Chapter 5: intentional torts and negligence Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Tort

A

a wrong; modern term is personal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Imminent

A

something could happen in next present moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Intentional Torts

A

a category of torts that requires that the defendant possessed the intent to do the act that caused the plaintiff’s injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Assault

A

the threat of immediate harm or offensive contact; any action that arouses reasonable apprehension of imminent harm (actual physical contact is unnecessary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Battery

A

unauthorized and harmful or offensive direct or indirect physical contact with another person that causes injury (can be unauthorized but reasonable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Transferred Intent Doctrine

A

under this doctrine, the law transfers the perpetrators intent from the target to the actual victim of threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

False Imprisonment

A

the intentional confinement or restraint of another person without authority or jurisdiction and without that person’s consent
rule:
>actual detention
>no permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Shoplifting and Merchant Protection Statutes

A

statutes that allow merchant to stop, detain, and investigate suspected shoplifter without being help liable for false imprisonment if:

  1. there are reasonable grounds for suspicion
  2. suspects are detained for only a reasonable time
  3. investigators are conducted in reasonable manner
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Misappropriation of Right to Publicity

A

using someone’s voice or appearance; an attempt by another person to appropriate a living person’s name or identity for commercial purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Invasion of the Right to Privacy

A

the unwarranted and undesired publicity of a private fact about a person; a fact does not have to be true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Defamation of Character

A

false statements made by one person about another
must prove the following:
1. defendant made untrue statement of fact
2. statement was intentionally or accidentally published to a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Libel

A

a false statement that appears in a letter, newspaper, magazine, book, photograph, movie, and so on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Slander

A

oral defamation of character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Disparagement

A

false statements about a competitor’s products, services, property, or business reputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Intentional Misrepresentation (Fraud)

A

the intentional defrauding of a person out of money, property, or something else of value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Four Elements to Find Fraud

A
  1. Wrongdoer made a false statement of material face
  2. (scienter) wrongdoer had knowledge that the representation was false and intended to deceive the innocent party
  3. innocent party justifiably relied on the misrepresentation
  4. innocent party was injured
17
Q

Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress

A

a tort that states say a person whose extreme and outrageous conduct intentionally or recklessly cause severe emotional distress to another person is liable for that emotional distress
criteria:
>outrageous behavior
>actual emotional distress

18
Q

Malicious Protection

A

someone in power purposely prosecuting another without probable cause to do so; a lawsuit in which the original defendant sues the original plaintiff and second lawsuit consists of the defendant becoming the plaintiff and vice versa

19
Q

Unintentional Tort

A

a doctrine that says a person is liable for harm that is the foreseeable consequence of his or her actions

20
Q

Elements of Unintentional Tort

A
  1. Duty of care
  2. Breach of the duty
  3. Causation
  4. Injury
21
Q

Duty of Care

A

obligation people owe each other not to cause any unreasonable harm or risk or harm

22
Q

Reasonable Person Standard

A

a test used to determine whether a defendant owes a duty of care

23
Q

Breach of Duty

A

a failure to exercise care or to act as a reasonable person would act

24
Q

Injury

A

a plaintiffs person injury or damages to his or her property that enables him or her to recover monetary damages for the defendants negligence

25
Q

Actual Cause

A

the actual cause of negligence; a person who commit a negligent act is not liable unless actual cause can be proven

26
Q

Proximate Cause

A

a point along a chain of event caused by a negligent party after which the party is no longer legally responsible for the consequences of his/her action

27
Q

Professional Malpractice

A

the liability of a professional who breaches his/her duty of ordinary care

28
Q

Negligent Infliction

A

a tort that permit a person to recover a for emotional distress cause by the defendant negligent conduct

29
Q

Negligence Per Se

A

a tort in which the violation of a statute or an ordinance constitutes the branch of the duty of care

30
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur

A

a tort in which the presumption of negligence arises because

  1. the defendant had exclusive control of the instrumentality or situation that caused the plaintiff’s injury
  2. the injury would not have ordinarily occurred but for someones negligence
31
Q

Good Samaritan Laws

A

A statute that relieves medical professionals from liability for ordinary negligence when they stop and render aid to victims in emergency situations

32
Q

Superseding Event

A

an event for which a defendant is not responsible

33
Q

Assumption of the Risk

A

a defense a defendant can use against a plaintiff who knowingly and voluntarily enter into or participates in risky activity that results in injury

34
Q

Contributory

A

a doctrine that says a plaintiff who is partially at fault for his/her own injury cannot recover against the negligent defendant; must be blameless to make recover

35
Q

Comparative

A

a doctrine under which damages are apportioned according to fault

36
Q

Partial Comparative Negligence

A

provide plaintiff must be less than 50% responsible for causing her/his own injuries to recover under comparative negligence

37
Q

Strict Liability

A

liability without fault; fault is automatic

38
Q

Comparative Advantages

A

recover percentage and recover even if you are at fault

39
Q

Contributory Advantages

A

less litigation