Chapter 5: Genetic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Disorders related to mutations in single genes with large effects are also called?

What is their pentrance and how common?

A
  • Mendelian disorders
  • Uncommon, but highly penetrant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What plays an important role in the pathogenesis of complex multigenic disorders/multifactoral disorders?

A
  • Enviornmental factors
  • Each polymorphism has a small effect and is of low penetrance, but the more that exist the higher the risk becomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Atherolsclerosis, diabetes, HTN, autoimmune diseases, and even normal traits such as height and weight are governed by?

A

Polymorphisms in several genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The sickle mutation affecting the β-globin chain of hemoglobin is an example of what type of mutation?

What is the change in the AA sequence?

A
  • Non-conservative missense mutation
  • CTC (or GAG in mRNA) = glutamic acid —-> CAC (GUG in mRNA) = valine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

β0-thalassemia, a rare form of anemia, is due to what kind of point mutation?

What is the change in AA sequence?

A
  • Nonsense mutation (stop codon)
  • CAG (glutamine) —> UAG; creates stop codon
  • Premature termination of β-globin gene translation = short peptide that is rapidly degraded
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of trinucleotide-repeat mutations?

A

They are dynamic (i.e., the degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 4 base insertion in the hemosaminidase A gene, leads to what type of mutation and is the major cause of what disease?

A
  • Frameshift mutation
  • Tay-Sachs disease in Ashkenazi Jews
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of mutation is responsible for the ABO type O?

A
  • Frame-shift mutation
  • Single base deletion at the ABO (glycosyltransferase) locus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What differentiates sick cell disease from sickle cell trait?

A
  • Sickle cell disease: homozygote – all the hemoglobin is HbS
  • Sickle cell trait: heterozygot – some hemoglobin is HbS and rest is normal HbA – red cell sickling only occurs under circumstances such as exposure to lowered oxygen tension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is sickle cell anemia an example of pleiotropism?

A
  • Point mutation in gene gives rise to HbS, predisposing red cells to hemolysis, which tend to cause a logjam in small vessels
  • Can lead to splenic fibrosis, organ infarcts, and bone changes
  • Numerous differing end-organ derangements are all related to the primary defect of Hb synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can someone have an autosomal dominant disorder, without having at least one affected parent?

Proportion of patients who develop the disease as a result of a new mutation is related to?

Who is more likely to be the contributor of a disease due to a new mutation?

A
  • Mutations involving either the egg or the sperm from which they were derived
  • Depends on the effect of the disease on reproductive capability. If disease markedly reduces repro. fitness, most cases would be expected to result from new mutations
  • Many new mutations seem to occur in germ cell of older fathers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A trait seen in all individuals carrying a gene but is expressed differently among individuals is known as?

What controls this variability?

A
  • Variable expressitivity
  • Effects of other genes or the enviornment modify the phenotypic expression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Many autosomal dominant disease arising from deleterious mutations affecting what 2 types of biochemical mechanisms/proteins?

A
  1. Those involved in regulation of complex metabolic pathways that are subject to feedback inhibition (i.e., membrane receptors – LDL receptor)
  2. Key structural proteins, such as collagen and cytoskeletal elements of the red cell membrane (i.e., spectrin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why does even a single mutant collagen chain have such a large effect?

What is the mutant allele in this case known as?

A
  • Collagen molecules are trimers and require 3 collagen chains arranged in a helical configuration
  • Each chain in the helix MUST be normal for the assembly and stability of the collagen molecule
  • Known as a dominant negative because it impairs the function of a normal allele
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gain of function mutations are almost always what type of inheritance pattern?

Which disease illustrates this type of mutation?

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Huntington’s disease gives rise to abnormal protein, huntingtin, that is toxic to neurons, and hence even heterozygotes develop neurologic deficit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 diseases that are autosomal dominant and affect the nervous system? (hint: there is a mnemonic)

A
  • Tuberous sclerosis
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Huntington disease
  • Neurofibromatosis

Touch My Hurt Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Autosomal dominant disorders affecting the Urinary and GI systems?

A

Urinary = Polycystic kidney disease

GI = familial polyposis coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 4 diseases affecting the skeletal system that are Autosomal Dominant? (hint: there’s a mnemonic)

A

1) Marfan Syndrome
2) Osteogenesis imperfecta
3) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (some variants)
4) Achondroplasia

My Osteology Enters Afterlife”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 2 diseases affecting the metabolic system that are Autosomal Dominant?

A
  1. Familial hypercholesterolemia
  2. Acute intermittent porphyria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What kind of penetrance is common with autosomal recessive disorders?

How are parents and children affected by these disorders?

A
  • Complete penetrance
  • Trait does not usually affect the parents (carriers), siblings have 1/4 chance of having trait.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Many of the mutated genes in autosomal recessive disorders affect which proteins?

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Almost all inborn errors of metabolism follow what type of inheritance?

A

Autosomal Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a male is affected by an X-linked disorder, they are said to be ________ for X-linked mutant genes

A

Hemizygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How are X-linked recessive disorders passed down from an affected male?

Carrier mother?

A
  • A male will pass on to all his daughters, and they will be carriers. Will not pass to his sons.
  • A heterozygous mother will pass to 50% of her sons and/or daughters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are X-linked dominant conditions passed to offspring from both males and females?

A
  • Affected heterozygous female will pass to half her sons and half her daughters
  • Affected male will pass to all his daughters, but none of his sons, if female parent unaffected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which condition shows that although a mutant X chromosome may be inactive in some cells, it may be active in other cells?

Affect of drugs?

Who’s at greatest risk (male or female)?

A
  • Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
  • Predisposes patients to RBC hemolysis when they are treated with certain drugs (i.e., primaquine, anti-malarial) = severe drug-induced hemolytic reaction
  • Males more affected because they only have one X chromosome and if gene is mutant they have no functional G6PD. Females have two X chromosomes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

X-linked recessive diseas that affects the MSK system?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

X-linked recessive disorders that affect the blood system (3 of them)?

A

1) Hemophilia A and B
2) Chronic granulomatous disease
3) G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What 2 X-linked recessive disorders affect the immune system?

A

1) Agammaglobinemia
2) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What 2 X-linked recessive disorders affect the metabolic system?

A

1) Diabetes insipidus
2) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What X-linked recessive disorder affects the nervous system?

A

Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Vitamin D-resistant rickets?

A

X-linked dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Galactosemia is due to a deficiency in ________, leading to the accumulation of galactose and consequent tissue damage?

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

α1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to what?

A
  • Inability to inactivate neutrophil elastase in the lungs
  • Leads to destruction of elastin in the walls of lung alveoli, and eventually pulmonary emphysema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 2 fundamental mechanisms by which loss of fibrillin leads to clinical manifestations of Marfan syndrome?

A

1) Loss of structural support in microfibril rich CT
2) Excessive activation of TGF-β signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fibrillin occurs in what two homologous forms?

Mapped to which chromosomes?

A
  • Fibrillin-1 (FBN1) mapped to chromosome 15q21.1
  • Fibrillin-2 (FBN2) mapped to chromosome 5q23.31
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of mutations give rise to the abnormal fibrillin-1 seen in Marfan syndrome?

A

Missense mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mutations of FBN2 are less common and give rise to?

A

Congenital contractural arachnodactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does loss of microfibrils give rise to abnormal and excessive activation of TGF-β?

What does this excessive activation lead to?

A
  • Normal microfibrils sequester and control the bioavailability of this cytokine
  • Deleterious effects on vascular smooth muscle development and increases activity of MMPs, causing loss of ECM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Finding of bilateral ectopia lentis should raise suspicion of which disease?

What is ectopia lentis?

A
  • Marfan Syndrome; since is so uncommon in persons w/o this disease its presence is nearly diagnostic
  • Bilateral subluxation or dislocation (outward and upward) of the lens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most cases of Marfan Syndrome transmitted via what type of inheritance?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the most life threatening lesions seen in Marfan Syndrome; what are the 2 most common?

How can they be detected?

A
  • Cardiovascular lesions; 2 most common are mitral valve prolapse and more importantly dilation of the ascending aorta due to cystic medionecrosis
  • Echocardiography is extremely valuable in diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Due to variations, the clinical diagnosis of Marfan syndome is currently based on?

What are the guidelines for using these criteria?

A
  • Revised Ghent criteria
  • Takes into account family hx, cardinal clinical signs in absence of family hx, and presence of fibrillin mutation
  • In general, major involvement of 2 of the 4 organ systems (skeletal, cardiovascular, ocular, and skin) and minor involvement of another organ is required for diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the mainstay of the medical treatment for Marfan syndrome?

Other treatments being tested?

A
  • Mainstay = β blockers; act to reduce heart rate and aortic wall stress
  • Other therapies being tested = block TGF-β signaling and blockade of angiotensin type 2 receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Heterogenous group of conditions that result from a defect in the synthesis of fibrillar collagen?

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 2 autosomal recessive types of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

What is the gene defect in each?

A

1) Kyphoscoliosis (Type VI) due to Lysyl hydroxylase defect = most common autosomal recessive form
2) Dermatosparaxis (Type VIIc) due to Procollagen N-peptidase defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vascular type (IV) of EDS arises from abnormalities in?

Which gene

A
  • Type III collage
  • COL3A1 gene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which tissues are rich in type III collagen and are affected most by vascular type of EDS?

A

Blood vessels and intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The arthrochalasia type and dermatosparaxis type of EDS arise from defects in?

Which genes is defective for each type

A
  • Conversion of type I procollagen to collagen; through cleavage of noncollagen peptides from the N and C terminus of the procollagen
  • Arthrochalasia type = mutations in either COL1A1 or COL1A2
  • Dermatosparaxis type = mutation in procollagen-N-peptidase gene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The classic type of EDS arises from mutations in what genes?

Can also be caused by non-collagen related gene abnormalities such as?

Mutations in tenascin-X lead to?

A
  • Genes for type V collagen (COL5A1 and COL5A2)
  • Defects that affect the biosynthesis of other extracellular matrix molecules that influence collagen synthesis
  • EDS-like condition caused by mutation in tenascin-X, a large multimeric protein, that affects synthesis and fibril formation of type VI and type I collagens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How does familial hypercholesterolemia differ amongst homozygotes and heterozygotes?

A

Heterozygotes: have one mutant gene, with 2-3x elevation of blood cholesterol levels, leads to tendinous xanthomas and premature atherosclerosis

Homozygotes: have 2 mutant genes and 5-6x elevation of blood cholesterol levels. May develop skin xanthomas and coronary, cerebral, and peripheral vascular atherosclerosis at a early age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

VLDLs released by liver are rich in ______ and contain lesser amounts of _______

A

VLDLs released by liver are rich in triglycerides and contain lesser amounts of cholesterol esters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which receptor on the liver recognizes IDL and specifically what does it recognize?

A
  • LDL-receptor
  • Recognizes apo B-100 and apo-E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the immediate and major source of plasma LDL?

A

IDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which apopprotein is found on LDL and can be recognized by the LDL-recptor for uptake/clearance by the liver?

A

ApoB-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The exit of cholesterol from the lysosomes requires the action of what 2 proteins?

A

NPC1 and NPC2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cholesterol suppresses cholesterol synthesis within the cell by inhibiting?

Also suppresses the synthesis of?

A
  • HMG-CoA reductase = The rate-limiting enzyme
  • Suppresses synthesis of LDL receptors, thus protecting cells from excessive accumulation of cholesterol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Statins work by suppressing what?

But increasing?

A
  • Suppress intracellular cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting enzyme HMG-CoA reductase
  • Allows greater synthesis of LDL receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

LDL can also be transported via scavenger receptors, which occurs via what cells?

How does this contribute to the pathogenesis of hypercholesterolemia?

A
  • Cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system; monocytes and macrophages have receptors for chemically altered (i.e., acetylated or oxidized) LDL.
  • Impaired IDL transport into liver secondarily diverts more plasma IDL into precursor pool for LDL
  • There is marked increased in the scavenger receptor-mediated traffic of LDL cholesterol into the cells of this system and possibly the vascular walls = appearance of xanthomas and premature atherosclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Differentiate class I vs. class II mutations of the LDL receptor gene?

A

Class I: uncommon; complete failure of synthesis of the receptor protein

Class II: fairly common; encode receptor proteins that accumulate in the ER because folding defects make it impossible for them to be transported to the Golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Differentiate class III vs. class IV vs. class V mutations of the LDL receptor gene?

A

Class III: affect LDL-binding domain of receptor; encoded protein reaches cell surface, but fails to bind LDL

Class IV: bind LDL normally, but fail to localize in coated pits and bound LDL is not internalized

Class V: bind LDL and can be internalized; however pH-dependent dissociation of receptor and bound LDL fails to occur, trapped in endosome, and fail to recycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are 3 treatment strategies for lysosomal storage disease?

A
  1. Enzyme replacement therapy - currently in use
  2. Substrate reduction therapy
  3. Molecular chaperone therapy - exogenous competitive inhibitor that binds mutant enzyme and acts as “folding template.” Tx under investigation for use in Gaucher disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tay-Sachs disease is most common form of GM2 gangliosidosis and results from mutations on what chromosome, leading to?

Prevalent in what population?

A
  • α-subunit locus on chromosome 15 causing severe deficiency in lysosomal hexosaminidase A.
  • Prevalent among Jews, paticularly Eastern European (Ashkenazic) origin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The enzyme deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease causes accumulation of GM2 gangliosides in many tissues, but which tissues dominate the clinical picture?

What is pictured with an electron microscope?

A
  • Neurons in the central and autonomic nervous systems and retina
  • Cytoplasmic inclusions, the most prominent being whorled configurations within lysosomes composed of onion-skin layers of membrane
65
Q

A cherry-red spot appearing in the macula is characteristic of?

A

Tay-Sachs disease and other storage disorders affecting the neurons

66
Q

Infants with Tay-Sachs disease begin to manifest signs and symptoms when?

What type of signs and symtoms?

A
  • 6 months of age
  • Relentless motor and mental deterioration, beginning with incoordination, obtundation, and muscular flaccidity
  • Characteristic, but not pathognomonic cherry-red spot appears in macula of eye in almost all patients
  • Complete vegetative state by 1-2 years, death by age 2-3
67
Q

The gene mutation in Tay-Sachs disease leads to?

A

Misfolded protein –> unfolded protein response/ER stress response –> apoptosis

*Possibility of future “chaperone therapy” to treat this diseas

68
Q

Niemann-Pick disease types A and B are characterized by lysosomal accumulation of?

Gene for defective enzyme map to which chromosome?

Preferentially expressed from maternal or paternal chromosome?

A
  • Sphingomyelin due to inherited deficiency of sphingomyelinase
  • 11p15.4
  • Preferentially expressed from the maternal chromosome as result of epigenetic silencing of the paternal gene
69
Q

Niemann-Pick disease types A and B are commonly seen in what population?

A

Ashkenazi Jews

70
Q

Explain the pathogensis and clinical manifestations of Niemann-Pick disease type A?

Type of mutation?

What is seen in these patients and what is the prognosis?

A
  • Severe infantile form with extensive neurological involvement, marked visceral accumulations of sphingomyelin, and progressive wasting
  • Missense mutation causes almost complete deficiency of sphingomyelinase
  • May be present at birth and almost invariably become evident by age 6 months, infants have protruberant abdomen because of the hepatosplenomegaly
  • Death usually within the first or second year of life
71
Q

What constitutes the dominant histological change seen in Niemann-Pick type A?

A
  • Vacuolation and ballooing of neurons
  • Concentric lamellated myelin figures called zebra bodies
72
Q

Explain the pathogensis of Niemann-Pick disease type B?

Prognosis?

A
  • Patients have organomegally but generally NO CNS involvement
  • Usually survive into adulthood
73
Q

What are the features of the brain like with someone who has Niemann-Pick type A?

A

Gyri are shrunken and sulci widened

74
Q

How is the diagnosis of Niemann-Pick disease established?

A

Biochemical assays for sphingomyelinase activity in liver or bone marrow biopsy

75
Q

Niemann-Pick disease type C is due to a primary defect in?

Mutations in what genes?

A
  • Mutations in NPC1 (membrane bound) and/or NPC2 (soluble); both involved in transport of free cholesterol from the lysosomes to the cytoplasm
  • NPC1 is responsible for 95% of cases
  • Causes primary defect in NON-enzymatic lipid transport
76
Q

How may Niemann-Pick type C present?

A
  • Hydrops fetalis and stillbirth
  • Neonatal hepatitis
  • Most commonly as chronic form characterized by progressive neuro damage; presents in childhood and is marked by ataxia, vertical supranuclear gaze palsy, dystonia, dysarthria, and psychomotor regression
77
Q

What is the most common lysosomal storage disoder and what is the affected gene?

A
  • Gaucher disease
  • Cluster of AR disorders from mutation in the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase (cleaves glucose from ceramide)
78
Q

Glucocerebrosides are continually formed from the catabolism of?

A

Glycolipids derived mainly from the cell membranes of senescent leukocytes and red cells

79
Q

Pathologic changes of Gaucher disease are caused not just by the burder of storage material but also by the activation and secretion of?

A

Activation of macrophages and secretion of cytokines such as IL-1, IL-6, and TNF

80
Q

What is the most common form of Gaucher disease?

Affects primarily?

Found prinicipally in what population?

Affect on longevity?

A
  • Type I, or the chronic nonneuronopathic form
  • Storage of glucocerebrosides is limited to the mononuclear phagocytes throughout body WITHOUT involving the brain
  • Splenic and skeletal involvements dominate this pattern
  • Found principally in Jews of European stock
  • Have reduced but detectable levels of glucocerebrosidase activity; longevity is shortened, but no markedly
81
Q

Type II form of Gaucher disease has what type of affect and pattern?

Glucocerebrosidase activity?

Clinical picture dominated by?

Affect on longevity?

A
  • Acute neuronopathic form, is the infantile acute cerebral pattern
  • Virually no glucocerebrosidase activity in the tissues
  • Hepatosplenomegaly seen, but clinical picture dominated by progressive CNS involvement, leading to death at an early age
82
Q

What is the morphology of Gaucher disease?

Dominant cell type visualized?

What is visualized with electron microscope?

What type of stain is positive?

A
  • Accumulation of phagocytotic cells, known as Gaucher cells, found in spleen, liver, bone marrow, LN’s, tonsils, thymus, and Peyers pathces
  • Rarely appear vacuolated but instead have fibrillary type of cytoplasm likened to crumpled tissue paper
  • Periodid acid-Schiff staining is intensely positive
83
Q

Accumulation of Gaucher cells in the bone marrow in type I disease leads to?

A
  • Areas of bone erosion, which can give rise to pathologic fractures
  • Bone destruction occurs due to the secretion of cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, and TNF) by activated macrophages
84
Q

The signs and symptoms of type I Gaucher disease first appear when and what’s involved?

Most commonly there is?

Longevity of these patients?

A
  • In adult life and are related to splenomegaly or bone involvement
  • Most commonly there is panocytopenia or thrombocytopenia secondary to hypersplenism
  • Progressive in the adult, but IS compatible with long life
85
Q

In types II and III Gaucher disease what are the most common dysfunctions and organs involved?

A
  • CNS dysfunction, convulsions, and progressive mental deterioration dominate
  • Liver, spleen and LN’s are also affected
86
Q

The diagnosis of homozygotes with Gaucer disease can be made how?

A

Measuring glucocerebrosidase activity in peripheral blood leukocytes or in extracts of cultured skin fibroblasts

87
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for Gaucher disease?

Effectivness and cost?

A
  • Replacement therapy with recombinant enzymes
  • Effective and those with type I can expect normal life expectancy
  • Extremely expensive
  • Allogenic hematopoietic stem cells transplantation can be curative
88
Q

What are the cause of Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs)?

What are mucopolysaccharides and where are they most abundant?

A
  • Deficiencies of enzymes that are involved in the degradation of mucopolysaccharides (glycosaminoglycans)
  • Long-chain complex CHOs linked with proteins to form proteoglycans and are abundant in the ground substance of CT
89
Q

What are the glycosaminoglycans that accumulate in MPSs?

A

Dermatan sulfate, heparan sulfate, keratan sulfate, and chondroitin sulfate

90
Q

All the MPSs are classified numerically MPS I to MPS VII and are inherited in a _______ fashion

What is the exception?

A
  • AR fashion
  • Exception, Hunter syndrome, is X-linked recessive trait
91
Q

In general, MPSs are progrssive disorders characterized by?

A

Coarse facial features, clouding of the cornea, joint stiffness, and menal retardation

92
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformities, valvular lesions, and subendothelial arterial deposits, particularly in the coronary arteries, and lesions in the brain are common threads that run through all forms of which disease?

A

MPSs

93
Q

Hurler syndrome (MPS I-H) results from defiency of?

Appears when and what are its affects?

What is the cause of death?

A
  • α-1-iduronidase deficiency
  • One of the most severe forms and affected children develop hepatosplenomegaly by age 6 to 24 months
  • Growth is retarded and develop coarse facial features and skeletal deformities
  • Death occyrs by age 6-10 years, often due to cardiovascular complication
94
Q

Hunter syndrome (MPS II) differs from Hurler syndrome how?

A

Mode of inheritance (X-linked), absence of corneal clouding and milder clinical course

95
Q

MPSs have what feature that is different from all other storage disorders?

A

Metabolite present on urinalysis

96
Q

What are the important causes of death seen in the prolonged forms of MPSs?

A

Coronary subendothelial lesions lead to myocardial ischemia, thus MI and cardiac decompensation contribute to death

97
Q

Glucose molecules in glycogen are linked together via what kind of bonds?

A

α-1,4-glucoside bonds

98
Q

Degradation by phosphorylases in liver and muscle split glucose-1-phosphate from glycogen until about 4 glucose residues remain on each branch, leaving a branch called?

How can this be further degraded?

A
  • Limit dextrin
  • Further degraded only by debranching enzyme
99
Q

Von Gierke disease (type I glycogenosis) is deficiency in?

Characterized by?

Longevity?

A
  • Glucose-6-phosphatase
  • Hepatomegaly, renomegaly, impaired gluconeogenesis leading to hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia
  • Most survive and develop late complications (i.e., hepatic adenomas)
100
Q

What are the myopathic types of the glycogen storage diseases; enzymes that are deficient?

Clinical features of this form?

Onset when?

A
  • McArdle disease (type V) = Muscle phosphorylase deficiency
  • Type VII glycogen storage disease = defect in PFK
  • Onset in adulthood (>20 year); muscle cramps after exercise and lactate levels in the blood fail to rise after exercise to due a block in glycolysis
  • Serum creatine kinase always elevated
101
Q

In Von Gierke disease where does the glycogen accumulate in the liver and kidney?

A
  • Intracytoplasmic and intranuclear accumulations in liver
  • Intracytoplasmic accumulation in cortical tubular epithelial cells of kidney
102
Q

Pompe disease (type II glycogenosis) is a deficiency in?

Clinical features of this disease and what is the most prominent clinical feature?

A
  • Lysosomal α-glucosidase (acid maltase)
  • Lysosomal storage of glycogen in all organs (i.e., mild hepatomegaly and skeletal muscle) but massive cardiomegaly is most prominent feature
  • Massive cardiomegaly, muscle hypotonia, and cardiorespiratory failure within 2 years of life
103
Q

Describe the picture on the left vs. the one on the right

A

Left = normal myocardium with adundant eosinophilic cytoplasm

Right = patient with Pompe disease showing myocardial fibers full of glycogen seen as clear spaces

104
Q

Which stain is most commonly used when identifying individual chromosomes?

A

Giemsa stain and is called G banding; usual procedure is to arrest in metaphase w/ mitotic spindle inhibitors

105
Q

The notation Xp21.2 refers to?

A

Chromosomal segment located on short arm of X chromosome, in region 2, band 1, and sub-band 2

106
Q

Euploid vs. aneuploidy?

A

Euploid = exact multiple of the haploid number of chromosomes (23)

Aneuploidy = error in mitosis or meiosis where cell acquires a chromosome complement that is not an exact multiple of 23

107
Q

Usualy causes of aneuploidy are?

A

Nondisjunction and anaphase lag

108
Q

Mosaicism is a result of and what occurs?

Most typically involves which chromosomes?

A
  • Mitotic errors in early development give rise to 2 or more cell populations w/ different chromosomal complement, in the same individual
  • Most commonly affects sex chromosomes; involvement of an autosome almost always leads to a nonviable mosaic
109
Q

Which system allows for the detection of chromosomal changes as small as kilobases?

A

Fluoresence in situ hybridization (FISH)

110
Q

46,XY,del(16)(p11.2p13.1) describes what kind of deletion?

A

Describes breakpoints in the short arm of chromosome 16 at 16p11.2 and 16p13.1 with loss of material between breaks

111
Q

What is the most common example of isochromosome present in live births?

What is the Xq isochromosome for short arm and long arms genes?

A
  • Involves long arm of the X and is designated i(X)(q10)
  • Xq isochromosome is associated with monosomy for genes on short arm of X and with trisomy for genes on the long arm of X
112
Q

What is a Robertsonian translocaton (or centric fusion)?

Where do the breaks most often occur and the end result?

Is it phenotypically compatible?

A
  • Translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes
  • Breaks occur close to the centromeres of each chromosome and transfer of segments lead to one very large and one extrememly small chromosome
  • Small product usually lost; however carries highly redundant genes (i.e., ribosomal RNA genes), thus loss is compatible with normal phenotype
113
Q

What is the most common manifestation of dyslipidemia?

Most commonly associated with what?

A
  • Xanthomas
  • High levels of LDL
114
Q

Metabolic block and decreased amount of end product is associated with what?

A

Lesch-Nyhan

115
Q

What is the most common cause of trisomy (Down syndrome)?

Age of which parent has strong influence on the incidence of Trisomy 21?

A
  • Meiotic nondisjunction
  • Maternal age; increase in age = increased incidence
116
Q

What are the 3 genetic causes of Down’s syndrome?

A
  • 95% have extra chromosome
  • 4% Robertsonian translocation
  • 1% are Mosaics
117
Q

Congenital heart defects are common in patients with Down’s Syndrome, most commonly seen as defects of?

A
  • Endocardial cushions, including:
  • Ostium primum
  • Atrial Septal defects
  • AV valve malformation
  • Ventricular septal defects
118
Q

What is responsible for a majority of the deaths in infancy and early adulthood in those with Down’s Syndrome?

A

Cardiac problems

119
Q

Patients with Down’s syndrome are at risk for what?

A
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Acute Leukemia (both acute lymphoblastic and acute myeloid) w/ acute megalaryoblastic leukima the most common
  • Neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimers by age 40
  • Serious infections particularly of the lungs
120
Q

What are the distinctive clinical features of Trisomy 18: Edwards syndrome?

A
  • Prominent occiput
  • Horseshoe kidney
  • Low set ear
  • Short neck
  • Overlapping fingers
  • Limited hip abduction
121
Q

What is the basis for the emerging powerful noninvasive method of testing maternal blood used in the prenatal diagnosis of trisomy 21?

A

5-10% of total cell free DNA in maternal blood is derived from the fetus and can be identified by polymorphic genetic markers

122
Q

What are the distinctive clinical features of trisomy 13: Patau syndrome?

A
  • Micropthalmia (small or missing eyeballs)
  • Polydactyly
  • Microcephaly
123
Q

What are the clinical features of DiGeorge’s syndrome?

A
  • Thymic hypoplasia w/ resultant T-cell immunodeficiency
  • Parathyroid hypoplasia giving rise to hypocalcemia
  • Low-set ears, wide-set eyes, small jaw
124
Q

What 2 genes are implicated in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?

A
  • TBX1 is most closely associated w/ the phenotypic features; also regulates PAX9
  • PAX9 controls development of the palate, parathyroids, and thymus
125
Q

What is the only consistent finding in Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)?

A

Hypogonadism

126
Q

Most patients with Kleinfelter syndrome have a distinctive body habitus characterized by?

A
  • Increase in length between the soles and the pubic bone = elongated appearance
  • Abnormally long legs
  • Small testes and penis
  • Lack of secondary sexual characteristics: deep voice, beard
127
Q

Patients with Klinefelter syndrome are at higher risk for what?

A
  • Breast cancer
  • Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance)
  • Mitral valve prolapse
128
Q

Where does the androgen receptor gene map to and what does it contain?

How does this contribute to hypogonadism observed in patients with Kleinfelter Syndrome?

A
  • Mapped to the X chromosome and contains highly polymorphic CAG (trinucleotide) repeats
  • Receptors with shorter CAG repeats are more sensitive to androgens
  • In Klinefelters, the X chromosome bearing the androgen receptor allele w/ the shortest CAG repeat is preferentially silenced, thus the remaining X chromosome w/ the androgen receptor allele containing more CAG repeats is expressed
129
Q

Severely affected patients with Turner Syndrome are born with?

A
  • Edema of the dorsum of hand and foot (lymph stasis)
  • Swelling of the nape of neck (cystic hygroma)
  • Swelling subside and leave bilateral neck webbing and persisten looseness of skin on back of the neck
130
Q

Which heart abnormalities are seen most frequently in patients with Turner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Left-sided cardiovascular abnormalities
  • Pre-ductal coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve

* Most important causes of increased mortality in children w/ Turner’s

131
Q

What are the distinguishing clinical features of Turner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Short stature
  • Amenorrhea (single most important cause of primary amenorrhea)
  • Streak ovaries
  • Cystic hygroma of the neck and hydrops fetalis
  • Cubitus Valgus
132
Q

Single most important cause of primary amenorrhea?

A

Turner syndrome

133
Q

What leads to the developement of streak ovaries in patients with Turner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Fetal ovaries develop normally in embryogenesis, but the absence of the second X chromosome leads to an accelerated loss of oocytes, which is complete by age 2
  • “Menopause occurs before menarch.”
  • Ovaries are reduced to atrophic fibrous stands, devoid of ova and follicle
134
Q

Which gene is associated with the short-stature seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome?

A

Haploinsufficiency of SHOX gene at Xp22.33

135
Q

Fragile-X syndrome is a result of what?

What type of mutation?

A
  • CGG tricnucleotide repeats (non-coding part of gene)
  • Loss of function
136
Q

What is the morphologic hallmark of polyglutamine expansions in the coding regions of genes that lead to toxic gain of function diseases?

A

Accumulation of aggregated mutant proteins in large intranuclear inclusions

137
Q

Toxic gain of function mediated by mRNA where there are expansions in noncoding parts of the gene lead to what disease?

A

Fragile X Tremor-Ataxia Syndrome = toxic gain of function of FMR1 gene

138
Q

Fragile X syndrome is caused by mutation in what gene?

2nd most common genetic cause of?

A
  • FMR1 gene
  • Mental retardation
139
Q

What is the characteristic phenotype of someone with Fragile X syndrome?

A
  • Long face w/ large manible
  • Large everted ears
  • Large testicles (macro-orchidism) = most distinctive feature
140
Q

When the trinucleotide repeats in the FMR1 gene exceed 230, what occurs to the DNA of the entire 5’ region of the gene?

A
  • Becomes abnormally methylated
  • Methylation also extends upstream into the promoter region of the gene, resulting in transcriptional suppression of FMR1
141
Q

Where is the FMRP protein found most abundantly?

What are its functions?

A
  • Brain and Testis
  • Selectively binds and regulates the transport of mRNA into dendrites
  • At synaptic junctions FMRP suppresses protein synthesis of the bound mRNAs in response to signaling through group I metabotropic glutamate receptors (mGlu-R) = translation regulator
142
Q

What is the neurodegenerative disease that manifests as progressive bilateral loss of central vision, first notes between ages 15-13 and eventually causes blindness?

Type of inheritance?

A
  • Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
  • Mitochondrial inheritance
143
Q

What is genomic imprinting?

Paternal vs. maternal imprinting?

A
  • We inherit 2 copies of each autosomal gene, carried on homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes
  • Imprinting is an epigenetic process, in which either the maternal or paternal allele is selectively inactivated
  • Maternal imprinting is transcriptional silencing of the maternal allele, while paternal imprinting is silencing of the paternal allele
144
Q

What syndrome is characterized by mental retardation, short stature, hypotonia, profound, hyperphagia, obesity, small hands and feet, hypogonadism?

What is the underlying cause of this disease?

A
  • Prader-Willi syndrome
  • Deletion affecting the paternally derived chromosome 15 (specifically deletion of band q12 in long arm of chromosome 15)
  • Only the functional allele is provided by the paternal chromosome
145
Q

Mental retardation, ataxic gait, seizures and innapropriate laughter (“happy puppets”) describes what disorder?

Caused by what gene and process?

A
  • Angelman syndrome
  • UBE3A gene mapped to maternal chromosome 15 is deleted. This gene is imprinted on the paternal allele, but only the maternal allel is normally active
146
Q

Which family of genes located in 15q11.2-q13 are believed to be involved in Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Loss of the SNORP family of genes that encode small nucleolar RNAs involved in the modifications of ribosomal RNAs

147
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to what genetic mutation?

Which type of transmission pattern?

A
  • 3 base deletion in CF allele, resulting in lack of AA508 (Phe) on chromosome 7
  • Autosomal recessive
148
Q

How is an Autosomal Dominant disorder, such as Osteogenesis Imperfecta, arising from phenotypically normal parents able to affect more than one child?

What is the mechanism?

A
  • Gonadal Mosaicism
  • Mutations that occur postzygotically during early (embryonic) development that affects only cells to be the gonads.
  • Gametes carry the mutation, but the somatic cells of the individual are completely normal; so the disease-causing mutation is transmitted to the offspring through the mutated gametes
149
Q

What are the 5 mutation classes for familial hypercholesterolemia? (mnemonic)

A

Some Times Bitches Come Real

1 - Synthesis

2 - Transport

3 - Binding

4 - Clustering

5 - Recycling

150
Q

What disease microscopically has the appearance of balloon cells in the cytoplasm?

A

MPS

151
Q

Upon electron microscopy there is presence of vacuoles engorged secondary lysosomes containing membranous cytoplasmic bodies, resembling concentric lamellated myelin figures, called zebra bodies, what does this indicate?

A

Niemann-Pick Type A

152
Q

What is the trinucleotide repeat for Huntington disease?

A

CAG

153
Q

Upon exam with electron microscope, the presence of whorled configurations within lysosomes composed of onion-skin layers of membranes indicates what?

A

Tay-Sachs

154
Q

What disease is charcterized by a fibrillary type of cytoplasm likened to crumpled tissue paper?

A

Gaucher

155
Q

What is the trinucleotide repeat for Friedreich ataxia?

A

GAA

156
Q

Enzymes deficient in Von Gierke disease (type I)?

McArdle disease (type V)?

Pompe disease (type II)?

A
  • Von Gierke = glucose-6-phosphatase
  • McArdle = muscle phosphorylase
  • Pompe = α-glucosidase (acid maltase)
157
Q

What is the trinucleotide repeat for Myotonic dystrophy?

A

CTG

158
Q

Mode of inheritance for Hunter Syndrome vs. Hurler Syndrome?

A

Hunter = X-linked recessive

Hurler = autosomal recessive

159
Q

Mitral valve prolapse (AKA floppy valve) and dilation of the ascending aorta are associated with what condition?

A

Marfan Syndrome