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ag-network A+ > Chapter 4 > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q 
What type of power flaw involves a fluctuation in voltage levels caused by other devices on the network or by EMI?
A) brownout
B) blackout
C) noise
D) surge
A

C) noise

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2
Q 
One watt is equal to how many volt-amps?
A) 1.4
B) 2
C) 10
D) 1,000
A

A) 1.4

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3
Q 
What is the maximum allowable distance for horizontal wiring?
A) 100 ft
B) 100 m
C) 90 m
D) 90 ft
A

B) 100 m

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4
Q 
The radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission is known as what option below?
A) metal stress factor
B) arc coefficient
C) bend radius
D) flex rating
A

C) bend radius

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5
Q 
How far away from fluorescent lights or other sources of EMI should cable be installed?
A) at least 3 ft
B) at least 5 ft
C) at least 10 ft
D) at least 20 ft
A

A) at least 3 ft

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6
Q 
What is the industry standard for rack height in rack units?
A) 18U
B) 22U
C) 42U
D) 54U
A

C) 42U

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7
Q 
Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously?
A) half duplex
B) simplex
C) full-duplex
D) multiplex
A

C) full-duplex

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8
Q 
Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium but in only one direction at a time?
A) full duplex
B) half duplex
C) simplex
D) multiplex
A

B) half duplex

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9
Q 
Ethernet exists at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4
A

B) Layer 2

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10
Q 
What is the maximum frame size for Ethernet ll frames on a VLAN?
A) 1500 bytes
B) 1518 bytes
C) 1522 bytes
D) 1496 bytes
A

C) 1522 bytes

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11
Q 
When selecting a punch down block, what block type is more suitable for data connections?
A) 10 block
B) 22 block
C) 66 block
D) 110 block
A

D) 110 block

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12
Q 
What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?
A) horizontal cross connect
B) patch cable
C) vertical cross connect
D) diagonal cabling
A

C) vertical cross connect

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13
Q

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?
A) in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
B) at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
C) in the work area
D) between the MDF and the IDF

A

A) in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

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14
Q 
Select the component of enterprise level structured cabling that serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building's backbone cabling:
A) network interface device
B) main distribution frame
C) intermediate distribution frame
D) entrance facility
A

D) entrance facility

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15
Q

During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced?
A) No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed
B) No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed
C) Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn’t get caught in the jack
D) Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk

A

A) No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed

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16
Q 
What cable type comes in two different modes, single mode and multimode?
A) UTP
B) STP
C) Fiber Optic
D) Coaxial
A

C) Fiber Optic

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17
Q 
Which of the following options is not a likely source of electromagnetic interference?
A) power lines
B) motors
C) fiber optic cables
D) microwaves
A

C) fiber optic cables

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18
Q 
In order to simplify console access to computers in a rack, what device is typically used to provide a central portal for all devices on the rack?
A) KVM switch
B) AVR switch
C) terminal server
D) multi-monitor breakout cable
A

A) KVM switch

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19
Q 
If the use of a pre-existing Ethernet infrastructure is desired for a SAN, what Transport Layer protocol should be utilized?
A) Fibre Channel
B) iSCSI
C) SAS
D) PATA
A

B) iSCSI

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20
Q 
What type of power converter changes the voltage of an AC current, such as when power over the main line from an electric company is changed before being delivered to a home?
A) inverter
B) rectifier
C) transformer
D) voltage regulator
A

C) transformer

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21
Q 
Select the two terms below that are used to describe a UPS that provides continuous voltage to a device by switching virtually instantaneously to the battery when it detects a loss of power;
A) offline UPS
B) standby UPS
C) standby power supply
D) failover power supply
A

B) standby UPS

C) standby power supply

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22
Q

The standard that describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system, can be referred to by what two options below?
A) hierarchical cabling
B) TIA/EIA-568
C) IEEE Commercial Building Wiring Standard
D) structured cabling

A

B) TIA/EIA-568

D) structured cabling

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23
Q 
Equipment racks most commonly come in what two widths?
A) 17 in frame
B) 18 in frame
C) 19 in frame
D) 23 in frame
A

C) 19 in frame

D) 23 in frame

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24
Q 
Select the two Transport Layer protocol that are used by SANs: 
A) Fibre Channel
B) iSCSI
C) SAS
D) SATA
A

A) Fibre Channel

B) iSCSI

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25
Q 
Select the maximum allowable distances for horizontal  wiring for a span that connects a data jack on a wall to a data closet, and for a span that connects a workstation to the data jack, respectively:
A) 100 m
B) 90 m
C) 10 m
D) 5 m
A

B) 90 m

C) 10 m

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26
Q

Each type of cable has a prescribed bend radius , which is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission. (A) True (B) False

A

Answer : (A)

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27
Q

A power fluctuation that results in a temporary dimming of lights is known as a blackout.​ (A) True (B) False

A

Answer : (B)

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28
Q

The TIA/EIA standard for wall jacks in a work area require that at least one outlet be provided for data and one for voice.​
(A) True (B) False

A

Answer : (A)

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29
Q

Cable that is coated with flame-resistant polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is acceptable for use in plenum areas. (A) True (B) False

A

Answer : (B)

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30
Q

A NIC card cannot determine whether the frames it transmits and receives are using IP packets or a different layer 3 protocol, because the NIC does not operate higher than Layer 2 of the OSI model.​ (A) True (B) False

A

Answer : (A)

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31
Q

Explain the difference between an inverter and a rectifier.

A

An inverter converts DC to AC. A generator might contain an inverter. The better inverters will also condition the power, which helps protect sensitive electronic equipment from power fluctuations. A rectifier, on the other hand, converts AC to DC. All computers require the constant flow of electricity that DC power provides. The power supply in a laptop or desktop computer contains a rectifier to convert AC to DC.​

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32
Q

Describe the three different types of cabling recognized by TIA/EIA as acceptable for horizontal wiring

A

Follow these guidelines to manage documentation at your cabling plant: Keep your cable plant documentation in a centrally accessible location. Make sure it includes● locations, installation dates, lengths, and grades of installed cable. Label every data jack or port, patch panel or punch-down block, and connector or circuit.● Use color-coded cables for different purposes and record the color schemes in your documentation.● Cables can be purchased in a variety of sheath colors. For example, you might want to use pink for patch cables, green for horizontal wiring, purple for DMZ lines, and gray for vertical (backbone) wiring. Be certain to update your documentation as you make changes to the network. The more you● document, the easier it will be to move or add cable segments in the future.

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33
Q

What type of power flaw involves a fluctuation in voltage levels caused by other devices on the network or by EMI?​ (A) ​brownout (B) ​blackout (C) ​noise (D) ​surge

A

Answer : (C)

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34
Q

​One watt is equal to how many volt-amps? (A) 1.4​ (B) ​2

(C) ​10 (D) ​1,000

A

Answer : (A)

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35
Q

​What is the maximum allowable distance for horizontal wiring? (A) ​100 ft (B) ​100 m (C) ​90 m (D) ​90 ft

A

Answer : (B)

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36
Q

The radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop a cable without impairing data transmission is known as what option below?​ (A) ​metal stress factor (B) ​arc coefficient (C) bend radius​ (D) ​flex rating

A

Answer : (C)

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37
Q

How far away from fluorescent lights or other sources of EMI should cable be installed?​ (A) ​at least 3 feet (B) ​at least 5 feet (C) ​at least 10 feet (D) ​at least 20 feet

A

Answer : (A)

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38
Q

What is the industry standard for rack height in rack units?​ (A) ​18U (B) ​22U (C) ​42U
(D) ​54U

A

Answer : (C)

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39
Q

Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously?​ (A) ​half duplex (B) ​simplex (C) ​full-duplex (D) ​multiplex

A

Answer : (C)

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40
Q

​Which method of transmission allows signals to travel in both directions over a medium but in only one direction at a time? (A) ​full duplex (B) ​half duplex (C) ​simplex (D) ​multiplex

A

Answer : (B)

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41
Q

Ethernet exists at what layer of the OSI model?​ (A) ​Layer 1 (B) ​Layer 2 (C) ​Layer 3 (D) ​Layer 4

A

Answer : (B)

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42
Q

What is the maximum frame size ​for Ethernet II frames on a VLAN? (A) ​1500 bytes (B) ​1518 bytes (C) ​1522 bytes (D) ​1496 bytes

A

Answer : (C)

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43
Q

When selecting a punch down block, what block type is more suitable for data connections?​ (A) ​10 block (B) ​22 block (C) ​66 block (D) ​110 block

A

Answer : (D)

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44
Q

​What component of the backbone runs between a building’s floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? (A) ​horizontal cross connect (B) ​patch cable (C) ​vertical cross connect (D) ​diagonal cabling

A

Answer : (C)

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45
Q

Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment?​ (A) ​in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF) (B) ​at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) (C) at ​the entrance facility (D) ​between the MDF and the IDF

A

Answer : (A)

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46
Q

Select the component of enterprise level structured cabling that serves as the location where an incoming network interface enters a building and connects with the building’s backbone cabling: (A) ​network interface device (B) ​main distribution frame (C) ​intermediate distribution frame (D) ​entrance facility

A

Answer : (D)

47
Q

​During termination of twisted pair cabling, what should be done to ensure minimal cross talk is introduced? (A) ​No more than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. (B) ​No less than 1 inch of the cable should be exposed. (C) ​Each pair should be stripped of insulation so that it doesn’t get caught in the jack. (D) ​Each pair should be twisted around another pair to reduce cross talk

A

Answer : (A)

48
Q

​What cable type comes in two different modes, single mode and multimode? (A) ​UTP (B) ​STP (C) ​Fiber optic (D) ​Coaxial

A

Answer : (C)

49
Q

Which of the following options is not a likely source of electromagnetic interference?​ (A) ​power lines (B) ​motors (C) ​fiber optic cables (D) ​microwaves

A

Answer : (C)

50
Q

In order to simplify console access to computers in a rack, what device is typically used to provide a central portal for all devices on the rack?​ (A) ​KVM switch (B) ​AVR switch (C) terminal server (D) ​multi-monitor breakout cable

A

Answer : (A)

51
Q

​If the use of a pre-existing Ethernet infrastructure is desired for a SAN, what Transport Layer
protocol should be utilized? (A) ​Fibre Channel (B) ​iSCSI (C) ​SAS (D) ​PATA

A

Answer : (B)

52
Q

What type of power converter changes the voltage of an AC current, such as when power over the main line from an electric company is changed before being delivered to a home?​ (A) inverter​ (B) ​rectifier (C) ​transformer (D) ​voltage regulator

A

Answer : (C)

53
Q

A volt-ampere (VA) is the product of the voltage and the ________________ of the electricity on a line.​

A

current

54
Q

The room where the _________________ is located is called the data closet

A

main distribution frame (MDF)

55
Q

_______ are highly scalable and have a very high fault tolerance, massive storage capabilities, and fast data access

A

SANs

56
Q

A _____________ allows for an MTU as high as 9198 bytes

A

jumbo frame

57
Q

To ensure that any _____________ are detected, frames are made large enough to fill the entire cable during transmission.​

A

collisions

58
Q 
Which of the following cabling types is not recognized by the TIA/EIA for horizontal 
wiring? 
A. UTP 
B. STP 
C. Coaxial 
D. Fiber-optic
A

Answer: C. Coaxial

59
Q

What kind of networking device on today’s racks does nothing to the data transmitted on a
line other than pass it along through the connection?
A. Patch panel
B. Punch-down block
C. 110 block
D. Hub

A

Answer: A. Patch panel

60
Q 
In which layer(s) of the OSI model do NICs operate? 
A. Layers 5, 6, and 7 
B. Layers 1 and 2 
C. Layer 4 
D. Layers 2 and 3
A

Answer: B. Layers 1 and 2

61
Q 
What are the two primary standard widths for rack systems? 
A. 3 feet and 6 feet 
B. 18U and 42U 
C. 19 inches and 23 inches 
D. 1U and 4U
A

Answer: C. 19 inches and 23 inches

62
Q 
What device provides a central control portal for all devices on a rack? 
A. Server rails 
B. Rack ears 
C. Rack-monitoring system 
D. KVM switch
A

Answer: D. KVM switch

63
Q

What device protects computer equipment from a momentary increase in voltage due to
lightning strikes, solar flares, or electrical problems?
A. NAS
B. Surge protector
C. Generator
D. Power converter

A

Answer: B. Surge protector

64
Q 
Providing a backup power source is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. power conversion 
B. power redundancy 
C. power inversion 
D. line conditioning
A

Answer: B. power redundancy

65
Q

What generator component converts DC power from the generator to AC power that the
electrical infrastructure in a data center can use?
A. Inverter
B. Rectifier
C. Transformer
D. Voltage regulator

A

Answer: A. Inverter

66
Q 
Which type of Ethernet frames do today’s networks use? 
A. Jumbo frame 
B. Ethernet II frame 
C. 802.3 frame 
D. CSMA/CD frame
A

Answer: B. Ethernet II frame

67
Q 
What is the very beginning of an Ethernet frame called? 
A. Header 
B. Data 
C. Preamble 
D. Trailer
A

Answer: C. Preamble

68
Q

Why is it important to use a structured cabling standard when installing and managing
cabling systems?

A

Answer: The standard suggests how networking media can best be installed to maximize
performance and minimize upkeep

69
Q

What is the first point of interconnection between an organization’s LAN or WAN and a
service provider’s facility, and what components are generally included at this location?

A

Answer: The MDF, which may contain the demarc and other connectivity devices, such as
switches and routers, and media, such as fiber-optic cable.

70
Q

Why is it important to use plenum-rated cabling in the area above the ceiling tile?

A

Answer: A plenum-rated cable is coated with a flame-resistant jacket that produces less smoke
than regular cable coated with polyvinyl chloride (PVC). In the event of a fire, smoke produced
by plenum cabling is less toxic than that produced by PVC cabling.

71
Q

What are the three methods by which a NIC can interface with a computer’s motherboard?

A

Answer: Integrated into the motherboard, installed in an expansion slot on the motherboard, or
installed as a peripheral device

72
Q

What does a loopback plug do?

A

Answer: A loopback plug is a connector that plugs into a port and crosses over the transmit line
to the receive line so that outgoing signals can be redirected into the computer for testing.

73
Q

What is the unit of measurement that defines the space available in a rack? How tall are
standard racks?

A

Answer: Rack unit; the industry standard height is 42U (about 6 feet)

74
Q

What are the two general categories of UPSs?

A

Answer: Standby and online

75
Q

What are some elements that are typically included in network diagrams?

A

Answers may include physical layout, logical topology, perimeter, access method,
protocols, and network devices and connections.

76
Q

What is the GUI version of Nmap for Windows?

A

Answer: Zenmap

77
Q

At what layer in the OSI model were the source and destination addresses for the packet in Step 11 located?

A

Answer: The Data Link layer

78
Q

In the frame you examined in Steps 9 through 13 which portions of the packet calculated a CRC checksum? What layers of the OSI model do they correspond to?

A

Answer: IPv4 (Network) and ICMP (Transport)

79
Q

A user is unable to reach your company’s Web site. From the user’s workstation, you can ping the remote Web server. How might you use Network Monitor or another network protocol analyzer to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose all that apply.)

a. By checking to see if the workstation is sending packets to the Web server
b. By checking to see if the server is sending packets to the workstation
c. By checking the workstation’s IP configuration
d. By checking the workstation’s ARP configuration

A

a. By checking to see if the workstation is sending packets to the Web server
b. By checking to see if the server is sending packets to the workstation

80
Q

Which protocols can be seen using Network Monitor? (Choose all that apply.)

a. ICMP
b. ARP
c. TCP
d. UDP

A

a. ICMP
b. ARP
c. TCP
d. UDP

81
Q

About which OSI layer does Network Monitor not provide information?

a. Physical layer
b. Data Link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer

A

a. Physical layer

82
Q

What is an advantage of using a parallel backbone over a collapsed backbone?

a. A collapsed backbone requires too many connecting devices.
b. A parallel backbone uses redundant connections and is more reliable.
c. A collapsed backbone uses redundant connections, which costs more money.
d. A parallel backbone uses fewer redundant connections, which costs less money.

A

b. A parallel backbone uses redundant connections and is more reliable.

83
Q

What is the purpose of using the routing protocol in this lab?

a. Each server can choose a different path when the current path fails.
b. The network administrator does not have to configure static routes.
c. It has no purpose.
d. Each server saves the appropriate IP addresses in its ARP cache.

A

a. Each server can choose a different path when the current path fails.

84
Q

Which of the following is true about the use of parallel backbones in real-life networks?

a. Parallel backbones are used when redundant connections are not possible.
b. Parallel backbones are used whenever possible because they are so inexpensive.
c. Parallel backbones only work in Ethernet networks.
d. Parallel backbones are used for important servers and networks because they are more expensive to build.

A

d. Parallel backbones are used for important servers and networks because they are more expensive to build.

85
Q

In this lab, you configured the hubs and the two servers in a ring. How does the topology in this lab differ from a ring topology such as Token Ring? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Each host transmits when necessary.
b. A single workstation or server in a simple ring topology could take down the entire ring.
c. Each host passes a token to the next host.
d. The topology in this lab is an example of an active topology.

A

a. Each host transmits when necessary.

b. A single workstation or server in a simple ring topology could take down the entire ring.

86
Q

For which of the following network devices is redundancy least important?

a. The network backbone cabling
b. Server
c. User workstations
d. A central switch

A

c. User workstations

87
Q

What type of port connects one switch to another in a daisy-chain fashion? a. Output port

b. Patch panel port
c. Uplink port
d. External port

A

c. Uplink port

88
Q

When connectivity devices are connected in a daisy-chain fashion, what type of backbone do they create?

a. Parallel
b. Serial
c. Collapsed
d. Distributed

A

b. Serial

89
Q

What type of network access method is used on an Ethernet switch?

a. CSMA/CA
b. CSMA/CD
c. Demand priority
d. Token passing

A

b. CSMA/CD

90
Q

Which of the following is the most common frame type on modern Ethernet networks?

a. Ethernet II (DIX)
b. Ethernet 802.2 (Raw)
c. Ethernet SNAP
d. Ethernet 902.3 (Novell proprietary)

A

a. Ethernet II (DIX)

91
Q

What is risky about daisy-chaining switches on a network? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Too many switches will cause errors in addressing data for its proper destination.
b. Too many switches can cause increased network latency.
c. Too many switches can result in reduced throughput.
d. Too many switches will increase the possibility for errors in data encryption and decryption

A

b. Too many switches can cause increased network latency.

c. Too many switches can result in reduced throughput.

92
Q

Which of the following devices only operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model?

a. NIC
b. Hub or repeater
c. Bridge
d. Router

A

b. Hub or repeater

93
Q

What type of address does a router interpret?

a. Physical address
b. MAC address
c. Block ID
d. Network address

A

d. Network address

94
Q

What is the minimum total size of an Ethernet frame?

a. 6 bytes
b. 12 bytes
c. 46 bytes
d. 64 bytes

A

d. 64 bytes

95
Q

On a typical 100Base-T network, where would you find transceivers?

a. In the NICs
b. In the operating systems
c. In the UPSs
d. In the cabling

A

a. In the NICs

96
Q

Which of the following is a difference between a router and a hub?

a. A router is less sophisticated than a hub.
b. A router operates at the Transport layer of the OSI model, whereas a hub operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model.
c. A router operates at the Network layer of the OSI model, whereas a hub operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model.
d. A router regenerates signals, whereas a hub interprets addressing information to ensure that data is directed to the proper destination.

A

A router operates at the Network layer of the OSI model, whereas a hub operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model.

97
Q

In which of the following networking scenarios would a router be the optimal connectivity device?

a. A home network with five users who want to share documents that are stored on one of the five workstations
b. A WAN that connects a college physics department with a classroom in a high school on the other side of town
c. A LAN that connects 10 users, a server, and a printer at a small business
d. A peer-to-peer LAN that connects eight users to provide a shared database

A

b. A WAN that connects a college physics department with a classroom in a high school on the other side of town

98
Q

What is the most likely purpose of the hubs in this lab?

a. To connect the computer to different networks
b. To determine, by checking the link lights, whether the NIC has been installed correctly
c. To determine, by checking the link lights, whether you have configured the IP addresses on the NICs correctly
d. To allow the NICs to operate at the Network layer

A

b. To determine, by checking the link lights, whether the NIC has been installed correctly

99
Q

What is the purpose of a routing table on a TCP/IP-based network?

a. To associate the NetBIOS names of nodes with their IP addresses
b. To associate the IP addresses of nodes with their host names
c. To associate the IP addresses of nodes with their locations on the network
d. To associate the host names of nodes with their MAC addresses

A

c. To associate the IP addresses of nodes with their locations on the network

100
Q

Whichofthefollowingmostfullydescribeswhatasuccessfulresponsefromthepingcommand indicates?

a. A node is powered on.
b. A node is physically connected to the network.
c. A node is running the Windows Server operating system.
d. A node is connected to the network and is running TCP/IP successfully.

A

d. A node is connected to the network and is running TCP/IP successfully.

101
Q

What does the tracert command show?

a. The path taken by packets to the destination address
b. The MAC address of the destination address
c. Whether the remote host supports TCP/IP
d. The operating system run by the host at the destination address

A

a. The path taken by packets to the destination address

102
Q

What command would you use to add a node’s IP address, subnet mask, and network location interface to a routing table?

a. route add
b. add host
c. add node
d. route open

A

a. route add

103
Q

In the default ping command on a computer running Windows, how many replies will you receive if the test is successful?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

d. 4

104
Q

What menu option sequence would you choose to set up Routing and Remote Access Service on a Windows Server 2012 computer?

a. Start, Control Panel, Network Connections, Routing and Remote Access
b. Start, Administrative Tools, Routing and Remote Access
c. Start, All Programs, Accessories, Routing and Remote Access
d. Start, Control Panel, Routing and Remote Access

A

b. Start, Administrative Tools, Routing and Remote Access

105
Q

What does RIP stand for?

a. Regulated Interaction Protocol
b. Routing Information Protocol
c. Response Interpretation Protocol
d. Registered Installation Protocol

A

b. Routing Information Protocol

106
Q

To determine the best path to transfer data, routers communicate using routing protocols such as TCP/IP.

A

False

107
Q

Which routing protocol is commonly used for Internet backbones? a. OSPF

b. RIP for IP
c. EIGRP
d. BGP

A

d. BGP

108
Q

When might the best path not equal the shortest distance between two nodes? (Choose all that apply.)

a. When a communications link has been recently added to the network
b. When a communications link is suffering congestion
c. When a router experiences routing protocol errors
d. When the media on the shortest path is slower than the media on the best path

A

b. When a communications link is suffering congestion

d. When the media on the shortest path is slower than the media on the best path

109
Q

Which of the following could serve as firewalls? (Choose all that apply.)

a. A modem
b. A Windows server
c. A repeater
d. A Linux server

A

b. A Windows server

d. A Linux server

110
Q

A firewall can run a routing protocol like a router. 3. What is the highest level of the OSI model in which a firewall can operate? a. Data Link

b. Network
c. Transport
d. Application

A

True

111
Q

A gateway connects two different types of networks, two different types of communications protocols, or two different computer architectures. Which of the following is not considered a gateway?

a. A router connecting a Token Ring
b. A computer translating application data from TCP/IP to IPX/SPX
c. A computer translating voice signals into data and transmitting it over a TCP/IP network
d. A file and print server communicating with clients using both TCP/IP and IPX/SPX

A

d. A file and print server communicating with clients using both TCP/IP and IPX/SPX

112
Q

You have configured a device that runs the OSPF routing protocol, but whose primary purpose is to prevent unwanted Internet traffic from reaching your company’s LAN. Which of the following is true about this device?

a. It is a router because it runs a routing protocol.
b. It is a router because its primary purpose is to control traffic.
c. It is a firewall because it runs a routing protocol.
d. It is a firewall because its primary purpose is to control traffic.

A

d. It is a firewall because its primary purpose is to control traffic.

113
Q

Which of the following statements about a bridge is false?

a. Without IP addressing information, a bridge will not be seen with the tracert command.
b. Bridges require no Layer 3 addressing.
c. Bridges decide which packets to forward based on their Layer 3 headers.
d. Bridges operate at the Data Link layer.

A

c. Bridges decide which packets to forward based on their Layer 3 headers.

ag-network A+ (22 decks)

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