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PHR Exam > Chapter 4 (Workforce Planning and Employment) > Flashcards

Chapter 4 (Workforce Planning and Employment) Flashcards

1
Q

What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 introduce?

A

The concepts of protected classes and unlawful employment practices to American business

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2
Q

What is disparate treatment?

A

Happens when employers treat some candidates or employees differently

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3
Q

What is disparate impact?

A

Practices that seem fair on their face but result in adverse impact on members of protected classes

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4
Q

What is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)?

A

Occur when religion, sex or national origin is “reasonably necessary to the normal operation” of the business

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5
Q

What is the Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA) of 1972?

A

Provides litigation authority to the EEOC; extended coverage to education institutions, state and local governments and federal governments; reduced the number of employees needed to subject an employer to coverage from 25 to 15; required employers to keep records

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6
Q

What is the Pregnancy Discrimination Act (PDA) of 1978?

A

Clarifies that discrimination against women on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or any related medical condition is an unlawful employment practice

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7
Q

What is the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967?

A

Purpose is to promote employment of older persons based on their ability rather than age; prohibits discrimination against persons 40 years or older; applies to businesses with more than 20 employees

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8
Q

How long must an employee be given to review a waiver under ADEA?

A

45 days

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9
Q

How long does one have to file a EEO complaint?

A

In states without Fair Employment Practices Agencies (FEPA), must file within 180 days o the incident.
In states with a FEPA, must file within 300 days of the incident

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10
Q

What is the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990?

A

Extended protected class status to qualified persons with disabilities; prohibits discrimination in hiring, advancement, discharge, compensation, job training and privileges;

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11
Q

What requirements are placed on employers under the ADA?

A

Must make reasonable accommodations unless they constitute an undue hardship that places excessive burden on the employer.

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12
Q

How does the ADA define Disability?

A

A physical or mental impairment that causes substantial limitation to one or more major life activities for an individual

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13
Q

How does the ADA define Major Life Activity?

A

General activity (caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, breathing, learning, reading, concentration, thinking, communicating, working) and Major bodily functions (functions of the immune system, normal cell growth, functions of the digestive, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain respiratory, circulatory, endocrine and reproductive systems

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the Civil Rights Act (CRA) of 1991?

A

To provide appropriate remedies for intentional discrimination and unlawful harassment in the workplace; to codify the concepts of business necessity and job related (Griggs v. Duke Power Co); to confirm statutory authority and provide statutory guidelines; to respond to recent decisions of the Supreme Court

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15
Q

What is the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) of 2008?

A

Prohibts employers from unlawfully discrimination against employees or their family members in any of the terms or conditions of employment included in Title VII.

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16
Q

What is the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Sections 501, 503 and 505?

A

Was enacted to expand the opportunities available for persons with physical or mental disabilities; applies to agencies of the federal government and federal contractors with contracts of $10,000 or more during a 12-month period

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17
Q

What is the Vietnam Era Veterans’ Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRAA) of 1974?

A

Applies to federal contractors or subcontractors with contracts of $25,000 or more; requires federal contractors to list all job openings with state employment agencies unless they are senior-level management positions

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18
Q

What is an Executive Order (EO)?

A

Presidential proclamations that, when published in the Federal Register, become law after 30 days.

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19
Q

What is EO 11246?

A

Established in 1965, prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of race, creed, color, or national origin and requires affirmative steps be taken in advertising jobs, recruiting, employing, training, promotion, compensation and terminating employees.

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20
Q

What is EO 11375?

A

Created in 1967, amended EO 11246 and expanded coverage for protected classes to include discrimination on the basis of sex

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21
Q

What is EO 11478?

A

Written in 1969, expanded the scope of EO 11246 by adding handicapped individuals and persons 40 years of age or older to the list of protected class

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22
Q

What is EO 12138?

A

In 1979, implemented the National Women’s Business Enterprise policy; required federal contractors and subcontractors to take affirmative steps to promote and support women’s business enterprises

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23
Q

What is EO 13087?

A

In 1998, expanded coverage to include sexual orientation

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24
Q

What is EO 13152?

A

Written in 2000, added status as a parent to the list of protected classes

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25
Q

What is EO 13279?

A

Limited the impact of EO 11246 on faith-based and community organizations providing social services as federal contractors or subcontractors

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26
Q

What are the two levels of compliance required by EO’s?

A

Applies to contractors totaling $10,000 or more in a 12-month period and requires them to take affirmative action in employment actions.
Applies to contractors with 50 or more employees who have contracts of $50,000 or more and requires that a written Affirmative Action Plan (AAP) be developed within 120 days from the origination of the contract

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27
Q

What are the EEO-1 job categories?

A
  • Executive/Senior Level Officials and Managers
  • First/Mid-Level Officials and Managers
  • Professionals
  • Technicians
  • Sales Workers
  • Administrative Support Workers
  • Craft Workers
  • Operatives
  • Laborers and Helpers
  • Service Workers
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28
Q

What are the components of an AAP?

A
  • Organizational profile
  • Job group analysis
  • Placement of incumbents in job groups
  • Determination of availability
  • Comparison of incumbency to availability
  • Placement goals
  • Designation of the person responsible for implementation
  • Identification of problem areas
  • Action-oriented programs
  • Periodic internal audits
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29
Q

What is the goal of reengineering?

A

To realign operations in a way that adds value to customers. This may mean eliminating jobs in some areas and adding jobs in others

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30
Q

What is corporate restructuring?

A

Looks at individual units in the organization to reduce or eliminate redundancy or bureaucratic processes in order to reduce costs and increase production. This means reducing the workforce or reassigning employees to new jobs.

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31
Q

What is a merger/acquisition?

A

When business leaders make a decision to acquire products and market share by purchasing other companies instead of building them internally. May reduce labor costs and allow jobs to be combined or eliminated

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32
Q

What is a divestitures?

A

When the strategic plan includes a decision to divest an operating unit, this can mean eliminating jobs or transferring employees to a new operating entity.

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33
Q

What is offshoring/outsourcing?

A

Results in a workforce reduction or transfer of employees to other jobs

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34
Q

What is workforce expansion?

A

An organization may decide to expand its workforce in order to accomplish business objectives

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35
Q

What is the benefit of conducting a skills inventory?

A

It allows of for the proper application of the existing taken and/or development of current employees through education, OJT experience, or training

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36
Q

What are job competencies?

A

They guide interviewers in formulating questions that elicit information beyond specific tasks and responsibilities assigned to a specific job.

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37
Q

What options does an organization have to locate talent?

A

Internal transfers or promotion, external hires and alternative staffing methods

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38
Q

What are the advantages to filling jobs internally?

A

Management is able to evaluate candidates and determine their suitability for advancement over an extend period of time; communicates to employees that the organization values and rewards their contributions; allows employees to become acclimated to the organization culture and operating procedures early in their careers

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39
Q

What are the disadvantages to filling jobs internally?

A

Employees outside the organizations will have a myopic view of the industry; Employees who have been passed over or lost out on promotions may have lower morale; the competition can lead to a breakdown in teamwork; over reliance on promoting from within can perpetuate the imbalance; increase in training costs.

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40
Q

What are the advantages to bringing in external talent?

A

They bring new ideas; more cost-effective to hire individuals with highly specialized skills; it’s usually faster to hire those skills than to provide OJT; provides opportunities to increase the diversity of the workforce

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41
Q

What are the disadvantages to bring in external talent?

A

Current employees who have been passed over will likely have a lower morale; it’s difficult to know how someone from outside the organization will fit into existing teams; it’s difficult to know what their performance levels will be

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42
Q

What are alternative staffing methods?

A

Telecommuting, job sharing, PT employees, Internships, Temporary Workers (Traditional, On-call workers, payrolling, seasonal workers), Contract Workers (Independent contractors, Contingent workforce), Professional employer organization, outsourcing

43
Q

What does a labor market analysis look at?

A

Economic indicators (UI rate, occupational outlook, demographics and wages by area and occupation); industry activity; Labor market categories (geographic, technical/professional skills, education)

44
Q

What is sourcing?

A

Provides names and contact information for potential candidates in the active and passive markets

45
Q

What is recruiting?

A

The process of creating interest about open positions in an organization and seeking candidates who posses the necessary qualifications to successfully fill them

46
Q

What is the total reward package?

A

Organizations interested in acquiring the “best and brightest” candidates or candidates with unique and highly desirable skills, employ a philosophy of leading the market, paying a premium to attract candidates

47
Q

What is a skills inventory?

A

Tool used to collect and store a wealth of information that would otherwise be obtained only after many hours of research - collects information on special skills/knowledge, fluency in foreign languages, educational qualifications, previous experience in or outside the company, credentials or licenses, continuing education

48
Q

What is a job posting?

A

An internal job announcement that provides basic information about the opening, including the title, a brief description of the competencies, duties, responsibilities and salary range

49
Q

What is job bidding?

A

Provides a means by which interested employees express interest in a position before it’s available

50
Q

What is a succession plan?

A

It identifies individuals in the organization who have the taken and ability to move into management and executive positions in one to five years

51
Q

What categories are on a replacement chart?

A

Ready for promotion, develop for future promotion, satisfactory in current position, replace

52
Q

What are options for external recruiting?

A

Media sources, internet job boards and community sites, social media recruitment, company websites, colleges and universities, job fairs, alumni employees, previous applicants, employee referrals, vendors and suppliers, labor unions, professional associations, employment agencies, walk-in candidates

53
Q

What is the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP)?

A

States that any selection tools that has an adverse impact against a protected class in discriminatory unless the employer can show that the tools is both job-related and a valid predictor of success in the position; Requires employers to keep records of individuals who apply for open positions as described in the EEO-1 report

54
Q

When does adverse impact occur?

A

When the selection rate for a protected class is less than 4/5th, or 80 precent, of the selection rate for the group with the highest selection rate.

55
Q

What are the four types of applications?

A

Short-Form; Long-Form; Job-Specific; Weighted

56
Q

What are the steps of conducting effective interviews?

A
  1. Select the interview team
  2. Hold a pre-interview strategy meeting
  3. Complete candidate evaluation forms
  4. Conduct interviews
  5. Evaluate candidates
57
Q

What types of interviews can be used for selecting candidates?

A

Behavioral interviews, directive interviews (controlled by interviewer), non directive interviews (allows candidate to guide), patterned interviews, panel interviews, structured interviews, stress interviews

58
Q

What is average bias?

A

When the interviewer has difficult deciding which candidate is best and rates them all the same

59
Q

What is contract bias?

A

When an interviewer compares candidates to each other or compares all candidates to a single candidate

60
Q

What is cultural noise bias?

A

When candidates answer questions based on information they think will get them the job

61
Q

What is first impression bias?

A

First impression either works for or against a candidate

62
Q

What is gut feeling bias?

A

When the interviewer release on an intuitive feeling that the candidate is a good (or bad) fit for the position without looking at whether the individuals qualifications meet the criteria established?

63
Q

What is halo effect bias?

A

When the interviewer evaluates a candidate positively based on a single characteristic

64
Q

What is harshness (horn effect) bias?

A

When the interviewer evaluates a candidate negatively based on a single characteristic

65
Q

What is knowledge-of-predictor bias?

A

When the interviewer is aware that a candidate scored particularly high (or low) on an assessment test that has sen shown to be a valid predictor of performance

66
Q

What is leniency bias?

A

When the interviewer tends to go easy on a candidate and give a higher rating than is warranted

67
Q

What is negative emphasis bias?

A

When the interviewer allows a small amount of negative information to outweigh positive information

68
Q

What is nonverbal bias?

A

When an interviewer is influenced by body language

69
Q

What is question inconsistency bias?

A

When an interviewer asks different questions of each candidate

70
Q

What is recency bias?

A

When the interviewer recalls the most recently interviewed candidates more clearly than earlier candidates

71
Q

What is similar to me bias?

A

When the candidate has interests or other characteristics that are the same as those of the interviewer and cause the interviewer to over look negative aspects about the candidate

72
Q

What is stereotyping?

A

When the interviewer assumes a candidate has specific gratis because they are a member of a group

73
Q

What is a realistic job preview (RJP)?

A

Designed to give candidates an accurate picture of a typical day on the job, provides an opportunity for them to self select out if the job isn’t what they expected it would be

74
Q

What is an in-box test?

A

Provides candidates with a number of documents describing problems that would typically be handled by an employees in the position, with instructions to prioritize the problems and/or decide how the problems would be handled

75
Q

What are aptitude tests?

A

Tests designed to measure an individual’s knowledge and ability to apply skills in various areas, such as mathematics, typing, language, and reasoning

76
Q

What are cognitive ability tests (CAT)?

A

Measures an individuals ability to analyze and solve problems and draw conclusions from a set of facts

77
Q

What are personality tests?

A

AKA psychometric tests; measures how a candidate will “fit” into a specific job

78
Q

What are integrity tests?

A

AKA honesty tests; assess a candidates work ethic, attitudes toward theft and drug and alcohol use, and similar traits (no adverse impact as long as administered equally to all candidates)

79
Q

What are psychomotor assessment tests?

A

Tests an individual’s coordination and manual dexterity

80
Q

What are physical assessment tests?

A

Tests used to determine whether candidates are physically capable of performing specific job duties

81
Q

What is the significance of Griggs v. Duke Power Co?

A

That discrimination doesn’t need to be intentional to exist.

82
Q

What is the significance of Albemarle Paper v. Moody?

A

That test validation must be in accordance with the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

83
Q

What is the significance of Washington v. Davis?

A

That tests that have an adverse impact on a protected class are lawful if they’re valid predictors of success on the job

84
Q

What is reliability?

A

Measures whether a test or other measurement produces consistent results so that, over time, the scores won’t vary greatly

85
Q

What is validity?

A

Considers the characteristics being measured by a test and whiter the test is measuring the characteristic accurately:

  • Content validity - simplest which confirms that a selection procedure samples significant parts of the job being tested.
  • Construct validity - determines whether a test measures the connection between candidate characteristics and successful performance on the job
  • Criterion validity - established when the test or measure either predicts or correlates the behavior:
    * predictive validity compares the test scores of a test given at the beginning of a job before new employees have experience tot he same criterion collected at some future test
    • concurrent validity is similar to predictive but the criterion measurement occurs at the same time the test is given and not at a later time
86
Q

What are three types of reference checks?

A

Employment reference, educational reference, financial references

87
Q

What is the Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA) of 1988?

A

Prohibits employers form using polygraph tests in making employment decision except under very limited conditions.

88
Q

What is negligent hiring?

A

When an employer knew or should have known about an application’s prior history that endangered customers, employees, vendors, or others with whom the employee comes in contact.

89
Q

What are the components of employment contracts?

A 
Terms and Conditions of employment
Scope of Duties
Compensation
Benefits and Expense Reimbursements
Nondisclosure of Proprietary Information
Non-solicitation Agreement
Advice of Counsel
Disability or Death
Termination Clause
Change of Control
90
Q

How long must an employer maintain I-9 files?

A

Three years from the date of hire or 1 year after the date of termination, whichever is later

91
Q

What is orientation?

A

Typically includes paperwork completion, compliance training and an introduction to policies, procedures, and rules through a review of the employee handbook

92
Q

What is on-boarding?

A

A system of organizational behaviors the time of hire focused on the retention of new employees

93
Q

What is socialization?

A

Includes efforts such as the assignment of an internal mentor or peer-to-peer support for training

94
Q

What is the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification (WARN) Act of 1988?

A

Provides protection for workers in the event of mass layoffs or plant closings. The act requires that 60 ays advance notice be given to either the individual or their union representatives; employers with 100 or more full-time employees must comply

95
Q

When does a mass layoff occur according to WARN?

A

When either 500 employees are laid off or 33 percent of the workforce and at least 50 employees are laid off

96
Q

What are three situations in which the 60 day notice isn’t required as part of the WARN act?

A
  • Faltering company - where the company is actively seeking additional funding and has a reasonable expectation that it will be forthcoming and that notice would negatively affect the ability to obtain funding
  • Unforeseeable business circumstance - when there is a sudden or unexpected negative change that couldn’t have been predicted
  • Natural disaster
97
Q

What is Workforce Investment Act (WIA)?

A

A job-training program designed to improve worker skills for jobs in the twenty first century. Designed to achieve three goals:

  1. Improve workforce quality
  2. Enhance national productivity and competitive ability
  3. Reduce reliance on welfare
98
Q

What is Trade Adjustment Assistance (TAA) of 2002?

A

Program to assist workers who lose their jobs as the result of an increase in imported goods

99
Q

How are productivity metrics calculated?

A

By dividing total output (expressed in revenue dollars) by a measure of inventory output) by the number of employees

100
Q

What are examples of tactical accountability measures?

A

Accession rate (measures the number of new employees agains the total number of employees)
Quality of Hire (based on performance rating)
Cost per Hire (dividing total costs by the number of hires)
Time to Hire (from the date a job is posted to the date a job is accepted)
Replacement Costs (cost per employee to replace)
Turnoever Analysis (calculated by dividing the average number of total employees by the number of employees who exited the organization)

101
Q

What is an ethnocentric approach?

A

One is which all key management positions are filled by expatriates

102
Q

What is a polycentric approach?

A

One that fills corporate positions in the home country with expatriates, whereas management positions in the host country are filled by HCN’s (host-country nationals)

103
Q

That is a regiocentric approach?

A

One that covers a trade region and has managers move between business units in different countries in the region

104
Q

What is a geocentric approach?

A

One that seeks to place the best-qualifed person into each position, regardless of their country of origin

PHR Exam (5 decks)

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