CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition) // CHAPTER 41 Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (10th Edition) Flashcards

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1
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*** 1. M.J. calls to tell the nurse that her 85-year-old mother has been nauseated all day and has vomited twice. Before the nurse hangs up and calls the health care provider, she should instruct M.J. to

a. administer antispasmodic drugs and observe skin turgor.
b. give her mother sips of water and elevate the head of her bed to prevent aspiration.
c. offer her mother a high-protein liquid supplement to drink to maintain her nutritional needs.
d. offer her mother large quantities of Gatorade to drink because older adults are at risk for sodium depletion.

A

b. give her mother sips of water and elevate the head of her bed to prevent aspiration.

Excessive replacement of fluid and electrolytes may result in adverse consequences for an older person who has heart failure or renal disease. An older adult with a decreased level of consciousness may be at high risk for aspiration of vomitus. The elderly are particularly susceptible to the central nervous system (CNS) side effects of antiemetic drugs; these drugs may produce confusion. Dosages should be reduced and efficacy closely evaluated. Older patients are more likely to have cardiac or renal insufficiency, which increases their risk for life-threatening fluid and electrolyte imbalances. High-protein drinks or high-sodium liquids may be contraindicated.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Tiana L.

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*** 2. The nurse explains to the patient with Vincent’s infection that treatment will include

a. smallpox vaccinations.
b. viscous lidocaine rinses.
c. amphotericin B suspension.
d. topical application of antibiotics.

A

d. topical application of antibiotics.

Vincent’s infection is treated with topical applications of antibiotics. Other treatments include rest (physical and mental); avoidance of tobacco and alcoholic beverages; soft, nutritious diet; correct oral hygiene habits; and mouth irrigations with hydrogen peroxide and saline solutions.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ashley S.

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3
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*** 3. The nurse teaching young adults about behaviors that put them at risk for oral cancer includes

a. discouraging use of chewing gum.
b. avoiding use of perfumed lip gloss.
c. avoiding use of smokeless tobacco.
d. discouraging drinking of carbonated beverages.

A

c. avoiding use of smokeless tobacco.

Oral cancer has several predisposing risks factors:

  • Lip: constant overexposure to sun, ruddy and fair complexion, recurrent herpetic lesions, irritation from pipe stem, syphilis, and immunosuppression
  • Tongue: tobacco, alcohol, chronic irritation, and syphilis
  • Oral cavity: poor oral hygiene, tobacco use (e.g., pipe and cigar smoking, snuff, chewing tobacco), chronic alcohol intake, chronic irritation (e.g., jagged tooth, ill-fitting prosthesis, chemical or mechanical irritants, and human papillomavirus [HPV] infection)

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ashley S.

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4
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*** 4. The nurse explains to the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) that this disorder

a. results in acid erosion of the esophagus from frequent vomiting.
b. will require surgical wrapping or repair of the pyloric sphincter to control the symptoms.
c. is the protrusion of a portion of the stomach into the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm.
d. often involves relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach contents to back up into the esophagus.

A

d. often involves relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach contents to back up into the esophagus.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) results when the defenses of the esophagus are overwhelmed by the reflux of acidic gastric contents into the lower esophagus. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is a common cause of gastric reflux.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ariel C.

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5
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*** 5. A patient who has undergone an esophagectomy for esophageal cancer develops increasing pain, fever, and dyspnea when a full liquid diet is started postoperatively. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most indicative of

a. an intolerance to the feedings.
b. extension of the tumor into the aorta.
c. leakage of fluid or foods into the mediastinum.
d. esophageal perforation with fistula formation into the lung.

A

c. leakage of fluid or foods into the mediastinum.

After esophageal surgery, the nurse should observe the patient for signs of leakage from the feeding tube into the mediastinum. Symptoms that indicate leakage are pain, increased temperature, and dyspnea.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Tiana L.

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6
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*** 6. The pernicious anemia that may accompany gastritis is due to

a. chronic autoimmune destruction of cobalamin stores in the body.
b. progressive gastric atrophy from chronic breakage in the mucosal barrier and blood loss.
c. a lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid-secreting cells of the gastric mucosa.
d. hyperchlorhydria resulting from an increase in acid-secreting parietal cells and degradation of RBCs.

A

c. a lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid-secreting cells of the gastric mucosa.

Gastritis may cause a loss of parietal cells as a result of atrophy. The source of intrinsic factor is also lost; the loss of intrinsic factor, a substance essential for the absorption of cobalamin in the terminal ileum, ultimately results in cobalamin deficiency. With time, the body’s storage of cobalamin is depleted, and a deficiency state exists. Because cobalamin is essential for the growth and maturation of red blood cells, the lack of cobalamin results in pernicious anemia and neurologic complications.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Tiana L.

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7
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*** 7. The nurse is teaching the patient and family that peptic ulcers are

a. caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid-producing factors such as H. pylori.
b. inherited within families and reinforced by bacterial spread of Staphylococcus aureus in childhood.
c. promoted by factors that tend to cause oversecretion of acid, such as excess dietary fats, smoking, and H. pylori.
d. promoted by a combination of factors that may result in erosion of the gastric mucosa, including certain drugs and alcohol.

A

d. promoted by a combination of factors that may result in erosion of the gastric mucosa, including certain drugs and alcohol.

Peptic ulcers develop only in the presence of an acidic environment. However, an excess of hydrochloric acid (HCl) may not be necessary for ulcer development. The back diffusion of HCl into the gastric mucosa results in cellular destruction and inflammation. Histamine is released from the damaged mucosa, which results in vasodilation and increased capillary permeability and further secretion of acid and pepsin. A variety of agents (certain infections, medications, and lifestyle factors) can damage the mucosal barrier. Helicobacter pylori can alter gastric secretion and produce tissue damage, which leads to peptic ulcer disease. The response to H. pylori is probably influenced by a variety of factors, including genetics, environment, and diet. Ulcerogenic drugs, such as aspirin and NSAIDs, inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins, increase gastric acid secretion, and reduce the integrity of the mucosal barrier. Patients taking corticosteroids, anticoagulants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g., fluoxetine [Prozac]) are also at increased risk for ulcers. High alcohol intake stimulates acid secretion and is associated with acute mucosal lesions. Coffee (caffeinated and uncaffeinated) is a strong stimulant of gastric acid secretion. Psychologic distress, including stress and depression, can hamper the healing of ulcers after they have developed. Smoking also delays ulcer healing. In addition, infection with herpes and cytomegalovirus (CMV) in immunocompromised patients may lead to gastric ulcers.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ariel C.

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8
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*** 8. An optimal teaching plan for an outpatient with stomach cancer receiving radiation therapy should include information about

a. cancer support groups, alopecia, and stomatitis.
b. avitaminosis, ostomy care, and community resources.
c. prosthetic devices, skin conductance, and grief counseling.
d. wound and skin care, nutrition, drugs, and community resources.

A

d. wound and skin care, nutrition, drugs, and community resources.

Radiation therapy is used as an adjuvant to surgery or for palliation in treatment of stomach cancer. The nurse’s role is to provide detailed instructions, to reassure the patient, and to ensure completion of the designated number of treatments. The nurse should start by assessing the patient’s knowledge of radiation therapy. The nurse should teach the patient about skin care, the need for nutrition and fluid intake during therapy, and the appropriate use of antiemetic drugs.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Tiana L.

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9
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*** 9. The teaching plan for the patient being discharged after an acute episode of upper GI bleeding includes information concerning the importance of:
Select all that apply.

a. only taking aspirin with milk or bread products.
b. avoiding taking aspirin and drugs containing aspirin.
c. only taking drugs prescribed by the health care provider.
d. taking all drugs 1 hour before mealtime to prevent further bleeding.
e. reading all OTC drug labels to avoid those containing stearic acid and calcium.

A

b. avoiding taking aspirin and drugs containing aspirin.
c. only taking drugs prescribed by the health care provider.

Before discharge, the patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and the caregiver should be taught how to avoid future bleeding episodes. Ulcer disease, drug or alcohol abuse, and liver and respiratory diseases can cause upper GI bleeding. Help make the patient and caregiver aware of the consequences of noncompliance with drug therapy. Emphasize that no drugs (especially aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]) other than those prescribed by the health care provider should be taken. Smoking and alcohol should be eliminated because they are sources of irritation and interfere with tissue repair.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ariel C.

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10
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** 10. Several patients are seen at an urgent care center with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea that began 2 hours ago while attending a large family reunion potluck dinner. You question the patients specifically about foods they ingested containing

a. beef.
b. meat and milk.
c. poultry and eggs.
d. home-preserved vegetables.

A

b. meat and milk.

Staphylococcus aureus toxins provoke onset of symptoms (vomiting, nausea, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea) within 30 minutes up to 7 hours. Meat, bakery products, cream fillings, salad dressings, and milk are the usual sources of these toxins from the skin and respiratory tract of food handlers.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Tiana L.

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11
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*** 1. Which patients would be at highest risk for developing oral candidiasis?

a. A 74-year-old patient who has vitamin B and C deficiencies
b. A 22-year-old patient who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day
c. A 58-year-old patient who is receiving amphotericin B for 2 days
d. A 32-year-old patient who is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3 weeks

A

d. A 32-year-old patient who is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3 weeks

Oral candidiasis is caused by prolonged antibiotic treatment (e.g., ciprofloxacin) or high doses of corticosteroids. Amphotericin B is used to treat candidiasis. Vitamin B and C deficiencies are rare but may lead to Vincent’s infection. Use of tobacco products leads to stomatitis.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ariel C.

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12
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*** 2. The nurse teaches senior citizens at a community center how to prevent food poisoning at their informal social events. The nurse determines that teaching is successful if a community member makes which statement?

a. “Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink.”
b. “Alfalfa sprouts are safe if rinsed before eating.”
c. “Fresh fruits do not need to be washed before eating.”
d. “Ground beef is safe to eat if cooked until it is brown.”

A

a. “Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink.”

Drink only pasteurized milk, juice, or cider. Ground beef should be cooked thoroughly. Browned meat can still harbor live bacteria. Cook ground beef until a thermometer reads at least 160° F. If a thermometer is unavailable, decrease risk of illness by cooking the ground beef until there is no pink color in the middle. Fruits and vegetables should be washed thoroughly, especially those that will not be cooked. Persons who are immunocompromised or older should avoid eating alfalfa sprouts until the safety of the sprouts can be ensured.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ashley S.

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13
Q

*** 3. The nurse receives an order for a parenteral dose of promethazine (Phenergan) and prepares to administer the medication to a 38-year-old male patient with nausea and repeated vomiting. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

a. Administer the medication subcutaneously for fast absorption.
b. Administer the medication into an arterial line to prevent extravasation.
c. Administer the medication deep into the muscle to prevent tissue damage.
d. Administer the medication with 0.5 mL of lidocaine to decrease injection pain.

A

c. Administer the medication deep into the muscle to prevent tissue damage.

Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine administered to relieve nausea and vomiting. Deep muscle injection is the preferred route of injection administration. This medication should not be administered into an artery or under the skin because of the risk of severe tissue injury, including gangrene. When administered IV, a risk factor is that it can leach out from the vein and cause serious damage to surrounding tissue.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ariel C.

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14
Q

*** 4. The nurse cares for a postoperative patient who has just vomited yellow green liquid and reports nausea. Which action would be an appropriate nursing intervention?

a. Offer the patient a herbal supplement such as ginseng.
b. Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care.
c. Take the patient for a walk in the hallway to promote peristalsis.
d. Discontinue any medications that may cause nausea or vomiting.

A

b. Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care.

Cleansing the face and hands with a cool washcloth and providing mouth care are appropriate comfort interventions for nausea and vomiting. Ginseng is not used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Unnecessary activity should be avoided. The patient should rest in a quiet environment. Medications may be temporarily withheld until the acute phase is over, but the medications should not be discontinued without consultation with the health care provider.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Martinika M.

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15
Q

*** 5. A 74-year-old female patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) takes over-the-counter medications. For which medication, if taken long-term, should the nurse teach about an increased risk of fractures?

a. Sucralfate (Carafate)
b. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
c. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
d. Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A

c. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

There is a potential link between proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) (e.g., omeprazole) use and bone metabolism. Long-term use or high doses of PPIs may increase the risk of fractures of the hip, wrist, and spine. Lower doses or shorter duration of therapy should be considered.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Irma G.

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16
Q

*** 1. The results of a patient’s recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which teaching point should the nurse provide to the patient based on this new diagnosis?

a. “You’ll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily.”
b. “It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol.”
c. “Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their symptoms of PUD.”
d. “Your medications should allow you to maintain your present diet while minimizing symptoms.”

A

b. “It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol.”

Alcohol increases the amount of stomach acid produced so it should be avoided. Although there is no specific recommended dietary modification for PUD, most patients find it necessary to make some sort of dietary modifications to minimize symptoms. Milk may exacerbate PUD.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ariel C.

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17
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*** 2. Following administration of a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) to the patient, the nurse determines that the medication has been effective when what is noted?

a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Absence of muscle tremors
c. Relief of nausea and vomiting
d. No further episodes of diarrhea

A

c. Relief of nausea and vomiting

Metoclopramide is classified as a prokinetic and antiemetic medication. If it is effective, the patient’s nausea and vomiting should resolve. Metoclopramide does not affect blood pressure, muscle tremors, or diarrhea.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Huyen T.

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18
Q

*** 3. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain and has a rigid, boardlike abdomen that prompts the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?

a. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube
b. Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient’s gastric pH level
c. Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate
d. Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler’s position

A

a. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube

A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth, and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient’s suspected diagnosis, and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Ashley S.

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19
Q

*** 4. The patient who is admitted with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and a history of irritable bowel disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has received a dose of Mylanta 30 mL PO. The nurse should evaluate its effectiveness by questioning the patient as to whether which symptom has been resolved?

a. Diarrhea
b. Heartburn
c. Constipation
d. Lower abdominal pain

A

b. Heartburn

Mylanta is an antacid that contains both aluminum and magnesium. It is indicated for the relief of GI discomfort, such as heartburn associated with GERD. Mylanta can cause both diarrhea and constipation as a side effect. Mylanta does not affect lower abdominal pain.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Alex S.

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20
Q

*** 5. After administering a dose of promethazine (Phenergan) to a patient with nausea and vomiting, what common temporary adverse effect of the medication does the nurse explain may be experienced?

a. Tinnitus
b. Drowsiness
c. Reduced hearing
d. Sensation of falling

A

b. Drowsiness

Although being given to this patient as an antiemetic, promethazine also has sedative and amnesic properties. For this reason, the patient is likely to experience drowsiness as an adverse effect of the medication. Tinnitus, reduced hearing, and loss of balance are not side effects of promethazine.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Huyen T.

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21
Q

*** 6. The nurse determines that a patient has experienced the beneficial effects of therapy with famotidine (Pepcid) when which symptom is relieved?

a. Nausea
b. Belching
c. Epigastric pain
d. Difficulty swallowing

A

c. Epigastric pain

Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits parietal cell output of HCl acid and minimizes damage to gastric mucosa related to hyperacidity, thus relieving epigastric pain. Famotidine is not indicated for nausea, belching, and dysphagia.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Alex S.

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22
Q

*** 7. The patient is having a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer. What long-term complication is occurring when the patient reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating?

a. Malnutrition
b. Bile reflux gastritis
c. Dumping syndrome
d. Postprandial hypoglycemia

A

c. Dumping syndrome

After a Billroth I operation, dumping syndrome may occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating because of the hypertonic fluid going to the intestine and additional fluid being drawn into the bowel. Malnutrition may occur but does not cause these symptoms. Bile reflux gastritis cannot happen when the stomach has been removed. Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs with similar symptoms, but 2 hours after eating.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Alex S.

23
Q

*** 8. A patient complains of nausea. When administering a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan), the nurse should teach the patient to report which potential adverse effect?

a. Tremors
b. Constipation
c. Double vision
d. Numbness in fingers and toes

A

a. Tremors

Extrapyramidal side effects, including tremors and tardive dyskinesias, may occur as a result of metoclopramide (Reglan) administration. Constipation, double vision, and numbness in fingers and toes are not adverse effects of metoclopramide.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Alex S.

24
Q

*** 9. A female patient has a sliding hiatal hernia. What nursing interventions will prevent the symptoms of heartburn and dyspepsia that she is experiencing?

a. Keep the patient NPO.
b. Put the bed in the Trendelenberg position.
c. Have the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day.
d. Give various antacids to determine which one works for the patient.

A

c. Have the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day.

Eating smaller meals during the day will decrease the gastric pressure and the symptoms of hiatal hernia. Keeping the patient NPO or in a Trendelenberg position are not safe or realistic for a long period of time for any patient. Varying antacids will only be done with the care provider’s prescription, so this is not a nursing intervention.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Alex S.

25
Q

*** 10. The patient receiving chemotherapy rings the call bell and reports the onset of nausea. The nurse should prepare an as-needed dose of which medication?

a. Morphine sulfate
b. Zolpidem (Ambien)
c. Ondansetron (Zofran)
d. Dexamethasone (Decadron)

A

c. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic that is especially effective in reducing cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Morphine sulfate may cause nausea and vomiting. Zolpidem does not relieve nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is usually used in combination with ondansetron for acute and chemotherapy-induced emesis.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Martinika M.

26
Q

*** 11. The nurse is caring for a patient treated with IV fluid therapy for severe vomiting. As the patient recovers and begins to tolerate oral intake, which food choice does the nurse understand would be most appropriate?

a. Iced tea
b. Dry toast
c. Hot coffee
d. Plain hamburger

A

b. Dry toast

Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting. Water is the initial fluid of choice. Extremely hot or cold liquids and fatty foods are generally not well tolerated.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Irma G.

27
Q

*** 12. A patient reports having a dry mouth and asks for something to drink. The nurse recognizes that this symptom can most likely be attributed to a common adverse effect of which medication that the patient is taking?

a. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
b. Cefotetan (Cefotan)
c. Famotidine (Pepcid)
d. Promethazine (Phenergan)

A

d. Promethazine (Phenergan)

A common adverse effect of promethazine, an antihistamine/antiemetic agent, is dry mouth; another is blurred vision. Common side effects of digoxin are yellow halos and bradycardia. Common side effects of cefotetan are nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, and diarrhea. Common side effects of famotidine are headache, abdominal pain, constipation, or diarrhea.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Martinika M.

28
Q

*** 13. The patient is having an esophagoenterostomy with anastomosis of a segment of the colon to replace the resected portion. What initial postoperative care should the nurse expect when this patient returns to the nursing unit?

a. Turn, deep breathe, cough, and use spirometer every 4 hours.
b. Maintain an upright position for at least 2 hours after eating.
c. NG will have bloody drainage, and it should not be repositioned.
c. Keep in a supine position to prevent movement of the anastomosis.

A

c. NG will have bloody drainage, and it should not be repositioned.

The patient will have bloody drainage from the NG tube for 8 to 12 hours, and it should not be repositioned or reinserted without contacting the surgeon. Turning and deep breathing will be done every 2 hours, and the spirometer will be used more often than every 4 hours. Coughing would put too much pressure in the area and should not be done. Because the patient will have the NG tube, the patient will not be eating yet. The patient should be kept in a semi-Fowler’s or Fowler’s position, not supine, to prevent reflux and aspiration of secretions.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Amanda Z.

29
Q

*** 14. The patient with chronic gastritis is being put on a combination of medications to eradicate H. pylori. Which drugs does the nurse know will probably be used for this patient?

a. Antibiotic(s), antacid, and corticosteroid
b. Antibiotic(s), aspirin, and antiulcer/protectant
c. Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth
d. Antibiotic(s) and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A

c. Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth

To eradicate H. pylori, a combination of antibiotics, a proton pump inhibitor, and possibly bismuth (for quadruple therapy) will be used. Corticosteroids, aspirin, and NSAIDs are drugs that can cause gastritis and do not affect H. pylori.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Amanda Z.

30
Q

*** 15. A 72-year-old patient was admitted with epigastric pain due to a gastric ulcer. Which patient assessment warrants an urgent change in the nursing plan of care?

a. Chest pain relieved with eating or drinking water
b. Back pain 3 or 4 hours after eating a meal
c. Burning epigastric pain 90 minutes after breakfast
d. Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion

A

d. Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion

A rigid abdomen with vomiting in a patient who has a gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer, especially if the manifestations of perforation appear suddenly. Midepigastric pain is relieved by eating, drinking water, or antacids with duodenal ulcers, not gastric ulcers. Back pain 3-4 hours after a meal is more likely to occur with a duodenal ulcer. Burning epigastric pain 1-2 hours after a meal is an expected manifestation of a gastric ulcer related to increased gastric secretions and does not cause an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Martinika M.

31
Q

*** 16. The nurse is teaching a group of high school students about the prevention of food poisoning. Which comment by the student shows understanding of foodborne illness protection?

a. “We like to mix up the ingredients so the flavors will melt before we cook our beef stew.”
b. “For a snack, I like to eat raw cookie dough from the package instead of baking the cookies.”
c. “We only have one cutting board, so we cut up our chicken and salad vegetables at the same time.”
d. “When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate.”

A

d. “When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate.”

The student who did not accept the pink hamburger and asked for a new bun and clean plate understood that the pink meat may not have reached 160° and could be contaminated with bacteria. Mixing ingredients and leaving them long enough for the flavors to melt, eating raw cookie dough from a refrigerated package, and only using one cutting board without washing it with hot soapy water between the chicken and salad vegetables could all lead to food poisoning from contamination.

CHAPTER 42 Nursing Management Upper Gastrointestinal Problems (9th Edition)
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Irma G.

32
Q

*** 17. A patient is seeking emergency care after choking on a piece of steak. The nursing assessment reveals a history of alcoholism, cigarette smoking, and hemoptysis. Which diagnostic study is most likely to be performed on this patient?

a. Barium swallow
b. Endoscopic biopsy
c. Capsule endoscopy
d. Endoscopic ultrasonography

A

b. Endoscopic biopsy

Because of this patient’s history of excessive alcohol intake, smoking, hemoptysis, and the current choking episode, cancer may be present. A biopsy is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of carcinoma, so an endoscope will be used to obtain a biopsy and observe other abnormalities as well. A barium swallow may show narrowing of the esophagus, but it is more diagnostic for achalasia. An endoscopic ultrasonography may be used to stage esophageal cancer. Capsule endoscopy can show alterations in the esophagus but is more often used for small intestine problems. A barium swallow, capsule endoscopy, and endoscopic ultrasonography cannot provide a definitive diagnosis for cancer when it is suspected.

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33
Q
  1. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen. The health care provider suspects a perforated ulcer. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate?
    a. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube
    b. Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient’s gastric pH level
    c. Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate
    d. Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler’s position
A

a. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube

A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth, and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient’s suspected diagnosis, and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term.

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34
Q
  1. After administration of a dose of metoclopramide, which patient assessment finding would show the medication was effective?
    a. Decreased blood pressure
    b. Absence of muscle tremors
    c. Relief of nausea and vomiting
    d. No further episodes of diarrhea
A

c. Relief of nausea and vomiting

Metoclopramide is classified as a prokinetic and antiemetic medication. If it is effective, the patient’s nausea and vomiting should resolve. Metoclopramide does not affect blood pressure, muscle tremors, or diarrhea.

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35
Q
  1. The nurse determines a patient has experienced the beneficial effects of therapy with famotidine when which symptom is relieved?
    a. Nausea
    b. Belching
    c. Epigastric pain
    d. Difficulty swallowing
A

c. Epigastric pain

Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits parietal cell output of HCl acid and minimizes damage to gastric mucosa related to hyperacidity, thus relieving epigastric pain. It is not indicated for nausea, belching, and dysphagia.

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36
Q
  1. A patient who had a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating. What long-term complication does the nurse suspect is occurring?
    a. Malnutrition
    b. Bile reflux gastritis
    c. Dumping syndrome
    d. Postprandial hypoglycemia
A

c. Dumping syndrome

After a Billroth I operation, dumping syndrome may occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating because of the hypertonic fluid going to the intestine and additional fluid being drawn into the bowel. Malnutrition may occur but does not cause these symptoms. Bile reflux gastritis cannot happen when the stomach has been removed. Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs with similar symptoms, but 2 hours after eating.

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37
Q
  1. The nurse is teaching a group of college students how to prevent food poisoning. Which comment shows an understanding of foodborne illness protection?
    a. “Eating raw cookie dough from the package is a great snack when you do not have time to bake.”
    b. “Since we only have one cutting board, we can cut up chicken and salad vegetables at the same time.”
    c. “To save refrigerator space, leftover food can be kept on the counter if it is in sealed containers.”
    d. “When the cafeteria gave me a pink hamburger, I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate.”
A

d. “When the cafeteria gave me a pink hamburger, I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate.”

The student who did not accept the pink hamburger and asked for a new bun and clean plate understood that the pink meat may not have reached 160°F and could be contaminated with bacteria. Improperly storing cooked foods, eating raw cookie dough from a refrigerated package, and only using one cutting board without washing it with hot soapy water between the chicken and salad vegetables could all lead to food poisoning from contamination.

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38
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient treated with IV fluid therapy for severe vomiting. As the patient recovers and begins to tolerate oral intake, which food choice would be most appropriate?
    a. Iced tea
    b. Dry toast
    c. Hot coffee
    d. Plain yogurt
A

b. Dry toast

Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting. Water is the initial fluid of choice. Extremely hot or cold liquids and fatty foods are generally not well tolerated.

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39
Q
  1. The nurse teaches senior citizens at a community center how to prevent food poisoning at social events. Which community member statement reflects accurate understanding?
    a. “Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink.”
    b. “Alfalfa sprouts are safe if rinsed before eating.”
    c. “Fresh fruits do not need to be washed before eating.”
    d. “Ground beef is safe to eat if cooked until it is brown.”
A

a. “Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink.”

Drink only pasteurized milk, juice, or cider. Ground beef should be cooked thoroughly. Browned meat can still harbor live bacteria. Cook ground beef until a thermometer reads at least 160° F. If a thermometer is unavailable, decrease the risk of illness by cooking the ground beef until there is no pink color in the middle. Fruits and vegetables should be washed thoroughly, especially those that will not be cooked. Persons who are immunocompromised or older should avoid eating alfalfa sprouts until the safety of the sprouts can be ensured.

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40
Q
  1. A patient complaining of nausea receives a dose of metoclopramide. Which potential adverse effect should the nurse tell the patient to report?
    a. Tremors
    b. Constipation
    c. Double vision
    d. Numbness in fingers and toes
A

a. Tremors

Extrapyramidal side effects, including tremors and tardive dyskinesias, may occur with metoclopramide administration. Constipation, double vision, and numbness in fingers and toes are not adverse effects of metoclopramide.

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41
Q
  1. The patient receiving chemotherapy rings the call bell and reports the onset of nausea. The nurse should prepare an as-needed dose of which medication?
    a. Zolpidem
    b. Ondansetron
    c. Dexamethasone
    d. Morphine sulfate
A

b. Ondansetron

Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic that is especially effective in reducing cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Morphine sulfate may cause nausea and vomiting. Zolpidem does not relieve nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is usually used in combination with ondansetron for acute and chemotherapy-induced emesis.

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42
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who complains of abdominal pain and hematemesis. Which new assessment finding(s) would indicate the patient is experiencing a decline in condition?
    a. Pallor and diaphoresis
    b. Ecchymotic peripheral IV site
    c. Guaiac-positive diarrhea stools
    d. Heart rate 90, respiratory rate 20, BP 110/60
A

a. Pallor and diaphoresis

A patient with hematemesis has some degree of bleeding from an unknown source. Guaiac-positive diarrhea stools would be an expected finding. When monitoring the patient for stability, the nurse observes for signs of hypovolemic shock such as tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, altered level of consciousness, pallor, and cool and clammy skin. An ecchymotic peripheral IV site will require assessment to determine the need for reinsertion. Access would be critical in the immediate treatment of shock, but the ecchymotic site does not represent a decline in condition.

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43
Q
  1. A patient was admitted with epigastric pain because of a gastric ulcer. Which patient assessment warrants an urgent change in the nursing plan of care?
    a. Back pain 3 or 4 hours after eating a meal
    b. Chest pain relieved with eating or drinking water
    c. Burning epigastric pain 90 minutes after breakfast
    d. Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion
A

d. Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion

A rigid abdomen with vomiting in a patient who has a gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer, especially if the manifestations of perforation appear suddenly. Midepigastric pain is relieved by eating, drinking water, or antacids with duodenal ulcers, not gastric ulcers. Back pain 3 to 4 hours after a meal is more likely to occur with a duodenal ulcer. Burning epigastric pain 1 to 2 hours after a meal is an expected manifestation of a gastric ulcer related to increased gastric secretions and does not cause an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.

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44
Q
  1. The patient who is admitted with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and a history of irritable bowel disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has received a dose of Mylanta 30 mL PO. The nurse will determine the medication was effective when which symptom has been resolved?
    a. Diarrhea
    b. Heartburn
    c. Constipation
    d. Lower abdominal pain
A

b. Heartburn

Mylanta is an antacid that contains both aluminum and magnesium. It is indicated for the relief of gastrointestinal discomfort, such as heartburn associated with GERD. Mylanta can cause both diarrhea and constipation as a side effect. Mylanta does not affect lower abdominal pain.

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45
Q
  1. The patient with chronic gastritis is being put on a combination of medications to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. Which drugs does the nurse know will probably be used?
    a. Antibiotic(s), antacid, and corticosteroid
    b. Antibiotic(s), aspirin, and antiulcer/protectant
    c. Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth
    d. Antibiotic(s) and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
A

c. Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth

To eradicate H. pylori, a combination of antibiotics, a proton pump inhibitor, and possibly bismuth (for quadruple therapy) will be used. Corticosteroids, aspirin, and NSAIDs are drugs that can cause gastritis and do not affect H. pylori.

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46
Q
  1. After administering a dose of promethazine to a patient with nausea and vomiting, what medication side effect does the nurse explain is common and expected?
    a. Tinnitus
    b. Drowsiness
    c. Reduced hearing
    d. Sensation of falling
A

b. Drowsiness

Although being given to this patient as an antiemetic, promethazine also has sedative and amnesic properties. For this reason, the patient is likely to experience drowsiness as an adverse effect of the medication. Tinnitus, reduced hearing, and loss of balance are not side effects of promethazine.

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47
Q
  1. A patient with oral cancer is not eating. A small-bore feeding tube was inserted and the patient started on enteral feedings. Which patient goal would indicate improvement?
    a. Weight gain of 1 kg in 1 week
    b. Administer tube feeding at 25 mL/hr.
    c. Consume 50% of clear liquid tray this shift.
    d. Monitor for tube for placement and gastrointestinal residual.
A

a. Weight gain of 1 kg in 1 week

The goal for a patient with oral cancer that is not eating would be to note weight gain rather than loss. Consuming 50% of the clear liquid tray is not a realistic goal. Administering feedings, monitoring tube placement, and tolerance are interventions used to achieve the goal.

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48
Q
  1. Which patient would be at highest risk for developing oral candidiasis?
    a. A 74-yr-old patient who has vitamin B and C deficiencies
    b. A 22-yr-old patient who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day
    c. A 32-yr-old patient who is receiving ciprofloxacin for 3 weeks
    d. A 58-yr-old patient who is receiving amphotericin B for 2 days
A

c. A 32-yr-old patient who is receiving ciprofloxacin for 3 weeks

Oral candidiasis is caused by prolonged antibiotic treatment (e.g., ciprofloxacin) or high doses of corticosteroids. Amphotericin B is used to treat candidiasis. Vitamin B and C deficiencies may lead to Vincent’s infection. Use of tobacco products leads to stomatitis, not candidiasis.

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49
Q
  1. A patient is seeking emergency care after choking on a piece of steak. The nursing assessment reveals a history of alcoholism, cigarette smoking, and hemoptysis. Which diagnostic study is most likely to be performed on this patient?
    a. Barium swallow
    b. Endoscopic biopsy
    c. Capsule endoscopy
    d. Endoscopic ultrasonography
A

b. Endoscopic biopsy

Because of this patient’s history of excessive alcohol intake, smoking, and hemoptysis and the current choking episode, cancer may be present. A biopsy is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of carcinoma, so an endoscope will be used to obtain a biopsy and observe other abnormalities as well. A barium swallow may show narrowing of the esophagus, but it is more diagnostic for achalasia. An endoscopic ultrasonography may be used to stage esophageal cancer. Capsule endoscopy can show alterations in the esophagus but is more often used for small intestine problems. A barium swallow, capsule endoscopy, and endoscopic ultrasonography cannot provide a definitive diagnosis for cancer.

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50
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has just vomited yellow green liquid and reports nausea. Which action would be an appropriate nursing intervention?
    a. Offer the patient an herbal supplement such as ginseng.
    b. Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care.
    c. Take the patient for a walk in the hallway to promote peristalsis.
    d. Discontinue any medications that may cause nausea or vomiting.
A

b. Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care.

Cleansing the face and hands with a cool washcloth and providing mouth care are appropriate comfort interventions for nausea and vomiting. Ginseng is not used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Unnecessary activity should be avoided. The patient should rest in a quiet environment. Medications may be temporarily withheld until the acute phase is over, but the medications should not be discontinued without consultation with the health care provider.

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51
Q
  1. A patient has a sliding hiatal hernia. What nursing intervention will reduce the symptoms of heartburn and dyspepsia?
    a. Keeping the patient NPO
    b. Putting the bed in the Trendelenburg position
    c. Having the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day
    d. Giving various antacids to determine which one works for the patient
A

c. Having the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day

Eating smaller meals during the day will decrease the gastric pressure and symptoms of hiatal hernia. Keeping the patient NPO or in a Trendelenburg position is not safe or realistic for a long period of time for any patient. Varying antacids will only be done with the health care provider’s prescription, so this is not a nursing intervention.

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52
Q
  1. A 74-yr-old female patient with osteoporosis is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which over-the-counter medication to treat GERD should be used with caution?
    a. Sucralfate
    b. Cimetidine
    c. Omeprazole
    d. Metoclopramide
A

c. Omeprazole

There is a potential link between proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) (e.g., omeprazole) use and bone metabolism. Long-term use or high doses of PPIs may increase the risk of fractures of the hip, wrist, and spine.

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53
Q
  1. The patient is having an esophagoenterostomy with anastomosis of a segment of the colon to replace the resected portion. What initial postoperative care should the nurse expect when this patient returns to the nursing unit?
    a. Turn, deep breathe, cough, and use spirometer every 4 hours.
    b. Maintain an upright position for at least 2 hours after eating.
    c. NG will have bloody drainage and it should not be repositioned.
    d. Keep in a supine position to prevent movement of the anastomosis.
A

c. NG will have bloody drainage and it should not be repositioned.

The patient will have bloody drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube for 8 to 12 hours, and it should not be repositioned or reinserted without contacting the surgeon. Turning and deep breathing will be done every 2 hours, and the spirometer will be used more often than every 4 hours. Coughing would put too much pressure in the area and should not be done. Because the patient will have the NG tube, the patient will not be eating yet. The patient should be kept in a semi-Fowler’s or Fowler’s position, not supine, to prevent reflux and aspiration of secretions.

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54
Q
  1. The results of a patient’s recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which teaching point should the nurse provide to the patient based on this new diagnosis?
    a. “It would be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol.”
    b. “You’ll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily.”
    c. “Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their symptoms of PUD.”
    d. “Taking medication will allow you to keep your present diet while minimizing symptoms.”
A

a. “It would be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol.”

Alcohol increases the amount of stomach acid produced. so it should be avoided. Although there is no specific recommended dietary modification for PUD, most patients find it necessary to make some sort of dietary modifications to minimize symptoms. Milk may exacerbate PUD.

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