Chapter 31 Quiz

Question 1

A “hip” fracture is actually a fracture of the:
Select one:
A. pelvic girdle.
B. femoral shaft.
C. proximal femur.
D. pubic symphysis.

Answer 1

C. proximal femur.

Question 2

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should:
Select one:
A. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.
B. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint.
C. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.
D. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation.

Answer 2

C. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

Question 3

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should:
Select one:
A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
B. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.
C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.
D. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.

Answer 3

A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

Question 4

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should:
Select one:
A. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
B. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
C. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions.
D. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.

Answer 4

B. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

Question 5

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
Select one:
A. break in the continuity of the bone.
B. total loss of function in a bone.
C. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
D. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.

Answer 5

A. break in the continuity of the bone.

Question 6

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the:
Select one:
A. proximal radius.
B. distal humerus.
C. olecranon process.
D. radial head.

Answer 6

B. distal humerus.

Question 7

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
Select one:
A. a bullet shatters the underlying bone.
B. bone ends protrude through the skin.
C. a large laceration overlies the fracture.
D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

Answer 7

D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

Question 8

Crepitus and false motion are:
Select one:
A. most common with dislocations.
B. positive indicators of a fracture.
C. indicators of a severe sprain.
D. only seen with open fractures.

Answer 8

B. positive indicators of a fracture.

Question 9

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should:
Select one:
A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.
C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately.
D. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.

Answer 9

A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

Question 10

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient’s blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should:
Select one:
A. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
B. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis.
C. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.
D. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.

Answer 10

A. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

Question 11

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless:
Select one:
A. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
B. the patient is clinically unstable.
C. deformity and swelling are present.
D. the patient is in severe pain.

Answer 11

B. the patient is clinically unstable.

Question 12

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity?
Select one:
A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent
B. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
C. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes
D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

Answer 12

B. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Question 13

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called:
Select one:
A. fascia.
B. tendons.
C. ligaments.
D. cartilage.

Answer 13

B. tendons.

Question 14

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:
Select one:
A. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.
C. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.
D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

Answer 14

D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

Question 15

The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
Select one:
A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
B. nervous system’s control over the muscles.
C. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.

Answer 15

C. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.

Question 16

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.
B. assume that minimal force was applied to the back.
C. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
D. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

Answer 16

D. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

Question 17

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity?
Select one:
A. Severe strain
B. Moderate sprain
C. Displaced fracture
D. Hairline fracture

Answer 17

C. Displaced fracture

Question 18

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?
Select one:
A. Pelvic fracture with hypotension
B. Bilateral femur fractures
C. An amputated extremity
D. Nondisplaced long bone fractures

Answer 18

A. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Question 19

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?
Select one:
A. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.
B. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury.
D. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

Answer 19

D. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

Question 20

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the:
Select one:
A. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.
B. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact.
C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
D. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted.

Answer 20

C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.