Chapter 3 Qs Flashcards
Which business entities are NOT subject to income tax on their profits?
Limited Companies (3A6)
A will is AUTOMATICALLY revoked (in full or in part) on
Marriage and Divorce
Gary is a leaseholder in a block of 12 flats. Gary and two other leaseholders are interested in buying a freehold. How many more leaseholders would have to agree to enforce the sale?
3 more leaseholders (50% of the building)
Brad, Tac and Harris are the three directors of a limited company. If the company were to close with unsecured debts of £90,000, what amount of the debt would Brad be personally responsible for?
None (limited company)
Josh has set up a bare trust with his wife Beryl as the beneficiary. He them dies leaving two children, Jennifer and Jane. His personal legal Representative is his friend Mike. Who is entitled to the benefits of the trust?
Beryl is entitled to the entire trust absolutely (3H2)
*A limited company with shares with the nominal value £20,000 has applied to be quoted on the Stock Exchange as a public company. By how much must the nominal value be increased before the company can be quoted on the Stock Exchange.
30,000 (3A5)
50,000 nominal value
TT Lanterns Ltd has insufficient assets to repay its creditors . What option might be considered in an attempt to rescue the company as a going concern?
Administration
Which of the following has a separate legal identity from its owners
A) Limited Company
B) Sole Trader
C) Partnership
D) A self-employed person
A) Limited Company
A limited company has a separate legal identity to its owners (the shareholders). A sole- trader, partnership and self-employed person do not.
In which of the following circumstances would the powers granted under an ordinary Power of Attorney not be revoked?
A. In the event of mental incapacity
B. If the donor leaves the country
C. In the event of bankruptcy
D. In the event of death
B. If the donor leaves the country
An ordinary power of attorney would not be revoked if the donor left the country but would automatically be revoked on death, mental incapacity or bankruptcy.
Under a life assurance contract how would you define insurable interest?
A. The duty to disclose all facts a person might expect an underwriter to know
B. The proposer is required to have some financial interest in the life assured
C. The proposer has to be related to the life assured
D. The proposer owes money to the life assured
B. The proposer is required to have some financial interest in the life assured
In order to have a valid life assurance contract, the proposer must have some financial interest in the life assured; this is called insurable interest. Answer c) and d) are incorrect, as the proposer could be related to the life assured or owe them money, but these things alone are not a financial interest. Answer a) is also false.
Under which scenario would non-disclosure have taken place?
A. A client tells an IFA about a previous heart condition, but the IFA doesn’t tell the
insurer
B. An employed agent of the insurer does not inform the insurer of the client’s
previous heart condition
C. A self-employed agent of the insurer does not pass onto the insurer a material
fact the client had disclosed
D. The client advised that a previous heart condition occurred 10 years ago, but had
actually happened 11 years ago
A. A client tells an IFA about a previous heart condition, but the IFA doesn’t tell the
insurer
The IFA is the agent of the client and must disclose all relevant information to the insurance company. If this does not happen, there has been non-disclosure, and the policy will be void. In the same scenario, but the adviser is either a self-employed representative or employed agent of the insurer, the policy would still be valid and therefore, there has been no non-disclosure.
Who would the term bankruptcy apply to?
A. Individuals only
B. Companies and individuals
C. Companies
D. Sole traders only
A. Individuals only
The term bankruptcy applies to individuals – including sole traders and partners - who cannot repay their debts to creditors. Liquidation is the term applied to the process of a company being brought to an end because of insolvency.
Which of the following would you expect to be identified in a will?
i) Names of the executors
ii) Names of the beneficiaries
iii) Preferences for medical treatment
iv) Assets to be left and to who
A. i and ii only
B. i, ii and iii only
C. i, ii and iv only
D. i, ii, iii and iv
C. i, ii and iv only
A will should name the executors (who are responsible for dealing with the deceased’s estate), the beneficiaries (who benefit from the will) and should clearly state the assets and to whom they should be distributed. A will applies on death, and therefore you would not expect to see preferences for medical treatment.
What are the three formalities required in making a will?
A. Printed writing, typed writing and hand writing
B. Writing, signature and attestation
C. Executors, trustees and beneficiaries
D. Testator’s signature and two witness signatures
B. Writing, signature and attestation
The three formalities to making a valid will are the writing of the will, the signature of the testator (the person making the will) and the attestation (the signing of the will by two witnesses who must also witness the testator sign and vice versa).
How does a discretionary trust differ from an absolute trust?
A. A discretionary trust allows the trustees flexibility over beneficiaries, whereas
under an absolute trust the beneficiaries are specifically named
B. A discretionary trust allows flexibility over which assets to include, whereas an
absolute trust covers the whole of the estate
C. A discretionary trust has an open-ended period for distributing assets, but an
absolute trust has a fixed time period
D. An absolute trust has no interest in possession but a discretionary trust has an
interest in possession
A. A discretionary trust allows the trustees flexibility over beneficiaries, whereas
under an absolute trust the beneficiaries are specifically named
An absolute trust has specified beneficiaries, which cannot be changed, compared to a discretionary trust, which gives flexibility to trustees over when or even if a beneficiary receives benefits. An absolute trust ends when the beneficiary reaches a certain age, e.g. a minor reaching 18. Interest in possession trusts are where the trustees must pass on trust income to the beneficiary. This is true of absolute trusts but not discretionary trusts.