CHAPTER 37: Procedural Sedation Flashcards

1
Q

Use of anxiolytic, sedative, hypnotic, analgesic, and/or dissociative medications(s) to attenuate anxiety, pain and/or motion

A

Procedural sedation and analgesia (PSA)

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2
Q

Are defined by the patient’s level of responsiveness and cardiopulmonary function, not by the agents used

A

Levels of sedation

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3
Q

Is characterized by anxiolysis but with normal or slowed responses to verbal stimuli

A

Minimal sedation

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4
Q

Is characterized by a depressed level of consciousness and a slower but purposeful motor response to simple verbal or tactile stimuli

A

Moderate sedation

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5
Q

Does not easily fit into the PSA continuum

A

Dissociative sedation

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6
Q

Is a state of detachment from immediate surroundings, in which the cortical centers are prevented from receiving sensory stimuli

A

Dissociation

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7
Q

Is a trance-like cataleptic state characterized by profound analgesia and amnesia, with retention of protective airway reflexes, spontaneous respirations, and cardiopulmonary stability

A

Dissociation

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8
Q

Are the ED PSA agents characterized by dissociative sedation

A

Ketamine & Nitrous oxide

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9
Q

Is characterized by a profoundly depressed level of consciousness, with a purposeful motor response elicited only after repeated or painful stimuli

A

Deep sedation

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10
Q

TRUE or FALSE?
Deep sedation generally is achieved in the ED with the same agents as moderate sedation, but with larger or more frequent doses

A

TRUE

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11
Q

Is defined as a drug-induced loss of consciousness during which patients are not arousable, even by painful stimulation

A

General anesthesia

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12
Q

Level of sedation and analgesia (Table 37-1 p. 249):
Normal but slowed response to verbal stimulation
A: Unaffected
B: Unaffected
C: Unaffected

A

Minimal sedation (“anxiolysis”)

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13
Q

Level of sedation and analgesia (Table 37-1 p. 249):
Purposeful response to verbal or physical stimulation
A: Usually maintained
B: Usually adequate
C: Usually maintained

A

Moderate sedation

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14
Q

Level of sedation and analgesia (Table 37-1 p. 249):
Trance-like state with variable responsiveness
A: Usually maintained
B: Usually adequate
C: Usually maintained

A

Dissociative sedation

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15
Q

Level of sedation and analgesia (Table 37-1 p. 249):
Purposeful response after repeated or painful physical stimulation
A: May be impaired
B: May be suppressed
C: Usually maintained

A

Deep sedation

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16
Q

Level of sedation and analgesia (Table 37-1 p. 249):
Not arousable, even by painful stimulation
A: Usually requires assistance
B: Often impaired
C: May be impaired

A

General anesthesia

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17
Q

TRUE or FALSE?
One emergency physician is not effective as two physicians, one providing monitoring and the other performing the procedure

A

FALSE
In the emergency medicine model of PSA, clinical experience indicates that one emergency physician—providing monitoring and sedation and performing the procedure—is as effective as two physicians, one providing monitoring and the other performing the procedure.
However, the physician must be ready to resuscitate the patient immediately

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18
Q

TRUE or FALSE?

Pre-procedural fasting for any duration has demonstrated a reduction in the risk of emesis or aspiration

A

FALSE
Pre-procedural fasting for any duration has not demonstrated a reduction in the risk of emesis or aspiration.
It is not necessary to delay ED PSA for time-sensitive procedures in adults or children based on fasting time

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19
Q

PSA Monitoring:
Direct visualization of the patient’s airway (mouth, face) and chest wall motion, chest auscultation, monitoring patient responsiveness, and providing appropriate maneuvers to maintain the patient’s airway and ventilation

A

Interactive monitoring

20
Q

PSA Monitoring:

Includes continual tracking of arterial oxygenation, ventilation, blood pressure, and cardiac rate/rhythm

A

Physiologic monitoring

21
Q

TRUE or FALSE?

Pulse oximetry is a substitute for monitoring ventilation

A

FALSE
Pulse oximetry is NOT a substitute for monitoring ventilation
Because hypoventilation or apnea develops before oxygen saturation decreases, especially in patients who receive supplemental oxygen

22
Q

ETCO2 value that indicates hypoventilation

A

> 50 mm Hg or Increase of > 10 mm Hg

23
Q

Assess the severity of ventilatory abnormalities and the response to interventions and can detect changes in ventilation before clinical observation

A

Capnography

24
Q

TRUE or FALSE?

Assessing blood pressure every 5 minutes is unnecessary for ketamine dissociative sedation

A

TRUE

25
Q

A structured assessment that can be used to assess the patient’s recovery and safety for discharge

A

Aldrete Score©

26
Q

TRUE or FALSE?

Propofol has been administered safely to patients with soy, egg, and peanut allergies

A

TRUE
The American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology supports the safety of propofol in patients with soy and egg allergies, and recent emergency medicine practice guidelines state that propofol’s only true immunologic contraindication is an allergy to the drug itself

27
Q

Suggested methods to reduce propofol infusion burning

A

Pretreating the injection-site vein with lidocaine (0.5 mg/kg) OR mixing the lidocaine with the initial propofol injection (0.5 to 1.0 mg/kg)

28
Q

Critical dosing threshold of Ketamine that when exceeded is associated with appearance of abrupt dissociative state

A

IV: 1.0 to 1.5 mg/ kg
IM: 3 to 4 mg/kg

29
Q

Medications can be given along with ketamine to minimize the development of emergence reactions

A

Midazolam OR Propofol

30
Q

Because of the possibility of emergence reactions, do not use ketamine in patients with —?—

A

Schizophrenia &Psychosis

31
Q

Some evidence that the hypersympathetic state resulting from ketamine administration may be more profound in patients with —?—

A

Porphyria & Thyroid disorders

32
Q

Medications can be given to blunt hypersalivation and bronchorrhea in patients who received Ketamine

A

Glycopyrrolate OR Atropine

33
Q

TRUE or FALSE?
There is no clear evidence that ketamine is harmful as an induction or sedation agent in patients with a potential head injury

A

TRUE
There is no clear evidence that ketamine is harmful as an induction or sedation agent in patients with a potential head injury if it is the appropriate sedative choice based on other considerations

34
Q

Its minimal hemodynamic effects, combined with a short duration of action, make an excellent agent for procedures such as cardioversion

A

Etomidate

35
Q

Etomidate is characterized by 2 issues that are not commonly seen with other PSA agents

A

Adrenocortical suppression & Myoclonus

36
Q

Medication that can reduce the incidence and severity of myoclonus induced by Etomidate

A

Midazolam (1 to 2mg IV)

37
Q

A rare side effect of synthetic opioids is skeletal muscle rigidity, which primarily affects the chest and abdominal muscles

A

Rigid chest syndrome

38
Q

High dosages of synthetic opioids that may lead to chest wall rigidity
Fentanyl: ?
Alfentanil: ?
Remifentanil: ?

A

Fentanyl: 3 to 5 mcg/kg
Alfentanil: 130 mcg/kg
Remifentanil: >1 mcg/kg

39
Q

Medications that may attenuate chest wall rigidity

A

Propofol, Thiopental OR Naloxone

40
Q

PSA in obese patients: Drugs that are based on IBW or LBW

A

Fentanyl
Ketamine
Etomidate
Propofol

41
Q

PSA in obese patients: Drugs that are based on TBW

A

Benzodiazepines

42
Q

Standardized Dosing Equations in Obesity (Table 37-5 page 256)
Measured body weight (kg)

A

Total body weight (TBW)

43
Q

Standardized Dosing Equations in Obesity (Table 37-5 page 256)
M = 50 + (2.3 [Ht. (in.) - 60])
F = 45.5 + (2.3 [Ht. (in.) - 60])

A

Ideal body weight (IBW)

44
Q

Standardized Dosing Equations in Obesity (Table 37-5 page 256)
M = (9270 × TBW)/[6680 + (216 × BMI)]
F = (9270 × TBW)/[8780 + (244 × BMI)]

A

Lean body weight (LBW)

45
Q

Standardized Dosing Equations in Obesity (Table 37-5 page 256)
Weight (kg)/height (m)2

A

Body mass index (BMI)