Chapter 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States. T/F

A

False

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2
Q

The genetic alterations associated with neoplasia are passed to daughter cells upon cell division. T/F

A

True

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3
Q

Cancers are caused by only DNA mutations. T/F

A

False

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4
Q

DNA methylation and histone modifications are associated with _____.
A. mutations
B. epigenetics

A

B. Epigenetics

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5
Q
All tumors are \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. Clonal
B. Sarcoma
C. Malignant
D. Carcinomas
A

A. Clonal

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6
Q
In regards to tumor structure, \_\_\_\_\_ is the supportive foundation for \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Stroma, Parenchyma
B. Parenchyma, Stroma
C. Stroma, Epithelium
D. Epithelium, Extracellular matrix
A

Stroma, Parenchyma

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7
Q

Parenchyma is non-neoplasmic. T/F

A

False

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8
Q

Are the cells in the stroma neoplastic or non-neoplastic?

A

Non-neoplastic

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9
Q

Stroma forms the supportive structure of a tumor, including _____ and ______.
A. Basement membrane and vessels
B. Vessels and Extracellular Matrix
C. Fibrous capsule and Extracellular matrix

A

B. Vessels and Extracellular Matrix

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10
Q
Which of the following has the greatest impact on the biological behavior of a neoplasm?
A. Stroma
B. Parenchyma
C. Supportive connective tissue
D. Blood Supply
A

B. Parenchyma

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11
Q

Which of the following has the greatest impact on the longevity of the neoplasm?
A. Parenchyma
B. Stroma

A

B. Stroma

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12
Q
Which of the follwing is not a hallmark of cancer development? 
A.. Angiogenesis
B. Anaerobic Glycolysis
C. Limitless replication
D. Evasion of apoptosis
A

B. Anaerobiv glycolysis

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13
Q
Which of the following refers to a benign neoplasm derived from glandular tissue? 
A. Sarcoma
B. Adenoma
C. Carcinoma
D. Hamartoma
A

B. Adenoma

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14
Q
Which of the following is a benign tumor which resembles the tissues of its origin? 
A. Hamartoma
B. Teratoma
C. Papilloma
D. Cyst
A

A. Hemartoma

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15
Q
Which of the following is a mixed tumor that contains cells from 3 embryonic germ cell layers? 
A. Hamartoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Papilloma
D. Teratoma
A

D. Teratoma

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16
Q

Benign tumors are more likely to be anaplastic and malignant tumors are well-differentiated. T/F

A

False

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17
Q
Which of these features is not associated with anaplastic tumors?
A. Hyperchromatic
B. Increased number of mitotic figures
C. Well-differentiated cells
D. Pleomorphic cells
A

C. Well-differentiated cells

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18
Q

In general, benign tumors contain fewer mutations than cancers. T/F

A

True

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19
Q

A lipoma is a malignant tumor of mature fat cells. T/F

A

False

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20
Q
A loss or reduction of cellular differentiation is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. Metaplasia
B. Papilloma
C. Anaplasia
D. Hyperplasia
A

C. Anaplasia

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21
Q

Which of the following represents cells that are disorderly, but still non-neoplastic?
A. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Neoplasia

A

A. Dysplasia

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22
Q

Poorly differentiated tumors grow more rapidly than do well-differentiated tumors. T/F

A

True

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23
Q

Malignant tumors that are composed of undifferentiated cells are considered anaplastic. T/F

A

True

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24
Q
Which of the following is most likely to have a fibrous capsule?
A. Cancer
B. Malignant neoplasm
C. Secondary metastasis
D. Benign neoplasm
A

D. Benign neoplasm

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25
Q
Which of the following unequicovally identifies a tumor as being malignant?
A. Local invasiveness
B. A fast rate of growth
C. Metastasis
D. Anaplasia
A

C. Metastasis

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26
Q
Which 2 anatomic regions are most frequently involved sites of cancer metastasis?
A. Liver
B. Breast tissue
C. skeletal muscle
D. Lung
A

A. Liver and D. Lung

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27
Q
Where do Osteosarcomas commonly metastasize to?
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Skeletal Muscle
D. Breast Tissue
A

B. Lungs

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28
Q
Tumors of the gastrointestinal tract commonly metastasize to what organ? 
A. Lungs
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Hip bone
A

C. Liver

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29
Q

What type of dissemination is the most rapid?
A. Within the body cavity
B. Lymphatic
C. Hemotogenous

A

C. Hemotogenous

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30
Q

Carcinomas commonly use what type of dissemination?
A. Within the body cavity
B. Lymphatic
C. Hemotogenous

A

B. Lymphatic

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31
Q

What is the first lymph node in the metastasis pathway?
A. Jugulo-digastic node
B. Spleen
C. Sentinal

A

C. Sentinal

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32
Q
Tumors of the \_\_\_\_\_ are the most common cause of cancer-related deaths among females.
A. Breast
B. Ovary
C. Colorectal region
D. Lung
A

D. Lung

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33
Q
Among U.S. females, the death rate from uterine cervical cancer is \_\_\_\_\_ while the death rate from lung cancer is \_\_\_\_\_.
A. Increasing, increasing
B. Decreasing, decreasing
C. Increasing, decreasing
D. Decreasing, increasing
A

D. Decreasing, increasing

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34
Q

Environmental factors are the predominant cause of the most common sporadic cancers. T/F

A

True

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35
Q
Reduced immune competence and \_\_\_\_\_\_ are thought to contribute to the increased frequency of cancer as we age. 
A. Somatic mutations
B. Lysosomal apoptosis
C. Mitochondrial dysjunction
D. Calcium ion accumulation
A

A. Somatic mutations

36
Q
Most cancer-related mortality occurs between the ages of \_\_\_\_. 
A. 20-45 years
B. 33-50 years
C. 55-75 years
D. 70-85 years
A

C. 55-75 years

37
Q

A 34-year-old female does not have a BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation, but still developed breast cancer; this cancer is categorized as a(n) ______
A. Autosomal dominant cancer syndrome
B. Autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair
C. Familial cancers of uncertain inheritance
D. Acquired preneoplastic syndromes

A

C. Familial cancers of uncertain inheritance

38
Q

While preneoplastic lesions increase the likelihood of malignancy, most do not progress into cancer. T/F

A

True

39
Q
Which of the following is an autosomal recessive syndrome of defective DNA repair?
A. Bronchogenic carcinoma
B. Xeroderma pigmentosum
C. Prostatic adenocarcinoma
D. Retinoblastoma
A

B. Xeroderma pigmentosum

40
Q
Tumor supporessor genes (TSGs) prevent uncontrolled growth and the typical loss of function mutation, involved with altered TSGs, require a loss of \_\_ normla allele(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

A. 1

41
Q
Which of the following is a normal gene that has a high potential to cause cancer when mutated, such as a gene that regulates apoptosis?
A. Proto-oncogene
B. Dabble-fixed gene
C. Expirion
D. Genejacket
A

A. Proto-oncogene

42
Q

Oncogeneic mutation are ______ because the mutations of a single allele can lead to phenotypic change.
A. Dominant
B. Recessive

A

A. Dominant

43
Q
Which of the following is least likely to be involved with oncogenesis?
A. Proto-oncogenes
B. Genes that regulate noncoding DNA
C. Genes involved with DNA repair
D. Tumor suppressor gene
A

B. Genes that regulate noncoding DNA

44
Q
Over 90% of all cases of chronic myelogenous leukemia involve a(n) \_\_\_\_\_ of chromosomes 9 and 22, which is referred to as a Philadelphia chromosome.
A. Deletion
B. Balanced Translocation
C. Gene amplification 
D. Epigenetic modification
A

B. Balanced Translocation

45
Q
An abnormal number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of organism's haploid is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. metaplasia
B. karyotype
C. Epigenetic
D. Aneuploidy
A

D. Aneuploidy

46
Q
Which of the following refers to a reversible, heritable change in gene expression that occurs without mutations?
A. Carcinogen
B. Epigenetic modification
C. Epiplasia
D. Mutagen
A

B. Epigenetic modification

47
Q
Which of the following involves DNA methylation and histone modifications to cause changes in gene expression?
A. Phenotypic dominance
B. Epigenetics
C. Genetic Karyotyping
D. Allelic aneuploidy
A

B. Epigenetics

48
Q

MicroRNAs _____ gene expression and may be increased or reduced in their function.
A. Stimulate
B. Inhibit

A

B. Inhibit

49
Q

Epigenetic modifications may not alter cellular appearance and function (phenotype), but mutations can. T/F

A

False

50
Q

Over time, tumors become more aggressive and less responsive to therapy. T/F

A

True

51
Q

Cancer cells may develop self-sufficiency by acquiring the ability to synthesize the same growth factors to which they are responsive. T/F

A

True

52
Q

Cancer cells can become self-sufficient by becoming hyperresponsive to external growth factors by altering growth factors. T/F

A

True

53
Q
Which of the following is a rate-limiting step in he cell cycle that is commonly referred to as a restriction point?
A. G0-G1 phase
B. G1-S phase
C. S-G2 phase
D. S-G0 phase
A

B. G1-S Phase

54
Q

The activation of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDKI) proteins will _____ the cell cycle.
A. Speed up
B. Slow down

A

B. Slow Down

55
Q

ALL cancers have genetic mutations that disable the G1-S phase checkpoint of the cell cycle. T/F

A

True

56
Q

Inactivation of the RB gene requires alterations to both of the normal RB gene alleles. T/F

A

True

57
Q
The RB protein regulates the \_\_\_\_\_\_
A. G1-S phase
B. G2-G3 phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
A

A. G1-S phase

58
Q

Human papillomavirus may encode proteins that bind to RB proteins and render them nonfunctional. T/F

A

True

59
Q
The TP53 gene is an example of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Proto-oncogene
B. Oncogene
C. Tumor suppressor gene
D. Oncovirus
A

C. Tumor suppressor gene

60
Q
If DNA damage is detected, the products of the TP53 gene stimulate cellular arrest in which phase of the cell cycle?
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
A

A. G1

61
Q
The TP53 gene is not involved with \_\_\_\_.
A. Temporary cell cycle arrest 
B. Permanent cell cycle arrest
C. Necrosis
D. Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
A

C. Necrosis

62
Q
Which of the following is a common example of a virus that can nullify the protective function of the TP53 gene?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Hepatitis B Virus
C. Varicella zoster virus
D. Rotavirus
A

B. Hepatitis B virus

63
Q

The ________ involves the activation of caspase-8 to initiate apoptosis.
A. Extrinsic (death receptor) pathway
B. Intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathway

A

A. Extrinsic (death receptor) pathway

64
Q
Many tumors metastasize to the organ that presents the first \_\_\_\_ they encounter after entering circulation. 
A. Skeletal muscle tissue
B. Parenchyma
C. Inflammatory reaction
D. Capillary bed
A

D. Capillary bed

65
Q

Dicentric Chromosomes are likely to be formed if p53 is present. T/F

A

False

66
Q

Virtually all cancers ______
A. produce their own growth factors
B. Metastasize
C. Resist Apoptosis

A

C. Resist Apoptosis

67
Q

Cancer cells rarely (

A

False

68
Q
In order to grow beyond \_\_\_\_\_ in diameter, tumor cells must stimulate angiogenesis. 
A. 1-2 mm
B. 5-6 mm
C. 1-2 cm
D. 5-6 cm
A

A. 1-2 mm

69
Q
Tumors can stimulate angiogenesis using \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. Existing capillaries
B. Endothelial Precursor Cells
C. Hemotogenous stem cells
D. A and B
A

D. A Existing capillaries and B Endothelial Precursor Cells

70
Q
What is the "glue" that holds epithelial cells together, which must be inactivated to initiate migration of a tumor cell?
A. G-protein
B. TP53
C. Whey proteins
D. E-cadherin
A

D. E-cadherin

71
Q

Once in circulation, aggregated tumor cells may be afforded protection from antitumor cells. T/F

A

True

72
Q
Microsatellite instability (MSI) is associated with which of the following? 
A. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
B. Leiomyoma of the uterus
C. Xeroderma pigmentosum
D. Breast cancer
A

A. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

73
Q
Patients with Xeroderma pigmentosum have an inherited defect in which DNA repair system?
A. Mismatch repair
B. Nucleotide excision repair
C. Homologous recombination repair
D. Weinert-Marchiori repair
A

B. Nucleotide excision repair

74
Q
When cancer cells transition to aerobic glycolysis, the phenomenon is called the \_\_\_\_\_.
A. Pentose-Phosphate pathway
B. Warburg effect
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Cori cycle
A

B. Warburg effect

75
Q

Patients with chronic gastrointestinal inflammation have a(n) _____ risk of developing cancer.
A. Increased
B. Decreased

A

A. Increased

76
Q
The chemical carcinogen aflatoxin B1 produces a "signiture mutation" on the \_\_\_\_\_ gene. 
A. APP
B. TP53
C. RB
D. Hepatitis C
A

B. TP53

77
Q

Direct-acting chemical carcinogens must be metabolized by the body prior to carcinogenic effects. T/F

A

False

78
Q
Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Human T cell lyphotrophic virus
C. Human Immunodeficiency virus
D. Human paopllomavirus
A

B. Human T cell lymphotrophic virus

79
Q
Hepatitis B or C infections are associated with \_\_\_ of all cases of hepatocellular carcinoma.
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 80%
D. 99%
A

C. 80%

80
Q
Epstein-Barr viral infections may contribute to oncogenesis by stimulating \_\_\_\_ proliferation. 
A. Monocyte
B. T cells
C. Cytokines
D. B cells
A

D. B cells

81
Q

Natural killer cells act as a first line of defense against tumor cells and require previous tumor cell sensitization. T/F

A

False

82
Q

Unexplained weight loss, muscle atrophy, hypermetabolic state associated with end-stage cancer is known as ____
A. Anorexia
B. Catabolic Atrophy
C. Cachexia

A

C. Cachexia

83
Q
Symptom complexes that occur within cancer pateints that cannot be explained by the effects of a tumor cell appear in \_\_\_\_ of patients. 
A. 1%
B. 15%
C. 85%
D. 99%
A

B. 15%

84
Q

Which of the following has been shown to have greater clinical value?
A. Cancer grading
B. Cancer staging

A

B. Cancer staging

85
Q
Breast cancer may stimulate parathyroid hormone, resulting in \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Hypercoagulability
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Septicemia
A

C. Hypercalcemia

86
Q
During surgery, a surgeon is likely to request a \_\_\_ to evaluate histological features of a tissue. 
A. Fine needle aspiration
B. Cytologic smear of shed cells
C. Gene expression profiling
D. Frozen section
A

B. Cytologic smear of shed cells