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Additional Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when:

A. the intercostal muscles contract.
B. abdominal contents descend.
C. the diaphragm descends.
D. intrathoracic pressure decreases.

A

A. the intercostal muscles contract.

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2
Q

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:

A. liver dysfunction.
B. renal insufficiency.
C. gallbladder disease.
D. acute pancreatitis.

A

A. liver dysfunction.

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3
Q

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:

A. vertebral arch.
B. vertebral body.
C. spinal canal.
D. intervertebral disc.

A

C. spinal canal.

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4
Q

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to:

A. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.
B. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.
C. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury.
D. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture.

A

A. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.

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5
Q

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is:

A. a pulse that is rapid and thready.
B. a decreased level of consciousness.
C. an abnormally low blood pressure.
D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

A

B. a decreased level of consciousness.

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6
Q

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:

a) dizziness upon standing.
b) a rapid, thready pulse.
c) a decreasing blood pressure.
d) rapid, shallow breathing.

A

a) dizziness upon standing.

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7
Q

The ______ nerves control the diaphragm.

A. costal
B. intercostal
C. phrenic
D. vagus

A

C. phrenic

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8
Q 
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
Select one:
A. administer high-flow oxygen.
B. check her airway for obstructions.
C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
D. move her to the ambulance stretcher.
A

B. check her airway for obstructions.

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9
Q

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:

A. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps.
B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board.
C. follow the commands of the person at the patient’s torso.
D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

A

D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

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10
Q

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems.

A. brain stem
B. cerebellum
C. spinal cord
D. cerebral cortex

A

A. brain stem

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11
Q

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding?
Select one:
A. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis
B. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure
C. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport
D. Position the patient with his injured side down

A

B. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure

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12
Q 
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
Select one:
A. elevating the injured extremity.
B. compressing a pressure point.
C. packing the wound with gauze.
D. applying local direct pressure.
A

D. applying local direct pressure.

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13
Q 
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the:
Select one:
A. kidney.
B. stomach.
C. liver.
D. spleen.
A

C. liver.

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14
Q

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:

Select one:

a. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable
b. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam
c. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine
d. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen

A

b. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam

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15
Q

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:

A. peripheral vasodilation
B. venous vasoconstriction.
C. increased blood oxygen.
D. decreased blood oxygen.

A

D. decreased blood oxygen.

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16
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:
Select one:

A. provide emotional support regarding her sister.
B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.
C. determine if she was injured when she fainted.
D. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

A

C. determine if she was injured when she fainted.

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17
Q 
The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is:
Select one:
A. acute hypotension.
B. a skull fracture.
C. cerebral edema.
D. a hypoxic seizure.
A

C. cerebral edema.

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18
Q 
Which of the following is of LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn?
Select one:
A. Past medical history
B. Known drug allergies
C. Age of the patient
D. Area(s) burned
A

B. Known drug allergies

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19
Q 
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at:
Select one:
A. C1 and C2.
B. C3, C4, and C5.
C. C3 and C4.
D. C1, C2, and C3.
A

B. C3, C4, and C5.

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20
Q

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the:
Select one:
A. systolic blood pressure exclusively.
B. ability of the blood to effectively clot.
C. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen.
D. white blood cells’ ability to fight infection.

A

B. ability of the blood to effectively clot.

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21
Q 
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. swelling.
B. deformity.
C. ecchymosis.
D. point tenderness.
A

B. deformity.

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22
Q 
You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:
Select one:
A. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.
B. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
C. arrange for an ALS rendezvous.
D. repeat your secondary assessment.
A

B. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

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23
Q

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar:
Select one:
A. before manually stabilizing the patient’s head.
B. after moving the patient to a long backboard.
C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions.
D. after the torso has been adequately secured.

A

C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions.

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24
Q

A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should:
Select one:
A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop.
B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg.
C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps.
D. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.

A

C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps.

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25
Q

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:
Select one:

A. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye.
B. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.
C. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed.
D. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.

A

D. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.

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26
Q

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
Select one:

A. sensory
B. motor
C. somatic
D. central

A

A. sensory

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27
Q

Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked?
Select one:

A. Shoulder fracture
B. Pelvic fracture
C. Lumbar spine fracture
D. Femur fracture

A

A. Shoulder fracture

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28
Q

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to:
Select one:

A. linear skull fractures.
B. nondisplaced skull fractures.
C. depressed skull fractures.
D. basilar skull fractures.

A

C. depressed skull fractures.

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29
Q

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing’s triad?

A. blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min
B.blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg pulse, 120 beats/min
respirations, 10 breaths/min
C.blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg pulse, 140 beats/min pulse, 140 beats/min respirations, 28 breaths/min
D.blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min

A

A. blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min

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30
Q

The lower jawbone is called the:
Select one:

A. mandible.
B. zygoma.
C. mastoid.
D. maxillae.

A

A. mandible.

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31
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs when:
Select one:

A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
B. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
D. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.

A

A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

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32
Q

When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed:

A. in an extended position
B. in a functional position
C. into a fist
D. in a straight position

A

B. in a functional position

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33
Q

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be:

A) conscious and alert.
B) completely unresponsive.
C) responsive to verbal stimuli.
D) responsive to painful stimuli.

A

D) responsive to painful stimuli.

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34
Q

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain’s total volume.
Select one:

A. cerebellum
B. meninges
C. brain stem
D. cerebrum

A

D. cerebrum

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35
Q

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
Select one:

A. should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
B. indicates a state of decompensated shock.
C. is always accompanied by hypotension.
D. is most commonly caused by severe pain.

A

A. should be assumed to be a sign of shock.

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36
Q

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient’s spine?
Select one:
A. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication
B. Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally
C. No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities
D. Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling.

A

A. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

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37
Q 
An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):
Select one:
A. amputation.
B. laceration.
C. avulsion.
D. incision.
A

C. avulsion.

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38
Q

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should:

A) apply a cervical collar and suction his airway.
B) open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C) apply a pressure dressing to the patient’s arm.
D) tilt the patient’s head back and lift up on his chin.

A

B) open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

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39
Q 
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause:
Select one:
A. nausea or vomiting.
B. distention.
C. diffuse bruising.
D. referred pain.
A

B. distention.

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40
Q

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:
Select one:

A. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.
B. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route.
C. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.
D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

A

A. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.

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41
Q

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
Select one:

A. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.
B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
C. require prompt extrication from an automobile.
D. are found supine and have stable vital signs.

A

B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.

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42
Q

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should:
Select one:

A. make note of it and continue your assessment.
B. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
C. request a paramedic to decompress the chest.
D. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

A

D. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

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43
Q

Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because:
Select one:
A. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.
B. the nerve endings have been destroyed.
C. blister formation protects the burn.
D. they are generally not conscious.

A

B. the nerve endings have been destroyed.

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44
Q 
If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should:
A) apply an AED at once.
B) immediately begin CPR.
C) palpate at another pulse site.
D) assess for adequate breathing.
A

B) immediately begin CPR.

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45
Q

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:

A) start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.
B) ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease.
C) perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.
D) notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

A

A) start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible

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46
Q

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct?

A. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord
B. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.
C. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing.
D. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes.

A

B. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

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47
Q

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient’s lower extremities, you should expect the patient to:

A) wiggle his or her toes on command.
B) feel you touching the extremity.
C) note any changes in temperature.
D) identify different types of stimuli.

A

A) wiggle his or her toes on command.

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48
Q

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as:

A) unequal pupils.
B) bruising behind the ear.
C) swelling to the orbital area.
D) fluid drainage from the nose.

A

B) bruising behind the ear.

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49
Q

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to:

A) open the airway and give two rescue breaths.
B) begin chest compressions and request backup.
C) immediately transport the child to the hospital.
D) assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

A

D) assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

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50
Q

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:

A. conversion.
B. cavitation.
C. capitulation.
D. congruent.

A

B. cavitation.

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51
Q

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient’s condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly?

A. Epidural hematoma
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Cerebral contusion
D. Cerebral concussion

A

A. Epidural hematoma

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52
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct?

A. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced.
B. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin.
C. The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection.
D. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

A

D. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

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53
Q

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated:

A. heart rate and blood pressure increase.
B. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress.
C. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
D. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.

A

C. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.

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54
Q

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

A. epiglottitis
B. croup
C. pertussis
D. bronchiolitis

A

D. bronchiolitis

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55
Q

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:

A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.
B. instruct him to hold is breath for as long as he comfortably can.
C. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

A

B. instruct him to hold is breath for as long as he comfortably can.

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56
Q

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that:

A. naloxone administration could cause seizure in this patient
B. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.
C. naloxone should not be given if the patient’s breathing is slow.
D. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs.

A

A. naloxone administration could cause seizure in this patient

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57
Q

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _____ doeses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.

A. three
B. five
C. two
D. four

A

A. three

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58
Q

Shortly after assisting a 65- year old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The pt remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should:

A. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure.
B. transport her in a sitting position.
C. assist ventilations with a BVM
D. place her in a supine position

A

D. place her in a supine position

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59
Q

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial actions should be to:

A. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button
B. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.
C. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing.
D. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse.

A

C. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing.

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60
Q

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

A. avoid contaminating yourself
B. decontaminate the patient’s skin
C. move the patient to a safe area
D. obtain and maintain a patent airway

A

A. avoid contaminating yourself

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61
Q

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by:

A. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium
B. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries
C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow
D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

A

C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

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62
Q

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:

A. profound increase in the patient’s heart rate
B. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting
C. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature
D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle

A

D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle

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63
Q

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, except:

A. hypoglycemia
B. hypertension
C. diabetes mellitus
D. elevated cholesterol

A

A. hypoglycemia

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64
Q

Ketone production is the result of:

A. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/DL
B. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable
C. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low
D. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane

A

B. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable

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65
Q

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:

A. lack of exercise
B. hyperglycemia
C. family history
D. excess stress

A

C. family history

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66
Q

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is most important to:

A. assess the scene for potential hazards
B. request a paramedic unit for assistance
C. gain immediate access to the patient
D. determine if you need additional help

A

A. assess the scene for potential hazards

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67
Q

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:

A. who have experienced head injury
B. with systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg
C. who have taken up to two doses
D. with a history of ischemic stroke

A

A. who have experienced head injury

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68
Q

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:

A. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea
B. altered mental status and bradycardia
C. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities
D. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech

A

C. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

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69
Q

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the:

A. intranasal route
B. inhalation route
C. sublingual route
D. transdermal route

A

A. intranasal route

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70
Q

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, except:

A. bradycardia
B. hypotension
C. hypertension
D. severe headache

A

C. hypertension

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71
Q

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s condition?

A. Acute Pulmonary embolism
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Exacerbation of his COPD
D. Rupture of the diaphragm

A

B. Spontaneous pneumothorax

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72
Q

When the myocardium requires more oxygen:

A. the AV node conducts fewer impulses
B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate
C. the heart contracts with less force
D. the heart rate decreases significantly

A

B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate

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73
Q

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:

A. was received directly from the aorta
B. flows into the pulmonary arteries
C. has a high concentration of oxygen
D. enters the systemic circulation

A

B. flows into the pulmonary arteries

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74
Q

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:

A. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension
B. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes.
C. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke
D. authorization from medical control has been obtained

A

D. authorization from medical control has been obtained

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75
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient’s wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:

A. attach the AED immediately
B. apply a nonrebreathing mask
C. begin ventilatory assistance
D. obtain baseline vital signs

A

C. begin ventilatory assistance

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76
Q

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because:

A. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion
B. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood
C. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases
D. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood

A

B. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood

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77
Q

Angina pectoris occurs when:

A. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm
B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply
C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds demand
D. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque

A

B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply

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78
Q

Which of the following is an example of a generic drug?

A. Bayer
B. Aspirin
C. Excedrin
D. Advil

A

B. Aspirin

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79
Q

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious, and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:

A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing
B. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration
C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a BVM at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min
D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen

A

B. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration

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80
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct?

A. the AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient
B. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED
C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse
D. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival

A

A. the AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient

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81
Q

The purpose of defibrillation is to:

A. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation
B. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation
C. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient
D. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells

A

D. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells

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82
Q

Ischemic heart disease is defined as:

A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery
B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium
C. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation
D. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen

A

B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium

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83
Q

What medication form does oral glucose come in?

A. Suspension
B. Fine powder
C. Liquid
D. Gel

A

D. Gel

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84
Q

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:

A. reduces the associated chest pain
B. dissolves the coronary artery clot
C. causes direct coronary vasodilation
D. prevents the aggregation of platelets

A

D. prevents the aggregation of platelets

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85
Q

After the AED has delivered it’s shock, the EMT should:

A. assess for a carotid pulse
B. transport the patient at once
C. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm
D. immediately resume CPR

A

D. immediately resume CPR

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86
Q

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control?

A. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance
B. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed
C. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly
D. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route

A

D. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route

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87
Q

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:

A. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood
B. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2
C. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply
D. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels

A

A. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood

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88
Q

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:

A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing
B. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide
C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.
D. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream

A

A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing

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89
Q

You are attending a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B. pneumonia
C. influenza type A
D. tuberculosis

A

D. tuberculosis

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90
Q

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ______.

A. alternative drive
B. CO2 drive
C. COPD drive
D. Hypoxic drive

A

D. Hypoxic drive

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91
Q

Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must:

A. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin
B. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure
C. ensure the medication is in tablet form
D. obtain authorization from medical control

A

D. obtain authorization from medical control

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92
Q

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

A. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest
B. perform ventilations only and allow the device to defibrillate
C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest
D. remove the batter from the monitor and leave the vest in place

A

C. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest

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93
Q

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?

A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
D. Celiac sprue

A

B. Cystic fibrosis

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94
Q

After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should:

A. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses
B. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting
C. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension
D. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache

A

C. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension

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95
Q

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:

A. the brain stem inhibits respirations
B. respirations decrease in rate and depth
C. respirations increase in rate and depth
D. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation

A

C. respirations increase in rate and depth

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96
Q

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should:

A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport
B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital
C. move the nitroglycerine patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay
D. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly

A

A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport

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97
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct?

A. chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive
B. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals
C. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels
D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive

A

C. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels

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98
Q

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedence, which is the:

A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body
B. distance between the two AED pads on the chest
C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity
D. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver

A

C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity

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99
Q

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct?

A. the potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light
B. nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum
C. a maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient
D. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes

A

D. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes

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100
Q

You respond to a residence for a patient who is “not acting right.” As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should:

A. calm him down so you can assess him
B. contact medical control for instructions
C. retreat at once and call for law enforcement
D. be assertive and talk the patient down

A

C. retreat at once and call for law enforcement

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101
Q

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:

A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis
B. inflammation of the bronchioles
C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract
D. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm

A

C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract

102
Q

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:

A. dilate the blood vessels in the muscles
B. slows the heart and respiratory rates
C. prepares the body to handle stress
D. causes an increase in the heart rate

A

B. slows the heart and respiratory rates

103
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?

A. weight gain and edema
B. low blood glucose level
C. weight loss and polyuria
D. Total lack of appetite

A

C. weight loss and polyuria

104
Q

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

A. an unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
B. a semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
C. a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
D. a conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

A

C. a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

105
Q

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?

A. orally
B. sublingually
C. injected
D. inhaled

A

B. sublingually

106
Q

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

A. respiratory system
B. cardiovascular system
C. immune system
D. endocrine system

A

C. immune system

107
Q

It would be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin when experiencing:

A. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion
B. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes
C. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep
D. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest

A

D. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest

108
Q

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. cool, clammy skin
B. warm, dry skin
C. rapid, thready pulse
D. acetone breath odor

A

A. cool, clammy skin

109
Q

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

A. fluid accumulation outside the lung
B. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue
C. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli
D. a unilaterally collapsed lung

A

A. fluid accumulation outside the lung

110
Q

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the ______, which originate(s) from the ______.

A. coronary arteries, aorta
B. coronary sinus, vena cava
C. vena cava, coronary veins
D. aorta, inferior vena cava

A

A. coronary arteries, aorta

111
Q

Crackles (rales) are caused by ______.

A. air passing through fluid
B. mucus in the larger airways
C. narrowing of the upper airways
D. severe bronchoconstriction

A

A. air passing through fluid

112
Q

While auscultating an elderly woman’s breath sounds, you hear low-pitched “rattling” sounds at the bases of both her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

A. Aspiration pneumonia
B. Early pulmonary edema
C. Acute asthma attack
D. Widespread atelectasis

A

A. Aspiration pneumonia

113
Q

You and your EMT partner are the first to arrive on the scene of an unresponsive 70-year-old man. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. A paramedic unit is en route to the scene and will arrive in approximately 5 minutes. You should:

A. begin CPR, apply the AED, and deliver a shock if it is indicated
B. apply the AED while your partner provides rescue breathing
C. begin CPR and have your partner update the responding paramedics
D. perform CPR only and wait for the manual defribillator to arrive

A

A. begin CPR, apply the AED, and deliver a shock if it is indicated

114
Q

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because:

A. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely
B. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria
C. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions
D. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates

A

A. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely

115
Q

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should:

A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels
B. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing
C. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma
D. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations

A

D. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations

116
Q

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing
B. a marked increase in the exhalation phase
C. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume
D. a complete cessation of respiratory effort

A

A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

117
Q

The poison control center will be able to provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

A. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug
B. knows the location of the closest hospital
C. is aware of the substance that is involved
D. is aware of the patient’s age and gender

A

C. is aware of the substance that is involved

118
Q

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should:

A. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.
B. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin.
C. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
D. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport.

A

A. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.

119
Q

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should:

A. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting
B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation
C. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning
D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once

A

B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation

120
Q

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

A. bronchi
B. alveoli
C. trachea
D. capillaries

A

B. alveoli

121
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?

A. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine
B. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
C. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route
D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector

A

B. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug

122
Q

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

A. rate and depth of breathing
B. rate of the patient’s pulse
C. presence of a medical identification tag
D. patient’s mental status

A

A. rate and depth of breathing

123
Q

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours’ duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

A. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.
B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
C. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

A

C. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

124
Q

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because:

A. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field
B. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI
C. angina and AMI present identically
D. angina usually occurs after an AMI

A

A. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field

125
Q

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is:

A. hypotension
B. hypertension
C. hypoglycemia
D. hyperglycemia

A

C. hypoglycemia

126
Q

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by:

A. severe bradycardia
B. ventricular fibrillation
C. congestive heart failure
D. cardiogenic shock

A

B. ventricular fibrillation

127
Q

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:

A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing
B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow
C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow
D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen

A

B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow

128
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct?

A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis
B. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure
C. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension
D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction

A

C. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension

129
Q

During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a “no shock advised” message. This indicates that:

A. the AED has detected asystole
B. she has a pulse and does not need CPR
C. she is not in ventricular fibrillation
D. the AED detected patient motion

A

C. she is not in ventricular fibrillation

130
Q

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:

A. increases blood return to the right atrium
B. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries
C. constricts the veins throughout the body
D. increases myocardial contraction force

A

B. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries

131
Q

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

A. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
C. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
D. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath shounds and pink skin

A

D. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath shounds and pink skin

132
Q

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

A. dependent edema
B. labored breathing
C. flat jugular veins
D. pulmonary edema

A

A. dependent edema

133
Q

When documenting a patient’s description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should:

A. use medical terminology
B. document his or her own perception
C. underline the patient’s quotes
D. use the patient’s own words

A

D. use the patient’s own words

134
Q

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for:

A. right ventricular failure
B. significant hypotension
C. congestive heart failure
D. a cardiac arrhythmia

A

C. congestive heart failure

135
Q

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:

A. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia
B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest
C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available
D. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse

A

C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available

136
Q

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the:

A. carotid arteries
B. iliac arteries
C. subclavian arteries
D. brachial arteries

A

A. carotid arteries

137
Q

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of:

A. an upper airway infection
B. toxic chemical inhalation
C. severe hyperventilation
D. right-sided heart failure

A

B. toxic chemical inhalation

138
Q

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

A. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed
B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane
C. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion
D. the percentage of injaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen

A

B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane

139
Q

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

A. albuterol.
B. an antihistamine.
C. a beta-antagonist.
D. epinephrine.

A

D. epinephrine

140
Q

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiance. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:

A. request a paramedic to give her a sedative
B. position her on her left side and transport at once
C. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed
D. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag

A

C. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed

141
Q

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means the patient has:

A. an absence of breath sounds
B. abnormal breath sounds
C. diminished breath sounds
D. normal breath sounds

A

B. abnormal breath sounds

142
Q

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, except:

A. an overdose of aspirin
B. a respiratory infection
C. high blood glucose levels
D. a narcotic overdose

A

D. a narcotic overdose

143
Q

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm:

A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest
B. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours
C. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset
D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea

A

C. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset

144
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct?

A. nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes
B. it is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling
C. it can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest
D. it often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes

A

C. it can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest

145
Q

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe:

A. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate
B. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack
C. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia
D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded

A

C. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia

146
Q

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. sudden unexplained sweating
B. pain exacerbated by breathing
C. irregular heartbeat
D. shortness of breath or dyspnea

A

B. pain exacerbated by breathing

147
Q

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

A. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history
B. assess the adequacy of his respirations
C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin
D. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin

A

B. assess the adequacy of his respirations

148
Q

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be most important to determine:

A. approximately how much water the patient drank that day
B. if there is a family history of diabetes or releated conditions
C. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress
D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin

A

C. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress

149
Q

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?

A. lung sounds
B. orthostatic vital signs
C. blood glucose levels
D. distal pulse, motor, sensation

A

A. lung sounds

150
Q

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you re-analyze the patient’s cardiac rhythm and receive a “no shock advised” message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to:

A. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen
B. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly
C. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter
D. transport at once and reanalyze his rhythm en route

A

B. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly

151
Q

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:

A. adequate air exchange
B. respiratory difficulty
C. an obstructed airway
D. respiratory insufficiency

A

A. adequate air exchange

152
Q

Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, except:

A. blood volume loss
B. vasoconstriction
C. venous pooling
D. hypotension

A

B. vasoconstriction

153
Q

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the:

A. skin
B. nervous system
C. respiratory tract
D. vascular system

A

A. skin

154
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when:

A. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus
B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava
C. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia
D. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta

A

B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava

155
Q

When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to:

A rest and breathe deeply
B push for 30 seconds
C take quick short breaths
D hold her breath

A

C take quick short breaths

156
Q

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

A. removing sodium and water from the body
B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body
C. accommodating a large amount of blood volume
D. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium

A

A. removing sodium and water from the body

157
Q

A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a:

A. CS tube
B. G-tube
C. cerebral bypass
D. shunt

A

D. shunt

158
Q

Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:

A. headache and edema
B. dyspnea and bradycardia
C. dysuria and constipation
D. marked hypoglycemia

A

A. headache and edema

159
Q

A common cause of shock in an infant is:

A. cardiovascular disease
B. a cardiac dysrhythmia
C. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea
D. excessive tachycardia

A

C. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea

160
Q

To assess a patient’s general body temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the:

A. neck
B. abdomen
C. chest
D. forehead

A

B. abdomen

161
Q

With regard to the legal implications of child abuse:

A. you should document your perceptions on the run form
B. a supervisor can forbid you from reporting possible abuse
C. child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven
D. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse

A

D. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse

162
Q

When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to:

A. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke
B. ascertain if there is a history of atrial fibrillation
C. determine the onset of the patient’s symptoms
D. administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible

A

C. determine the onset of the patient’s symptoms

163
Q

Early signs of respiratory distress in a child include:

A. cyanosis
B. decreased LOC
C. bradycardia
D. restlessness

A

D. restlessness

164
Q

Botulinum is:

A. a disease of the leukocytes
B. rarely associated with death
C. a potent bacterial neurotoxin
D. an acute viral infection

A

C. a potent bacterial neurotoxin

165
Q

While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should:

A. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery
B. push the infant’s head away from the cord
C. carefully push the cord back into the vagina
D. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing

A

B. push the infant’s head away from the cord

166
Q

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because:

A. they often freeze when they see the lights in hte rearview mirror
B. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle
C. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible
D. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road

A

B. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle

167
Q

Which of the following occurs during true labor?

A. uterine contractions decrease in intensity
B. the uterus becomes very soft and movable
C. uterine contractions become more regular
D. uterine contractions last about 10 seconds

A

C. uterine contractions become more regular

168
Q

Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of a semiconscious infant or child, you must:

A. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct
B. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended positon
C. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions
D. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions

A

C. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions

169
Q

Children with N. meningitides would most likely present with:

A. a generalized rash with intense itching
B. a low-grade fever and tachycardia
C. hypothermia and an irregular pulse
D. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash

A

D. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash

170
Q

immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

A. record the time and dose given
B. notify medical control of your action
C. properly dispose of the syringe
D. reassess the patient’s vital signs

A

C. properly dispose of the syringe

171
Q

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except:

A. restocking any disposable items you used
B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival
C. completing a detailed written report
D. giving a verbal report to the clerk

A

D. giving a verbal report to the clerk

172
Q

General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, except:

A. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times
B. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible
C. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug
D. removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected

A

D. removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected

173
Q

Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their:

A. tongue is relatively small and falls back into the throat
B. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal
C. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue
D. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck

A

C. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue

174
Q

A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients?

a. ) Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black)
b. ) Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red)
c. ) Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)
d. ) Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)

A

c.) Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)

175
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident?

A. an incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials
B. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system’s available resources
C. an incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured
D. an incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients

A

B. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system’s available resources

176
Q

Which of the following medications increases a person’s risk of a heat-related emergency?

A. tylenol
B. motrin
C. aspirin
D. diuretics

A

D. diuretics

177
Q

The skin lesions associated with smallpox:

A. initially form on the lower trunk
B. develop early during the disease
C. are identical in their development
D. are of different shapes and sizes

A

C. are identical in their development

178
Q

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

A. aortic aneurysm
B. acute pancreatitis
C. strangulated hernia
D. kidney stones

A

A. aortic aneurysm

179
Q

When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should:

A. secure the torso before the head
B. secure the head before the torso
C. slide the device under the child
D. pad underneath the child’s head

A

A. secure the torso before the head

180
Q

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, except:

A. headache
B. drowsiness
C. tachycardia
D. dizziness

A

B. drowsiness

181
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct?

A. symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months of being infected
B. painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women
C. most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms
D. mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever

A

B. painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women

182
Q

When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to:

A. phosgene or chlorine
B. a vesicant agent
C. a nerve agent
D. sarin or soman

A

A. phosgene or chlorine

183
Q

When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should:

A. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task
B. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient
C. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay
D. explain procedures while in the process of performing them

A

B. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient

184
Q

The purpose of a jump kit is to:

A. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact
B. carry advanced lfe support equipment approved by the EMS medical director
C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care
D. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.

A

C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care

185
Q

During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should:

A. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you
B. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated
C. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them
D. retrieve the patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment

A

A. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you

186
Q

The ______ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of an MCI.

A. transportation
B. support
C. triage
D. staging

A

D. staging

187
Q

High humidity reduces the body’s ability to lose heat through:

A. radiation
B. convection
C. conduction
D. evaporation

A

D. evaporation

188
Q

A 75-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following findings should alert the EMT to the possibility of a pulmonary embolism?

A. History of deep venous thrombosis
B. The patient is prescribed an inhaler
C. Frequent urinary tract infections
D. The patient’s abdomen is swollen

A

A. History of deep venous thrombosis

189
Q

A 2-year-old child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should:

A. visualize the child’s airway
B. perform abdominal thrusts
C. perform a blind finger sweep
D. give oxygen and transport at once

A

B. perform abdominal thrusts

190
Q

A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant’s mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant’s heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect:

A. moderate dehydration
B. mild dehydration
C. hypovolemic shock
D. severe dehydration

A

A. moderate dehydration

191
Q

In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa:

A. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma
B. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding
C. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain
D. may present without significant abdominal pain

A

B. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding

192
Q

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:

A. request permission from medical control to give her another dose of epinephrine
B. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing
C. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens
D. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum

A

A. request permission from medical control to give her another dose of epinephrine

193
Q

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

A. stomach
B. appendix
C. liver
D. gallbladder

A

C. liver

194
Q

Which of the following organs assist in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

A. pancreas
B. spleen
C. kidney
D. liver

A

B. spleen

195
Q

When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to:

A. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonreabreathing mask
B. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen
C. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup
D. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face

A

C. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup

196
Q

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?

A. upper airway swelling
B. systemic vasodilation
C. severe hypotension
D. diffuse urticaria

A

A. upper airway swelling

197
Q

Heat stroke occurs when:

A. the body’s heat eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed
B. the ambient temperature exceeds 90F (32C) and the humidity is high
C. a person’s core body temperature rises above 103F (39C)
D. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss

A

A. the body’s heat eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed

198
Q

Placenta previa is defined as:

A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby
B. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta
C. premature placental separation from the uterine wall
D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening

A

D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening

199
Q

The umbilical cord:

A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth
B. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein
C. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery
D. carries blood away from the baby via the artery

A

B. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein

200
Q

A 70-year-old man complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. He has dried blood on his lips and is very anxious. His left leg is red, swollen, and painful. The EMT should:

A. suspect severe pneumonia
B. apply a cold pack to his leg
C. position the patient supine
D. administer high-flow oxygen

A

D. administer high-flow oxygen

201
Q

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should:

A. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions
B. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment
C. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task
D. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones

A

B. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment

202
Q

Bruising to the ______ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse.

A. back
B. shins
C. face
D. buttocks

A

B. shins

203
Q

When an elderly patient presents you with multiple over-the-counter medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to:

A. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for
B. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions
C. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient
D. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications

A

B. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions

204
Q

An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by:

A. wheezing
B. grunting
C. assuming a tripod position
D. retracting the intercostal muscles

A

B. grunting

205
Q

All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT:

A. smallpox
B. ricin
C. pneumonic plague
D. viral hemorrhagic fevers

A

B. ricin

206
Q

Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of:

A. fracture of the cervical spine
B. bleeding in the brain
C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage
D. multiple open fractures

A

B. bleeding in the brain

207
Q

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a _______ tag during a mass-casualty incident.

A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. black

A

B. yellow

208
Q

Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they:

A. are taking blood-thinning medications
B. have a history of Alzheimer disease
C. have minor abrasions to the head area
D. do not have deformities to the skull

A

A. are taking blood-thinning medications

209
Q

Which of the following statements regarding suctioning of a newborn’s mouth and oropharynx is correct?

A. If the head delivers facedown, the mouth and nose should be suctioned at once
B. Newborns rapidly expel fluid from their lungs and do not require suctioning
C. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present
D. Suctioning should be performed on all newborns immediately following delivery

A

C. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present

210
Q

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

A. can be reversed with prompt treatment
B. causes dehydration from excessive urination
C. occurs from conditions such as dehydration
D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

A

D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

211
Q

Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. wheezing
B. stridorous breathing
C. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal
D. a weak cough

A

A. wheezing

212
Q

A 2-month old infant was found unresponsive in his crib by his mother. When you arrive, you determine that the infant is apneic and pulseless. His skin is pale and cold and his arms are stiff. You should:

A. begin high-quality CPR and transport immediately
B. inform the child’s mother that her son is deceased
C. request the medical examiner to perform an autopsy
D. begin high quality CPR and request an ALS ambulance

A

B. inform the child’s mother that her son is deceased

213
Q

A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min that is weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia?

A. failure of the parasympathetic nervous system
B. deterioration of the cardiac conduction system
C. the effects of her antihypertensive medication
D. intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression

A

C. the effects of her antihypertensive medication

214
Q

A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial airway obstruction is called:

A. grunting
B. wheezing
C. ronchi
D. stridor

A

D. stridor

215
Q

Upon delivery of an infant’s head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should:

A. give high-flow oxygen to the mother and transport
B. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport
C. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord
D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant’s head

A

D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant’s head

216
Q

EMTs are called for an unresponsive infant. When they arrive, they find the mother holding her child. She advises that the child became limp, blue, and stopped breathing. Assessment reveals that the infant is conscious and crying, and has good muscle tone and pink skin color. The mother states that she will take her child to the doctor. The EMTs should:

A. allow the mother to take her child to the doctor, but inform her that the risk for SIDS is high
B. advise the mother that the danger has past and that she can take the child to the pediatrician
C. inform the mother that, although the event seems to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable
D. contact law enforcement personnel and advise them that they are suspicious for child abuse

A

C. inform the mother that, although the event seems to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable

217
Q

If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may:

A. stimulate the vagus nerve
B. push the tongue anteriorly
C. result in tachycardia
D. become obstructed by mucus

A

A. stimulate the vagus nerve

218
Q

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been:

A. incident briefing
B. lack of personnel
C. accountability
D. communications

A

D. communications

219
Q

An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:

A. the diver hold his or her breath during rapid ascent
B. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum
C. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water
D. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure

A

A. the diver hold his or her breath during rapid ascent

220
Q

Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include:

A. avoiding placement of a splint, if possible
B. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation
C. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity
D. separating the child from his or her parents

A

B. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation

221
Q

Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct?

A. because of a child’s proportionally large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults
B. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement
C. The majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis
D. Most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur between the first and second cervical vertebrae

A

B. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement

222
Q

Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency?

A. Failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 min
B. Significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta
C. Retern of contractions following delivery of the baby
D. More than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

A

C. Retern of contractions following delivery of the baby

223
Q

When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should:

A. use the appropriate medical terminology
B. realize that he or she will not understand you
C. be complex so the patient fully understands
D. use plain language and simple terms

A

D. use plain language and simple terms

224
Q

Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because:

A. they fear retribution from the abuser
B. they do not want to be bothersome
C. they are protective of the abuser
D. most elderly patients have dementia

A

A. they fear retribution from the abuser

225
Q

Which of the following assessment findings should concern the EMT MOST when assessing a child who experienced a seizure?

A. Tachycardia
B. Neck stiffness
C. High fever
D. Short postictal phase

A

B. Neck stiffness

226
Q

You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should:

A. begin immediate rescue breathing
B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse
C. open his airway and look in his mouth
D. perform a head tilt-chin-lift maneuver

A

B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse

227
Q

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)?

A. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min
B. Conscious, in sever pain, with radial pulses present
C. Conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min
D. Apneic, despite manually opening the airway

A

A. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

228
Q

a 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should:

A. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport
B. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it
C. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition
D. place the child in a supine postion and perform abdominal thrusts

A

A. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport

229
Q

Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3

A

D. 3

230
Q

When a child experiences a blunt chest injury:

A. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs
B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking
C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture
D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall

A

B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking

231
Q

Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because:

A. twisting injuries are more common in children
B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking
C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture
D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall

A

B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking

232
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct?

A. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards
B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical
C. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred
D. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label

A

B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical

233
Q

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless:

A. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her
B. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma
C. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest
D. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine

A

A. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her

234
Q

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

A. a paramedic is present at the scene
B. wheezing and hypotension are present
C. the patient is anxious and tachycardic
D. the reaction produces severe urticaria

A

B. wheezing and hypotension are present

235
Q

Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called:

A. accessory muscle use
B. tenting
C. hyperpnea
D. retracting

A

D. retracting

236
Q

In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with:

A. irritability of the left ventricle
B. a sudden ventricular arrythmia
C. severe hypoxia and bradycardia
D. acute hypoxia and tachycarda

A

C. severe hypoxia and bradycardia

237
Q

The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:

A. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg
B. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta
C. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage
D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord

A

D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord

238
Q

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to:

A. blood-clotting abnormalities
B. cardiac arrhythmias
C. a decreased heart rate
D. severe muscular rigidity

A

A. blood-clotting abnormalities

239
Q

You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should:

A. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm
B. keep him warm and ventilate with a BVM
C. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed
D. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds

A

B. keep him warm and ventilate with a BVM

240
Q

After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then:

A. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook
B. take measure to ensure the safety of yourself and others
C. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients
D. not allow anyone within 25 feet to 50 feet of the incident scene

A

B. take measure to ensure the safety of yourself and others

241
Q

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

A. retroperitoneal space
B. lungs and chest cavity
C. walls of the abdominal cavity
D. surface of the abdominal organs

A

C. walls of the abdominal cavity

242
Q

A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:

A. sarin toxicity
B. cutaneous anthrax
C. smallpox
D. yellow fever virus

A

C. smallpox

243
Q

Which of the following clinical presentation is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding
B. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness
C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge
D. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever

A

C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

244
Q

If a newborn’s heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should:

A. begin chest compressions
B. resuction the mouth only
C. provide ventilations for 30 seconds
D. flick the soles of his or her feet

A

C. provide ventilations for 30 seconds

245
Q

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should:

A. triage him or her as expectant
B. immediately check for a pulse
C. open the airway and reassess breathing
D. give five rescue breaths and reasses

A

B. immediately check for a pulse

246
Q

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:

A. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made
B. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed
C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries
D. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered

A

D. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered

247
Q

Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. bulging fontanelles
B. profound tachycardia
C. delayed capillary refill
D. dry mucous membranes

A

A. bulging fontanelles

248
Q

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and resolution of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should:

A. consider administering .15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction
B. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine
C. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine
D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine

A

D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine

249
Q

Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of:

A. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma
B. acetabular separation and severe falls
C. increased bone density and car crashes
D. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma

A

D. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma

250
Q

The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:

A. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene
B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene
C. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash
D. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible

A

C. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash

251
Q

When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient’s wishes cannot be located, the EMT should:

A. attempt to resuscitate the patient
B. contact medical control for advice
C. try to locate the documentation
D. allow the patient to die in peace

A

A. attempt to resuscitate the patient

EMT-B (42 decks)

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