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MT 1 > Chapter 3- The Skeletal System > Flashcards

Chapter 3- The Skeletal System Flashcards

0
Q

Red bone marrow forms some blood cells. Yellow bone marrow stares fat. -myel/o (also means spinal cord)

A

Bone marrow

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1
Q

Act as the framework for the body, protect the internal organs, and store the mineral calcium. -oss/e, oss/i, oste/o, ost/o

A

Bones

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2
Q

Creates a smooth surface for motion within the joints and protects the ends of the bones. -chondr/o

A

Cartilage

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3
Q

Work with the muscles to make a variety of motions possible. -arthr/o

A

Joints

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4
Q

A baby’s skeleton begins as fragile membranes and cartilage, but after three months it starts turning into bone in a process called __________, which continues through adolescences.

A

Ossification

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5
Q

Break down old or damaged bone

A

Osteoclasts

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6
Q

Help rebuild the bone

A

Osteoblasts

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7
Q

Though, fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of the bone. Ex: banana covering that protects and covers the actual banana

A

Periosteum

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8
Q

-um

A

Noun ending

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9
Q

Also known as cortical bone, dense, hard, and very strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of bones

A

Compact bone

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10
Q

Also known as cancellous bone, lighter and not as strong as compact bone. This type of bone is commonly found in the ends and inner portions of long bones such as the femur. Red bone marrow is located within this ____________ bone.

A

Spongy bone

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11
Q

Central cavity located in the shaft of long bones where it is surrounded by compact bone. It is here that red and yellow bone marrow are stored.

A

Medullary cavity

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12
Q

Pertaining to the inner section

A

Medullary

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13
Q

Tissue that lines the medullary cavity

A

Endosteum

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14
Q

Within

A

end-

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15
Q

Located within the spongy bone, is a hemopoietic tissue that manufactures red blood cells, hemoglobin, white blood cells, and thrombocytes.

A

Red bone marrow

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16
Q

Pertaining to the formation of blood cells. Also spelled hematopoietic.

A

Hemopoietic

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17
Q

Blood

A

Hem/o

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18
Q

Pertaining to formation

A

-poietic

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19
Q

Fat storage area. It is composed of chiefly of fat cells and is located in the medullary cavity of long bones.

A

Yellow bone marrow

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20
Q

Smooth, rubbery, blue-white connective tissue that acts as a shock absorber between bones.

A

Cartilage

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21
Q

Covers the surfaces of bones where they come together to form joints. This cartilage makes smooth joint movement possible and protects the bones from rubbing against each other.

A

Articular cartilage

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22
Q

Curved fibrous cartilage found in some joints, such as the knee and the temporomandibular joint of the jaw.

A

Meniscus

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23
Q

Shaft of a long bone

A

Diaphysis

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24
Q

Ends of long bones such as the femurs of the long legs. Covered with articular cartilage to protect it.

A

Epiphyses

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25
Q

End of the bone located nearest to the midline of the body

A

Proximal epiphysis

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26
Q

End of the bone located farthest away from the midline of the body

A

Distal epiphysis

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27
Q

Opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass

A

Foramen

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28
Q

The spinal cord passes through the ___________ ____________ of the occipital bone at the base of the skull.

A

Foramen magnum

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29
Q

Normal projection on the surface of a bone that most commonly serves as an attachment for a muscle or tendon

A

Process

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30
Q

___________ ___________ is the bony projection located on temporal bones just behind the ears

A

Mastoid process

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31
Q

Also known as articulations, place of union between two or more bones

A

Joints

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32
Q

Consisting of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue, hold the bones tightly together

A

Fibrous joints

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33
Q

Do not allow any movement. In newborns and very young children, some fibrous joints are movable before they have solidified.

A

Sutures

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34
Q

Also known as soft spots, are normally present on the skull of a newborn

A

Fontanelles

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35
Q

Allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage. Where the ribs connect to the sternum (breast bone), these joints allow movement during breathing

A

Cartilaginous joints

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36
Q

Some movement to facilitate childbirth

A

Pubic symphysis

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37
Q

Created where two bone articulate to permit a variety of motions

A

Synovial joints

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38
Q

Come together

A

Articulate

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39
Q

Such as the hips and shoulders, allow a wide range of movement in many directions

A

Ball-and-socket joints

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40
Q

Knees and elbows, are synovial joints that allow movement primarily in one direction or plane

A

Hinge joints

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41
Q

Lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid

A

Synovial membrane

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42
Q

Flows writhing the synovial cavity, acts as a lubricant to make the smooth movement of the joint possible

A

Synovial fluid

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43
Q

Bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting one bone to another bone or by joining a bone to cartilage. Complex hinge joints, such as the knee, are made up of series of ___________ that permit movement in different directions.

A

Ligaments

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44
Q

A fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction, such as in the shoulder, elbow, and knee joints where a tendon passes over a bone

A

Bursa

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45
Q

Protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circular systems. Consist of 80 bones of the head and body that are organized into five parts. 1) the bones of the skull 2) the ossicles, bones of the middle ear 3) the hyoid bone, located on the throat between the chin and the thyroid 4) the rib cage 5) the vertebral column

A

Axial skeleton

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46
Q

Makes body movement possible and also protects the organs of digestion, excretion, and reproduction. Consist of 126 bones that are organized into: 1) the upper extremities-shoulders, arms, forearms, wrists, and hands 2) the lower extremities-hips, thighs, legs, ankles, and feet

A

Appendicular skeleton

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47
Q

8 bones that form the cranium, 14 bones that form the fade, and 6 bones in the middle ear

A

Skull

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48
Q

Skull

A

Crani

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49
Q

Anterior portion of the cranium that forms the forehead

A

Frontal bone

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50
Q

Two of the largest bones of the skull

A

Parietal bones

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51
Q

Forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium

A

Occipital bone

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52
Q

Form the sides and the base of the cranium

A

Temporal bones

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53
Q

External opening of a canal. (Ear)

A

Meatus

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54
Q

Light, spongy bone located at the roof and sides of the nose

A

Ethmoid bone

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55
Q

Bony socket that surrounds and protects each eyeball

A

Orbit

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56
Q

The ______ is made up of 14 bones

A

Face

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57
Q

Form the upper part of the bridge of the nose

A

Nasal bones

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58
Q

Also known as the cheek bones, articulate with the frontal bone that makes up the forehead

A

Zygomatic bones

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59
Q

Also known as the maxillae, form most of the of the upper jaw.

A

Maxillary bones

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60
Q

Thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose

A

Inferior conchae

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61
Q

Forms the base for the nasal septum

A

Vomer bone

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62
Q

The cartilage wall that divides the two nasal cavities

A

Nasal septum

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63
Q

Also known as the jaw bone, is the only movable bone of the skull

A

Mandible

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64
Q

Also known as the rib cage, is the bony structure that protects the heart and lungs

A

Thoracic cavity

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65
Q

The 12 pairs of ______, which are also known as costals, attach posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae

A

Ribs

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66
Q

Rib

A

Cost

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67
Q

Pertaining to

A

-al

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68
Q

First seven pairs of ribs are called _________, and they attach anteriorly to the sternum

A

True ribs

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69
Q

The next three pairs of ribs are called _____________, and they attach anteriorly to cartilage that connects them to the sternum

A

False ribs

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70
Q

The last two pairs of ribs are called ______________, because they are only attached posteriorly to the vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly

A

Floating ribs

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71
Q

Also known as the breast bone, is a flat, dagger- shaped bone located in the middle of the chest. By joining with the ribs, it forms the front of the rib cage.

A

Sternum

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72
Q

The bony structure that forms the upper portion of the sternum

A

Manubrium

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73
Q

The bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum

A

Body of the sternum

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74
Q

Structure made of cartilage that forms the lower portion of the sternum

A

Xiphoid process

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75
Q

Also known as the shoulder girdle, supports the arms and hands

A

Pectoral girdle

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76
Q

A structure that encircles the body

A

Girdle

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77
Q

Also known as the collar bone, slender bone that connects the manubrium of the sternum to the scapula

A

Clavicle

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78
Q

Also known as the shoulder blade

A

Scapula

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79
Q

Extension of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder

A

Acromion

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80
Q

Bone of the upper arm

A

Humerus

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81
Q

Smaller and shorter bone in the forearm. Runs up the thumb side of the forearm.

A

Radius

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82
Q

Larger and longer bone of the forearm. The proximal end articulates with the distal end of the humerus to form the elbow joint

A

Ulna

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83
Q

Also known as the funny bone, a large projection on the upper end of the ulna. This forms the point of the elbow and exposes a nerve that tingles when struck.

A

Olecranon process

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84
Q

Bones that form the wrist. (Wrist bones)

A

Carpals

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85
Q

Are the five bones that form the palms of the hand

A

Metacarpals

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86
Q

Are the fourteen bones of the fingers. (Digits) the bones of the toes are also known as this.

A

Phalanges

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87
Q

Each of the four fingers has three bones

A

Distal (outermost), middle, and proximal (nearest the hand) phalanges

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88
Q

The thumb has two bones

A

Distal and proximal phalanges

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89
Q

Also known as the vertebral column, protects the spinal cord and supports the head and body

A

Spinal column

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90
Q

Pertaining to the vertebrae

A

Vertebral

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91
Q

Anterior portion of the vertebrae is solid to provide strength

A

Body of the vertebrae

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92
Q

Posterior portion of a vertebra. The transverse and spinous processes extend from this area and serve as attachments for muscles and tendons.

A

Lamina

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93
Q

Made of cartilage, separate and cushion the vertebrae from each other. They also act as shock absorbers and allow movement of the spinal column.

A

Intervertebral disks

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94
Q

These are the first set of 7 vertebrae, and they form the neck.

A

Cervical vertebrae

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95
Q

Pertaining to the neck, and these vertebrae are also known as C1 through C7.

A

Cervical

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96
Q

T1 through T12, are the second set of 12 vertebrae. Each of these vertebrae has a pair of ribs attached to it, and together they form the outward curve of the spine.

A

Thoracic vertebrae

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97
Q

Pertaining to the thoracic cavity

A

Thoracic

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98
Q

Known as L1 through L5, make up the third set of 5 vertebrae, and together they form the inward curve of the lower spine. These are the largest and strongest of the vertebrae and bear most of the body’s weight.

A

Lumbar vertebrae

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99
Q

Relating to the part of the back and sides between the ribs and the pelvis

A

Lumbar

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100
Q

Slightly curved, triangular-shaped bone near the base of the spine that forms the lower portion of the back. At birth, this is composed of five separate bones; however in the young child, they fuse together to form a single bone.

A

Sacrum

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101
Q

Also known as the tailbone, forms the end of the spine and is actually made up four small vertebrae that are fused together

A

Coccyx

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102
Q

Protects internal organs and supports the lower extremities.

A

Pelvic girdle

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103
Q

Forms the lower posterior portion of the pubic bone, bears the weight of the body when sitting

A

Ischium

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104
Q

Also known as the hip socket, is the large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint

A

Acetabulum

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105
Q

The largest bones in the body. Also known as the thigh bones.

A

Femurs

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106
Q

Articulates with the acetabulum (hip socket)

A

Head of the femur

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107
Q

Narrow area just below the head of the femur

A

Femoral neck

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108
Q

Also known as the kneecaps, is the bony anterior portion of the knee

A

Patella

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109
Q

Describes the posterior space behind the knee where the ligaments, vessels, and muscles related to this joint are located.

A

Popliteal

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110
Q

Make possible the movements of the knee. These are also known as the anterior and posterior __________ ligaments because they are shaped like a cross.

A

Cruciate ligaments

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111
Q

Also known as the shin bone, is the larger anterior weight-bearing bone of the lower leg

A

Tibia

112
Q

Is the smaller of the two bones of the lower leg

A

Fibula

113
Q

Joints that connect the lower leg and foot and make the necessary movements possible

A

Ankles

114
Q

Each ankle is made up of seven short ________ bones

A

Tarsal

115
Q

Rounded bony projection on the tibia and fibula on the sides of each ankle joint

A

Malleolus

116
Q

Is the ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula

A

Talus

117
Q

Also known as the heel bone, is the largest of the tarsal bones

A

Calcaneus

118
Q

The five ______________ form that part of the foot to which the toes are attached

A

Metatarsals

119
Q

The _____________ are the bones of the toes. The great toe has two of these. Each of the other toes has three of these. The fingers are also called this.

A

Phalanges (digits)

120
Q

Holds a doctor of chiropractic (DC) degree and specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating from misalignment of the spine.

A

Chiropractor

121
Q

A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles.

A

Orthopedic surgeon

122
Q

Holds a doctor of osteopathy (DO) degree and uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation

A

Osteopath

123
Q

Bone

A

Oste/o

124
Q

-path

A

Disease

125
Q

Holds a doctor of Podiatry (DP) or doctor of podiatrist medicine (DPM) degree and specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot

A

Podiatrist

126
Q

Foot

A

Pod

127
Q

Specialist

A

-iatrist

128
Q

Is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of arthritis and disorders such as osteoporosis, fibromyalgia, and tendinitis that are characterized by inflammation in the joints and connective tissues

A

Rheumatologist

129
Q

Is the loss or absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure

A

Ankylosis

130
Q

Crooked, bent, or stiff

A

Ankyl

131
Q

Abnormal condition or disease

A

-osis

132
Q

Is stiffness of the joints, especially in the elderly

A

Atherosclerosis

133
Q

Joint

A

Arthr/o

134
Q

Abnormal hardening

A

-sclerosis

135
Q

Is an inflammation of a bursa

A

Bursitis

136
Q

Bursa

A

Burs

137
Q

Inflammation

A

-itis

138
Q

Abnormal softening of cartilage

A

Chondromalacia

139
Q

Cartilage

A

Chondr/o

140
Q

Abnormal softening

A

-malacia

141
Q

Slow-growing benign tumor derived from cartilage cells

A

Chondroma

142
Q

Tumor

A

-Oma

143
Q

Inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum

A

Costochondritis

144
Q

Rib

A

Cost/o

145
Q

Also known as bunion, is an abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe

A

Hallux valgus

146
Q

Blood within a joint. (Joint injury). Can occur spontaneously in patients taking blood-thinning medications or those having a blood clotting disorder such as hemophilia

A

Hemarthrosis

147
Q

Blood

A

Hem

148
Q

Joint

A

Arthr

149
Q

Many

A

Poly-

150
Q

Occurs when a ligament that connects bones to a joint is wrenched or torn

A

Sprain

151
Q

Total displacement of a bone from its joint

A

Dislocation

152
Q

Partial displacement of a bone from its joints

A

Subluxation

153
Q

Is an inflammatory condition of one or more joints. There are 100 more types of this

A

Arthritis

154
Q

Also known as wear-and-tear arthritis, is most commonly associated with aging

A

Osteoarthritis

155
Q

This degenerative disorder cam cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function

A

Spondylitis

156
Q

Is a type of arthritis characterized by deposits of uric acid in joints

A

Gouty arthritis

157
Q

A by-product that is normally excreted by the kidneys. Gout develops when the excess _______ ________, which is present in the blood, forms crystals in the joints of the feet and legs.

A

Uric acid

158
Q

Chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints and some organs of other body systems are attacked

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

159
Q

Attacks the synovial membranes, they become inflamed and thickened so that the joints are increasingly swollen, painful, and immobile

A

RA

160
Q

Form of rheumatoid arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae.

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

161
Q

Progressive stiffening of a joint or joints

A

Ankylosing

162
Q

Inflammation of the vertebrae

A

Spondylitis

163
Q

Autoimmune disorder that affects children ages 16 years or less with symptoms that include stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue

A

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

164
Q

Also known as slipped or ruptured disk, is the breaking apart of an intervertebral disk that results in pressure on spinal nerve roots

A

Herniated disk

165
Q

Also known as lower back pain, is the pain of the lumbar region of the spine.

A

Lumbago

166
Q

Lumbar

A

lumb

167
Q

Diseased condition

A

-ago

168
Q

Forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebrae or sacrum below it

A

Spondylolisthesis

169
Q

Vertebrae

A

Spondyl/o

170
Q

Slipping

A

-listhesis

171
Q

Is a congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy when the spinal canal fails to close completely around the spinal cord to protect it.

A

Spina bifida

172
Q

Spilt

A

Bifida

173
Q

Is an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side. (Humpback)

A

Kyphosis

174
Q

Hump

A

Kyph

175
Q

Is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine. (Swayback)

A

Lordosis

176
Q

Is an abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature of the spine

A

Scoliosis

177
Q

Curved

A

Scoli

178
Q

Malformation of the skull due to the premature closure of the cranial sutures

A

Craniostenosis

180
Q

A bone disorder of unknown cause that destroys normal bone structure and replaces it with fibrous (scar like) tissue. This leads to uneven growth, brittleness, and deformity of the affected bones.

A

Fibrous dysplasia

181
Q

Also known as osteodynia, means pain in a bone

A

Osteoalgia

182
Q

Pain

A

-algia

183
Q

Bone

A

Oste/o

184
Q

Inflammation of a bone

A

Osteitis

185
Q

Also known as adult rickets, is abnormal softening of bones in adults

A

Osteomalacia

186
Q

Inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone

A

Osteomyelitis

187
Q

Bone marrow

A

Myel

188
Q

Death of bone tissue due to insufficient blood supply

A

Osteonecrosis

189
Q

Tissue death

A

-necrosis

190
Q

Inflammation of the periosteum

A

Periostitis

191
Q

Surrounding

A

Peri-

192
Q

Bone

A

Ost

193
Q

Is a deficiency disease occurring in children

A

Rickets

194
Q

Formerly knowing as dwarfism, is a condition resulting from the failure of the bones of the limbs to grow to an appropriate length compared to the size of the head and trunk. Little people. No more than 4 feet and 10 inches

A

Short stature

195
Q

Also known as club foot, describes any congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus (ankle bones)

A

Talipes

196
Q

A relatively rare malignant tumor that originates in a bone. (Original site)

A

Primary bone cancer

197
Q

Becoming progressively worse and life threatening. Example: Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Malignant

198
Q

Describes tumors that have metastasized (spread) to bones from other organs such as the breasts and lungs

A

Secondary bone cancer

199
Q

Type of cancer that occurs in blood-making cells found in the red bone marrow

A

Myeloma

200
Q

A benign bony projection covered with cartilage

A

Osteochondroma

201
Q

Something that is not life-threatening and does not recur

A

Benign

202
Q

A marked loss of bone density and an increase in bone porosity that is frequently associated with aging

A

Osteoporosis

203
Q

Small opening

A

Por

204
Q

Thinner than average bone density

A

Osteopenia

205
Q

Deficiency

A

-penia

206
Q

Occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself. (Falling)

A

Compression fracture

207
Q

Which is named for the Irish surgeon Abraham Colles, is also known as a fractured wrist. This fracture occurs at the lower end of the radius when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on his or her hands.

A

Colles’ fracture

208
Q

Usually caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis and can occur either spontaneously or as the result of a fall

A

Osteoporotic hip fracture

209
Q

Also known as a broken bone, is described in terms of it’s completely

A

Fracture

210
Q

Also known as simple fracture or a complete fracture, is one in which the bone is broken, but there is no open wound in the skin

A

Closed fracture

211
Q

Also known as compound fracture, is one in which the bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin

A

Open fracture

212
Q

Is one in which the bone is splintered or crushed

A

Comminuted fracture

213
Q

Also known as incomplete fracture, is one in which the bone is bent and only partially broken. This type of fracture occurs primarily in children. (Hairline fracture)

A

Greenstick fracture

214
Q

Occurs at an angle across the bone

A

Oblique fracture

215
Q

Occurs when a weakened bone breaks under normal strain

A

Pathologic fracture

216
Q

Is a fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart. Most common in sports injuries

A

Spiral fracture

217
Q

Is an overuse injury, is a small crack in the bone that often develops from chronic, excessive impact.

A

Stress fracture

218
Q

Occurs straight across the bone

A

Transverse fracture

219
Q

Can form when a long bone is fractured and fat cells from yellow bone marrow are released into the blood.

A

Fat embolus

220
Q

Any foreign matter circulating in the blood that can become lodged and block the blood vessel

A

Embolus

221
Q

Is the grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together. Crackling sound heard in lungs affected with pneumonia and the clicking sound heard in the movements of some joints.

A

Crepitation

222
Q

As the bone heels, a ________ forms a bulging deposit around the area of the break. This tissue eventually becomes bone.

A

Callus

223
Q

Is also thickening of the skin caused by repeated rubbing

A

Callus

224
Q

Also known as an x-ray, is the use of x-radiation to visualize bone fractures and other abnormalities

A

Radiography

225
Q

The visual examination of the internal structure of a joint

A

Arthroscopy

226
Q

Visual examination

A

-scopy

227
Q

Is a diagnostic test that may be necessary after abnormal types or numbers of red or white blood cells are found in complete blood count test

A

Bone marrow biopsy

228
Q

Is used to image soft tissue structures such as the interior of complex joints. It is not the most effective method of imaging hard tissues such as bone

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

229
Q

Is used to determine losses or changes in bone density. These tests are used to diagnose conditions such as osteoporosis, osteomalacia, osteopenia, and Paget’s disease

A

Bone density testing

230
Q

Screening test for osteoporosis or other conditions that cause a loss of bone mass. In this procedure, sound waves are used to take measurements of the calcaneus (heel) bone. If the results indicate risks, more definitive testing is indicated

A

Ultrasonic bone density testing

231
Q

Is a low-exposure radiographic measurement of the spine and hips to measure bone density. This test produces more accurate results than ultrasonic bone density testing

A

Dual x-ray absorptiometry

232
Q

Uses healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor, often a sibling

A

Allogenic bone marrow transplant

233
Q

Originating within each other

A

Allogenic

234
Q

Patient receives his own bone marrow cells, which have been harvested, cleansed, treated, and stored before the remaining bone marrow in the patient’s body is destroyed.

A

Autologous bone marrow transplant

235
Q

Originating within an individual

A

Autologous

236
Q

Is a mechanical appliance, such as a leg brace or a splint, that is specially designed to control, correct, or compensate for impaired limb function.

A

Orthotic

237
Q

Is a substitute for a diseased or missing body part, such as a leg that has been amputated.

A

Prosthesis

238
Q

Also known as a surgical ankylosis, is the surgical fusion (joining together) of two bones to stiffen a joint, such as an ankle, elbow, or shoulder. This procedure is performed to treat severe arthritis or damaged joint

A

Arthrodesis

239
Q

Bind, tie together

A

-desis

240
Q

Is the surgical loosening of an ankylosed joint

A

Arthrolysis

241
Q

Loosening or setting free

A

-lysis

242
Q

Breaking down or deconstruction. And may indicate either a pathologic state or a therapeutic procedure

A

-lysis

243
Q

The surgical repair of damaged cartilage

A

Chondroplasty

244
Q

Surgical repair

A

-plasty

245
Q

Is the surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint

A

Synovectomy

246
Q

Synovial membrane

A

Synov

247
Q

Surgical removal

A

-ectomy

248
Q

Surgical repair of a damaged joint

A

Arthroplasty

249
Q

Joint replacement part is a prosthesis that is commonly referred to as a ___________

A

Implant

250
Q

Means that all of the parts of the knee were replaced

A

Total knee replacement (TKR)

251
Q

Describes a procedure in which only part of the knee is replaced

A

Partial knee replacement (PKR)

252
Q

Preformed to restore a damaged hip to full function. During the surgery, a plastic lining is fitted into the acetabulum to restore a smooth surface. The head of the femur is removed and replaced with a metal ball attached to a metal shaft that is fitted into the femur

A

Total hip replacement (THR)

253
Q

An alternative to removing the head of the femur. Function is restored to the hip by placing a metal cap over the head of the femur to allow it to move smoothly over a metal lining in the acetabulum.

A

Hip resurfacing

254
Q

Replacement of a worn or failed implant

A

Revision surgery

255
Q

Performed to treat a herniated intervertebral disk. A thin tube is inserted through the skin of the back to suction out the ruptured disk or to vaporize it with a laser.

A

Percutaneous diskectomy

256
Q

Performed through the skin

A

Percutaneous

257
Q

Performed to treat osteoporosis-related compression fractures. Bone cement (glue) is injected to stabilize compression fractures within the spinal column

A

Percutaneous vertebroplasty

258
Q

Surgical removal of a lamina or posterior portion of a vertebrae

A

Laminectomy

259
Q

Lamina

A

Lamin

260
Q

Technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together (fusing) two or more vertebrae

A

Spinal fusion

261
Q

Join together

A

Fusion

262
Q

Surgical removal of a portion of the skull. Procedure is preformed to treat craniostenosis or to relieve increased intracranial pressure due to swelling of the brain

A

Craniectomy

263
Q

Skull

A

Crani

264
Q

Surgical incision or opening in the skull. This procedure is preformed to gain access to the brain to remove a tumor, to relieve intracranial pressure, or to obtain access for other surgical procedures

A

Craniotomy

265
Q

Is the surgical repair of the skull

A

Cranioplasty

266
Q

Is the surgical fracture of a bone to correct a deformity

A

Osteoclasis

267
Q

Is the surgical repair of a bone or bones

A

Osteoplasty

268
Q

Is the surgical removal of a bone

A

Ostectomy

269
Q

Is the surgical suturing, or wiring together, of bones

A

Osteorraphy

270
Q

Break

A

-clasis

271
Q

Surgical suturing

A

-rrahphy

272
Q

Is the surgical cutting of a bone

A

Osteotomy

273
Q

Also known as manipulation, so the attempted realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation. The affected bone is returned to its normal anatomic alignment by manually applied force and then is usually immobilized to maintain the realigned position during healing. (Pop it back in)

A

Closed fracture

274
Q

When a closed reduction is not practical, a surgical procedure known as a ________ ___________ is required to realign the bone parts

A

Open reduction

275
Q

Is the act of holding, suturing, or fastening the bone in a fixed position with strapping or a cast

A

Immobilization

276
Q

Pulling force exerted on a limb in a distal direction in an effort to return the bone or joint to normal alignment

A

Traction

277
Q

Fracture treatment procedure in which pins are placed through the soft tissues and bone so that am external appliance can be used to hold the pieces of bone firmly in place during healing

A

External fixation

278
Q

Also known as open reduction internal fixation, is a fracture treatment in which a plate or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold the broken pieces in place. This form of fixation is not usually removed after the fracture has healed

A

Internal fixation

301
Q

Abnormal narrowing

A

-stenosis

MT 1 (2 decks)

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