-on” lesions that primarily develop on the trunk. These lesions do not become
cancerous. Senile lentigines are commonly called liver spots and are not precancerous. Acrochordons are skin tags and are not
precancerous. Actinic (senile or solar) keratoses are lesions that are red-tan scaly plaques that increase over the year s to become
raised and roughened. They may have a silvery-white scale adherent to the plaque. They occur on sun-exposed surfaces and are
directly r/t sun exposure. They are premalignant and may develop into squamous cell carcinoma.

Question 26

A 70-year-old woman who loves to garden has small, flat, brown macules over her arms and hands. She asks, “What causes these
liver spots?” Which is the best response by the nurse?
a. “They are signs of decreased hematocrit r/t anemia.”
b. “Those are due to the destruction of melanin in your skin from exposure to the
sun.”
c. “They are clusters of melanocytes that appear after extensive exposure to
sunlight.”
d. “Those are areas of hyperpigmentation r/t decreased perfusion and
vasoconstriction.”

Answer 26

ANS: C
Liver spots, or senile lentigines, are clusters of melanocytes that appear on the forearms and dorsa of the hands after extensive sun
exposure. The other responses are not correct. People with anemia will normally present with pallor. Melanin gives brown tones to
the skin and hair so a decrease in melanin would produce a lightening of the skin. Decreased perfusion and vasoconstriction do not
cause hyperpigmentation. The small, flat, brown macules over this patient’s arms and hands are liver spots, or senile lentigines.

Question 27

The nurse notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. How should the nurse document this finding?

a. A bulla
b. A wheal
c. A nodule
d. A papule

Answer 27

ANS: D

A papule is something one can feel, is solid, elevated, circumscribed, less than 1 cm in diameter, and is due to superficial thickening in the epidermis. A bulla is larger than 1 cm, superficial, and thin walled. A wheal is superficial, raised, transient, erythematous, and irregular in shape attributable to edema. A nodule is solid, elevated, hard or soft, and larger than 1 cm. The solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion less than 1 cm in diameter that this patient has is a papule.

Question 28

The nurse just noted from the medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. What should the nurse expect to find upon examination?

a. Lesions that run together
b. Annular lesions that have grown together
c. Lesions arranged in a line along a nerve route
d. Lesions that are grouped or clustered together

Answer 28

ANS: A

Confluent lesions (as with urticaria [hives]) run together. Annular lesions are circular in nature. Zosteriform lesions are arranged along a nerve route. Grouped lesions are clustered together. Annular lesions are circular in nature. Zosteriform lesions are arranged along a nerve route. Grouped lesions are clustered together. A lesion that is confluent runs together, as with urticaria (hives).

Question 29

A patient has had a “terrible itch” for several months that he has been continuously scratching. What might the nurse expect to find upon physical examination?

a. A keloid
b. A fissure
c. Keratosis
d. Lichenification

Answer 29

ANS: D

Lichenification results from prolonged, intense scratching that eventually thickens the skin and produces tightly packed sets of papules. A keloid is a hypertrophic scar. Keratoses are lesions that are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that appear crusted,
scaly, and warty. A fissure is a linear crack with abrupt edges, which extends into the dermis; it can be dry or moist. A patient with itches often develops lichenification.

Question 30

A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. What is the best response by the nurse?

a. “Blue dilation of blood vessels in a star-shaped linear pattern on the legs.”
b. “Fiery red, star-shaped marking on the cheek that has a solid circular center.”
c. “Confluent and extensive patch of petechiae and ecchymoses on the feet.”
d. “Tiny areas of hemorrhage that are less than 2 mm, round, discrete, and dark red in color.”

Answer 30

ANS: C

Purpura is a confluent and extensive patch of petechiae and ecchymoses and a flat macular hemorrhage observed in generalized disorders such as thrombocytopenia and scurvy. The blue dilation of blood vessels in a star-shaped linear pattern on the legs describes a venous lake. The fiery red, star-shaped marking on the cheek that has a solid circular center describes a spider or star angioma. The tiny areas of hemorrhage that are less than 2 mm, round, discrete, and dark red in color describe petechiae.

Question 31

A mother has noticed that her son, who has been to a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base. What does the nurse suspect?

a. Eczema
b. Impetigo
c. Herpes zoster
d. Diaper dermatitis

Answer 31

ANS: B

Impetigo is moist, thin-roofed vesicle with a thin erythematous base and is a contagious bacterial infection of the skin and most common found in infants and children. Eczema is characterized by erythematous papules and vesicles with weeping, oozing, and
crusts. Herpes zoster (i.e., chickenpox or varicella) is characterized by small, tight vesicles that are shiny with an erythematous base. Diaper dermatitis is characterized by red, moist maculopapular patches with poorly defined borders. The moist, thin vesicles
that look like blisters and scabs on the buttocks are likely impetigo.

Question 32

The nurse notices that a school-aged child has bluish-white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated approximately 1 to 3
mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?

a. Pink, papular rash on the face and neck
b. Pruritic vesicles over her trunk and neck
c. Hyperpigmentation on the chest, abdomen, and back of the arms
d. Red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face

Answer 32

ANS: D

With measles (rubeola), the examiner assesses a red-purple, blotchy rash on the third or fourth day of illness that appears first behind the ears, spreads over the face, and then over the neck, trunk, arms, and legs. The rash appears coppery and does not blanch. The bluish-white, red-based spots in the mouth are known as Koplik spots.

Question 33

The nurse is assessing the skin of a patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and notices multiple patchlike lesions on the temple and beard area that are faint pink in color. What does the nurse suspect?

a. Angiomas
b. Herpes zoster
c. Measles (rubeola)
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

Answer 33

ANS: D
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a vascular tumor that, in the early stages, appears as multiple, patchlike, faint pink lesions over the patient’s temple and beard areas. Cherry (senile) angiomas are small (1 to 5 mm), smooth, slightly raised bright red dots that commonly appear on the trunk in all adults over 30 years old. Herpes zoster causes vesicles up to 1 cm in size that are elevated with a cavity containing clear fluid. Measles is characterized by a red-purple maculopapular blotchy rash that appears on the third or fourth day of illness. The rash is first observed behind the ears, spreads over the face, and then spreads over the neck, trunk, arms, and legs. The faint pink patchlike lesions on this patient’s temple and beard appear to be Kaposi’s sarcoma.

Question 34

A 45-year-old farmer comes in for a skin evaluation and complains of hair loss on his head. His hair seems to be breaking off in patches, and he notices some scaling on his head. What does the nurse suspect?

a. Folliculitis
b. Tinea capitis
c. Toxic alopecia
d. Seborrheic dermatitis

Answer 34

ANS: B

Tinea capitis is rounded patchy hair loss on the scalp, leaving broken-off hairs, pustules, and scales on the skin, and is caused by a fungal infection. Lesions are fluorescent under a Wood light and are usually observed in children and farmers; tinea capitis is highly contagious. Folliculitis is inflammation of hair follicles which causes a pustule with a hair visible in the center. Toxic alopecia is patchy, asymmetric balding that accompanies severe illness or chemotherapy. Seborrheic dermatitis (cradle cap) is thick, yellow-to-white, greasy adherent scales with mild erythema on the scalp and forehead which is very common in early infancy. The patchy hair loss and scales on the scalp that this patient is experiencing is tinea capitis.

Question 35

A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter into the clinic for an examination of the scalp and hair. She states that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches with broken-off, stublike hair in some places; she is worried that this condition could be some form of premature baldness. What is the best response by the nurse?

a. “This looks like folliculitis which can be treated with an antibiotic.”
b. “This sounds like traumatic alopecia which can be treated with antifungal medications.”
c. “This appears to be tinea capitis which is highly contagious and needs immediate attention.”
d. “This appears to be trichotillomania. Does your daughter have a habit of
absentmindedly twirling her hair?”

Answer 35

ANS: D

Trichotillomania, self-induced hair loss, is usually due to habit. It forms irregularly shaped patches with broken-off, stublike hairs of varying lengths. A person is never completely bald. It occurs as a child absentmindedly rubs or twirls the area while falling asleep, reading, or watching television. Folliculitis is inflammation of hair follicles which causes a pustule with a hair visible in the center. Traumatic alopecia is not a real term. Traction alopecia is hair loss along the hairline, part in the hair or scattered that is caused by trauma such as tight braids, ponytails, barretts, cornrows, and hair weaves. Tinea capitis is rounded patchy hair loss on the scalp, leaving broken-off hairs, pustules, and scales on the skin, and is caused by a fungal infection. Tinea capitis is highly contagious.

Question 36

The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient and knows that this finding is expected in which condition?

a. Severe obesity
b. Severe dehydration
c. Childhood growth spurts
d. Connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma

Answer 36

ANS: B

Decreased skin turgor is associated with severe dehydration or extreme weight loss.

Question 37

While performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, the nurse notices the presence of bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs. The skin is puffy and tight but normal in color. No increased redness or
tenderness is observed over his lower legs, and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong. In this situation, the nurse suspects that the likely cause of the edema is which condition?

a. Heart failure
b. Venous stasis
c. Local inflammation
d. Peripheral arterial insufficiency

Answer 37

ANS: A

Bilateral edema or edema that is generalized over the entire body is caused by a central problem such as heart failure or kidney failure. Unilateral edema usually has a local or peripheral cause. Venous stasis is pooling of blood in the veins, usually in the lower extremities, and results in dusky rubor of dependent extremities. Localized inflammation produces redness and warmth of the affect
area. Peripheral arterial insufficiency is decreased arterial blood flow to an area and can cause localized hypothermia and difficulty palpating a distal pulse.

Question 38

A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. What is the best response by the nurse?

a. Tell the patient to watch the lesion and report back in 2 months.
b. Refer the patient because of the suggestion of melanoma on the basis of her symptoms.
c. Ask additional questions regarding environmental irritants that may have caused this condition.
d. Tell the patient that these signs suggest a compound nevus, which is very common in young to middle-aged adults.

Answer 38

ANS: B

The ABCD danger signs of melanoma are asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter. In addition, individuals may report a change in size, the development of itching, burning, and bleeding, or a new-pigmented lesion. Any one of these signs
raises the suggestion of melanoma and warrants immediate referral.

Question 39

The nurse is assessing for clubbing of the fingernails. Which is the best description of clubbing?

a. Nail bases that are firm and slightly tender
b. Curved nails with a convex profile and ridges across the nails
c. Nail bases that feel spongy with an angle of the nail base of 150 degrees
d. Nail bases with an angle of 180 degrees or greater and nail bases that feel spongy.

Answer 39

ANS: D

The normal nail is firm at its base and has an angle of 160 degrees. In clubbing, the angle straightens to 180 degrees or greater and the nail base feels spongy.

Question 40

The nurse is assessing a patient with liver disease for jaundice. Which of these assessment findings is indicative of true jaundice?

a. Yellow patches in the outer sclera
b. Yellow color of the sclera that extends up to the iris
c. Skin that appears yellow when examined under low light
d. Yellow deposits on the palms and soles of the feet where jaundice first appears

Answer 40

ANS: B

The yellow sclera of jaundice extends up to the edge of the iris. Calluses on the palms and soles of the feet often appear yellow but are not classified as jaundice. Scleral jaundice should not be confused with the normal yellow subconjunctival fatty deposits that are common in the outer sclera of dark-skinned people. Signs of jaundice should be assessed with adequate lighting.

Question 41

The nurse is assessing for inflammation in a dark-skinned person. Which technique is the best?

a. Assessing the skin for cyanosis and swelling
b. Palpating the skin for edema and increased warmth
c. Assessing the oral mucosa for generalized erythema
d. Palpating for tenderness and local areas of ecchymosis

Answer 41

ANS: B

Because inflammation cannot be seen in dark-skinned people, palpating the skin for increased warmth, for taut or tightly pulled surfaces that may be indicative of edema, and for hardening of deep tissues or blood vessels is often necessary.

Question 42

A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red, macular, with a bull’s eye pattern across his midriff and behind his knees. What does the nurse suspect?

a. Eczema
b. Rubeola
c. Lyme disease
d. Medication allergy

Answer 42

ANS: C

Lyme disease occurs in people who spend time outdoors in May through September. The first disease state exhibits the distinctive bull’s eye and a red macular or papular rash that radiates from the site of the tick bite with some central clearing. The rash spreads 5 cm or larger, and is usually in the axilla, midriff, inguinal, or behind the knee, with regional lymphadenopathy. Rubeola presents as a red-purple maculopapular blotchy rash that first appears behind the ears and then spreads over the face followed by the neck, trunk, arms and legs. Eczema, or atopic dermatitis, is a chronic inflammatory skin lesion that presents as erythematous papules and vesicles with weeping, oozing, flaking, fissures, crusts, and severe pruritis. An allergic drug allergy often presents with a generalized erythematous and symmetric rash.

Question 43

A 52-year-old woman has a papule on her nose that has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it has slowly grown larger. The nurse suspects which condition?

a. Acne
b. Melanoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 43

ANS: C

Basal cell carcinoma usually starts as a skin-colored papule that develops rounded, pearly borders with a central red ulcer. It is the most common form of skin cancer and grows slowly. Acne presents as pustules (turbid fluid filled cavities) that are circumscribed and elevated. Melanoma usually presents as brown (but can be other colors) lesions with irregular or notched borders and may have a flaking, scaling, or oozing texture. Squamous cell carcinoma present as an erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins, 1 cm or
more. This description does not fit acne lesions. (See Table 12-11 for descriptions of melanoma and squamous cell carcinoma.)

Question 44

A father brings in his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test for skin mobility and turgor?

a. Over the sternum
b. On the forehead
c. On the forearms
d. Over the abdomen

Answer 44

ANS: D

Mobility and turgor are tested over the abdomen in an infant. Poor turgor, or tenting, indicates dehydration or malnutrition. The other sites are not appropriate for checking skin turgor in an infant.

Question 45

A semiconscious woman is brought to the emergency department after she was found on the floor in her kitchen. Her face, nail beds, lips, and oral mucosa are a bright cherry-red color. What should the nurse suspect is the likely cause of these findings?

a. Uremia
b. Carotenemia
c. Polycythemia
d. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer 45

ANS: D

A bright cherry-red coloring in the face, upper torso, nail beds, lips, and oral mucosa appears in cases of carbon monoxide poisoning. Uremia presents as an orange-green or gray pallor, not bright red. Carotenemia presents as a yellow-orange color in the
forehead, palms and soles, nasolabial folds but no yellowing in the sclera or mucous membranes. Polycythemia presents as ruddy blue in the face, oral

Question 46

A patient has been admitted for severe psoriasis. The nurse expects to see what finding in the patient’s fingernails?

a. Pitting
b. Paronychia
c. Beau lines
d. Splinter hemorrhages

Answer 46

ANS: A

Sharply defined pitting and crumbling of the nails, each with distal detachment, characterize pitting nails and are associated with psoriasis. Paronychia is red, swollen, and tender inflammation of the nail folds. Beau lines are depressions across the nail that extends to the nail bed. Splinter hemorrhages are red-brown linear streaks from damage to nail bed capillaries.

Question 47

The nurse is preparing for a certification course on skin care and needs to be familiar with the various lesions that may be identified on assessment of the skin. Which of the following definitions are correct? (Select all that apply.)

a. Papule: Hypertrophic scar.
b. Vesicle: Known as a friction blister.
c. Bulla: Elevated, circumscribed lesion filled with turbid fluid (pus).
d. Nodule: Solid, elevated, and hard or soft growth that is larger than 1 cm.
e. Petechiae: Tiny punctate hemorrhages, 1 to 3 mm, round and discrete, dark red,
purple, or brown in color.

Answer 47

ANS: B, D, E

Vesicles are also known as a friction blister; nodules are solid, elevated, and hard or soft growth that is larger than 1 cm.; and petechiae are tiny punctate hemorrhages, 1 to 3 mm, round and discrete, dark red, purple, or brown in color. A hypertrophic scar is a keloid, not a papule. A papule is solid and elevated but measures less than 1 cm. An elevated, circumscribed lesion filled with turbid fluid (pus) is a pustule, no a bulla. A bulla is larger than 1 cm and contains clear fluid.

Question 48

A patient has been admitted to a hospital after the staff in the nursing home noticed a pressure ulcer in his sacral area. The nurse examines the pressure ulcer and determines that it is a stage II ulcer. Which of these findings are characteristic of a stage II pressure ulcer? (Select all that apply.)

a. Intact skin appears red but is not broken.
b. Patches of eschar cover parts of the wound.
c. Ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue.
d. Open blister areas have a red-pink wound bed.
e. Localized redness in light skin will blanch with fingertip pressure.
f. Partial-thickness skin erosion is observed with a loss of epidermis or dermis.

Answer 48

ANS: D, F

Stage II pressure ulcers have partial thickness skin erosion with a loss of epidermis or also the dermis; open blisters have a red-pink wound bed. Stage I pressure ulcers to have intact skin that appears red but is not broken, and localized redness in intact skin will Blanche with fingertip pressure. Stage III pressure ulcers are full-thickness, extending into the subcutaneous tissue; subcutaneous fat may be seen but not muscle, bone, or tendon. Stage IV pressure ulcers involve all skin layers and extend into supporting tissue, exposing muscle, bone, and tendon. Slough (stringy matter attached to the wound bed) or eschar (black or brown necrotic tissue) may be present. Intact skin that appears red but is not broken and localized redness that blanches with fingertip pressure in light-skinned people both describe a Stage I pressure ulcer. Patches of eschar covering parts of the wound describe a Stage IV wound. An ulcer that extends into the subcutaneous tissue is a Stage III pressure ulcer.