Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the final step in authorizing a system for use in an environment?

A. Certification

B. Security evaluation and rating

C. Accreditation

D. Verification

A

C. Certification is a technical review of a product, and accreditation is management’s formal approval of the findings of the certification process. This question asked you which step was the final step in authorizing a system before it is used in an environment, and that is what accreditation is all about.

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2
Q

What feature enables code to be executed without the usual security checks?

A. Temporal isolation

B. Maintenance hook

C. Race conditions

D. Process multiplexing

A

B. Maintenance hooks get around the system’s or application’s security and access control checks by allowing whoever knows the key sequence to access the application and most likely its code. Maintenance hooks should be removed from any code before it gets into production.

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3
Q

If a component fails, a system should be designed to do which of the following?

A. Change to a protected execution domain

B. Change to a problem state

C. Change to a more secure state

D. Release all data held in volatile memory

A

C. The state machine model dictates that a system should start up securely, carry out secure state transitions, and even fail securely. This means that if the system encounters something it deems unsafe, it should change to a more secure state for self-preservation and protection.

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4
Q

The trusted computing base (TCB) contains which of the following?

A. All trusted processes and software components

B. All trusted security policies and implementation mechanisms

C. All trusted software and design mechanisms

D. All trusted software and hardware components

A

D. The TCB contains and controls all protection mechanisms within the system, whether they are software, hardware, or firmware.

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5
Q

What is the imaginary boundary that separates components that maintain security from components that are not security related?

A. Reference monitor

B. Security kernel

C. Security perimeter

D. Security policy

A

C. The security perimeter is a boundary between items that are within the TCB and items that are outside the TCB. It is just a mark of delineation between these two groups of items.

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6
Q

What is the best description of a security kernel from a security point of view?

A. Reference monitor

B. Resource manager

C. Memory mapper

D. Security perimeter

A

A. The security kernel is a portion of the operating system’s kernel and enforces the rules outlined in the reference monitor. It is the enforcer of the rules and is invoked each time a subject makes a request to access an object.

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7
Q

In secure computing systems, why is there a logical form of separation used between processes?

A. Processes are contained within their own security domains so each does not make unauthorized accesses to other processes or their resources.

B. Processes are contained within their own security perimeter so they can only access protection levels above them.

C. Processes are contained within their own security perimeter so they can only access protection levels equal to them.

D. The separation is hardware and not logical in nature.

A

A. Processes are assigned their own variables, system resources, and memory segments, which make up their domain. This is done so they do not corrupt each other’s data or processing activities.

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8
Q

What type of rating is used within the Common Criteria framework?

A. PP

B. EPL

C. EAL

D. A–D

A

C. The Common Criteria uses a different assurance rating system than the previously used criteria. It has packages of specifications that must be met for a product to obtain the corresponding rating. These ratings and packages are called Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs). Once a product achieves any type of rating, customers can view this information on an Evaluated Products List (EPL).

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9
Q

Which of the following is a true statement pertaining to memory addressing?

A. The CPU uses absolute addresses. Applications use logical addresses. Relative addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.

B. The CPU uses logical addresses. Applications use absolute addresses. Relative addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.

C. The CPU uses absolute addresses. Applications use relative addresses. Logical addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.

D. The CPU uses absolute addresses. Applications use logical addresses. Absolute addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.

A

A. The physical memory addresses that the CPU uses are called absolute addresses. The indexed memory addresses that software uses are referred to as logical addresses. A relative address is a logical address that incorporates the correct offset value.

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10
Q

Pete is a new security manager at a financial institution that develops its own internal software for specific proprietary functionality. The financial institution has several locations distributed throughout the world and has bought several individual companies over the last ten years, each with its own heterogeneous environment. Since each purchased company had its own unique environment, it has been difficult to develop and deploy internally developed software in an effective manner that meets all the necessary business unit requirements. Which of the following best describes a standard that Pete should ensure the software development team starts to implement so that various business needs can be met?

A. ISO/IEC/IEEE 42010

B. Common Criteria

C. ISO/IEC 43010

D. ISO/IEC 15408

A

A. ISO/IEC/IEEE 42010 is an international standard that outlines specifications for system architecture frameworks and architecture languages. It allows for systems to be developed in a manner that addresses all of the stakeholder’s concerns.

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11
Q

Which of the following is an incorrect description pertaining to the common components that make up computer systems?

i. General registers are commonly used to hold temporary processing data, while special registers are used to hold process-characteristic data as in condition bits.
ii. A processor sends a memory address and a “read” request down an address bus and a memory address and a “write” request down an I/O bus.
iii. Process-to-process communication commonly takes place through memory stacks, which are made up of individually addressed buffer locations.
iv. A CPU uses a stack return pointer to keep track of the next instruction sets it needs to process.

A. i

B. i, ii

C. ii, iii

D. ii, iv

A

D. A processer sends a memory address and a “read” request down an address bus. The system reads data from that memory address and puts the requested data on the data bus. A CPU uses a program counter to keep track of the memory addresses containing the instruction sets it needs to process in sequence. A stack pointer is a component used within memory stack communication processes. An I/O bus is used by a peripheral device.

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12
Q

Mark is a security administrator who is responsible for purchasing new computer systems for a co-location facility his company is starting up. The company has several time-sensitive applications that require extensive processing capabilities. The co-location facility is not as large as the main facility, so it can only fit a smaller number of computers, which still must carry the same processing load as the systems in the main building. Which of the following best describes the most important aspects of the products Mark needs to purchase for these purposes?

A. Systems must provide symmetric multiprocessing capabilities and virtualized environments.

B. Systems must provide asymmetric multiprocessing capabilities and virtualized environments.

C. Systems must provide multiprogramming multiprocessing capabilities and virtualized environments.

D. Systems must provide multiprogramming multiprocessing capabilities and symmetric multiprocessing environments.

A

B. When systems provide asymmetric multiprocessing, this means multiple CPUs can be used for processing. Asymmetric indicates the capability of assigning specific applications to one CPU so that they do not have to share computing capabilities with other competing processes, which increases performance. Since a smaller number of computers can fit in the new location, virtualization should be deployed to allow for several different systems to share the same physical computer platforms.

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13
Q

Tom is a new security manager who is responsible for reviewing the current software that the company has developed internally. He finds that some of the software is outdated, which causes performance and functionality issues. During his testing procedures he sees that when one program stops functioning, it negatively affects other programs on the same system. He also finds out that as systems run over a period of a month, they start to perform more slowly, but by rebooting the systems this issue goes away.

  1. Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the software that may be causing issues?

A. Cooperative multitasking

B. Preemptive multitasking

C. Maskable interrupt use

D. Nonmaskable interrupt use

A

A. Cooperative multitasking means that a developer of an application has to properly code his software to release system resources when the application is finished using them, or the other software running on the system could be negatively affected. In this type of situation an application could be poorly coded and not release system resources, which would negatively affect other software running on the system. In a preemptive multitasking environment, the operating system would have more control of system resource allocation and provide more protection for these types of situations.

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14
Q

Tom is a new security manager who is responsible for reviewing the current software that the company has developed internally. He finds that some of the software is outdated, which causes performance and functionality issues. During his testing procedures he sees that when one program stops functioning, it negatively affects other programs on the same system. He also finds out that as systems run over a period of a month, they start to perform more slowly, but by rebooting the systems this issue goes away.

Which of the following best describes why rebooting helps with system performance in the situation described in this scenario?

A. Software is not using cache memory properly.

B. Software is carrying out too many mode transitions.

C. Software is working in ring 0.

D. Software is not releasing unused memory.

A

D. When software is poorly written, it could be allocating memory and not properly releasing it. This can affect the performance of the whole system, since all software processes have to share a limited supply of memory. When a system is rebooted, the memory allocation constructs are reset.

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15
Q

Steve has found out that the software product that his team submitted for evaluation did not achieve the actual rating they were hoping for. He was confused about this issue since the software passed the necessary certification and accreditation processes before being deployed. Steve was told that the system allows for unauthorized device drivers to be loaded and that there was a key sequence that could be used to bypass the software access control protection mechanisms. Some feedback Steve received from the product testers is that it should implement address space layout randomization and data execution protection.

Which of the following best describes Steve’s confusion?

A. Certification must happen first before the evaluation process can begin.

B. Accreditation is the acceptance from management, which must take place before the evaluation process.

C. Evaluation, certification, and accreditation are carried out by different groups with different purposes.

D. Evaluation requirements include certification and accreditation components.

A

C. Evaluation, certification, and accreditation are carried out by different groups with different purposes. Evaluations are carried out by qualified third parties who use specific evaluation criteria (e.g., Common Criteria) to assign an assurance rating to a tested product. A certification process is a technical review commonly carried out internally to an organization, and accreditation is management’s formal acceptance that is carried out after the certification process. A system can be certified internally by a company and not pass an evaluation testing process because they are completely different things.

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16
Q

Steve has found out that the software product that his team submitted for evaluation did not achieve the actual rating they were hoping for. He was confused about this issue since the software passed the necessary certification and accreditation processes before being deployed. Steve was told that the system allows for unauthorized device drivers to be loaded and that there was a key sequence that could be used to bypass the software access control protection mechanisms. Some feedback Steve received from the product testers is that it should implement address space layout randomization and data execution protection.

Which of the following best describes an item the software development team needs to address to ensure that drivers cannot be loaded in an unauthorized manner?

A. Improved security kernel processes

B. Improved security perimeter processes

C. Improved application programming interface processes

D. Improved garbage collection processes

A

A. If device drivers can be loaded improperly, then either the access control rules outlined within the reference monitor need to be improved upon or the current rules need to be better enforced through the security kernel processes. Only authorized subjects should be able to install sensitive software components that run within ring 0 of a system.

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17
Q

Steve has found out that the software product that his team submitted for evaluation did not achieve the actual rating they were hoping for. He was confused about this issue since the software passed the necessary certification and accreditation processes before being deployed. Steve was told that the system allows for unauthorized device drivers to be loaded and that there was a key sequence that could be used to bypass the software access control protection mechanisms. Some feedback Steve received from the product testers is that it should implement address space layout randomization and data execution protection.

Which of the following best describes some of the issues that the evaluation testers most likely ran into while testing the submitted product?

A. Nonprotected ROM sections

B. Vulnerabilities that allowed malicious code to execute in protected memory sections

C. Lack of a predefined and implemented trusted computing base

D. Lack of a predefined and implemented security kernel

A

B. If testers suggested to the team that address space layout randomization and data execution protection should be integrated, this is most likely because the system allows for malicious code to easily execute in memory sections that would be dangerous to the system. These are both memory protection approaches.

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18
Q

John has been told that one of the applications installed on a web server within the DMZ accepts any length of information that a customer using a web browser inputs into the form the web server provides to collect new customer data. Which of the following describes an issue that John should be aware of pertaining to this type of vulnerability?

A. Application is written in the C programming language.

B. Application is not carrying out enforcement of the trusted computing base.

C. Application is running in ring 3 of a ring-based architecture.

D. Application is not interacting with the memory manager properly.

A

A. The C language is susceptible to buffer overflow attacks because it allows for direct pointer manipulations to take place. Specific commands can provide access to low-level memory addresses without carrying out bounds checking.

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19
Q

What is the goal of cryptanalysis?

A. To determine the strength of an algorithm

B. To increase the substitution functions in a cryptographic algorithm

C. To decrease the transposition functions in a cryptographic algorithm

D. To determine the permutations used

A

A. Cryptanalysis is the process of trying to reverse-engineer a cryptosystem, with the possible goal of uncovering the key used. Once this key is uncovered, all other messages encrypted with this key can be accessed. Cryptanalysis is carried out by the white hats to test the strength of the algorithm.

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20
Q

Why has the frequency of successful brute-force attacks increased?

A. The use of permutations and transpositions in algorithms has increased.

B. As algorithms get stronger, they get less complex, and thus more susceptible to attacks.

C. Processor speed and power have increased.

D. Key length reduces over time.

A

C. A brute-force attack is resource intensive. It tries all values until the correct one is obtained. As computers have more powerful processors added to them, attackers can carry out more powerful brute-force attacks.

21
Q

Which of the following is not a property or characteristic of a one-way hash function?

A. It converts a message of arbitrary length into a value of fixed length.

B. Given the digest value, it should be computationally infeasible to find the corresponding message.

C. It should be impossible or rare to derive the same digest from two different messages.

D. It converts a message of fixed length to an arbitrary length value.

A

D. A hashing algorithm will take a string of variable length (the message can be any size) and compute a fixed-length value. The fixed-length value is the message digest. The MD family creates the fixed-length value of 128 bits, and SHA creates one of 160 bits.

22
Q

What would indicate that a message had been modified?

A. The public key has been altered.

B. The private key has been altered.

C. The message digest has been altered.

D. The message has been encrypted properly.

A

C. Hashing algorithms generate message digests to detect whether modification has taken place. The sender and receiver independently generate their own digests, and the receiver compares these values. If they differ, the receiver knows the message has been altered.

23
Q

Which of the following is a U.S. federal government algorithm developed for creating secure message digests?

A. Data Encryption Algorithm

B. Digital Signature Standard

C. Secure Hash Algorithm

D. Data Signature Algorithm

A

C. SHA was created to generate secure message digests. Digital Signature Standard (DSS) is the standard to create digital signatures, which dictates that SHA must be used. DSS also outlines the digital signature algorithms that can be used with SHA: RSA, DSA, and ECDSA.

24
Q

Which option best describes the difference between HMAC and CBC-MAC?

A. HMAC creates a message digest and is used for integrity; CBC-MAC is used to encrypt blocks of data for confidentiality.

B. HMAC uses a symmetric key and a hashing algorithm; CBC-MAC uses the first block for the checksum.

C. HMAC provides integrity and data origin authentication; CBC-MAC uses a block cipher for the process of creating a MAC.

D. HMAC encrypts a message with a symmetric key and then puts the result through a hashing algorithm; CBC-MAC encrypts the whole message.

A

C. In an HMAC operation, a message is concatenated with a symmetric key and the result is put through a hashing algorithm. This provides integrity and system or data authentication. CBC-MAC uses a block cipher to create a MAC, which is the last block of ciphertext.

25
Q

What is an advantage of RSA over DSA?

A. It can provide digital signature and encryption functionality.

B. It uses fewer resources and encrypts faster because it uses symmetric keys.

C. It is a block cipher rather than a stream cipher.

D. It employs a one-time encryption pad.

A

A. RSA can be used for data encryption, key exchange, and digital signatures. DSA can be used only for digital signatures.

26
Q

What is used to create a digital signature?

A. The receiver’s private key

B. The sender’s public key

C. The sender’s private key

D. The receiver’s public key

A

C. A digital signature is a message digest that has been encrypted with the sender’s private key. A sender, or anyone else, should never have access to the receiver’s private key.

27
Q

Which of the following best describes a digital signature?

A. A method of transferring a handwritten signature to an electronic document

B. A method to encrypt confidential information

C. A method to provide an electronic signature and encryption

D. A method to let the receiver of the message prove the source and integrity of a message

A

D. A digital signature provides authentication (knowing who really sent the message), integrity (because a hashing algorithm is involved), and nonrepudiation (the sender cannot deny sending the message).

28
Q

How many bits make up the effective length of the DES key?

A. 56

B. 64

C. 32

D. 16

A

A. DES has a key size of 64 bits, but 8 bits are used for parity, so the true key size is 56 bits. Remember that DEA is the algorithm used for the DES standard, so DEA also has a true key size of 56 bits, because we are actually talking about the same algorithm here. DES is really the standard, and DEA is the algorithm.

29
Q

Why would a certificate authority revoke a certificate?

A. If the user’s public key has become compromised

B. If the user changed over to using the PEM model that uses a web of trust

C. If the user’s private key has become compromised

D. If the user moved to a new location

A

C. The reason a certificate is revoked is to warn others who use that person’s public key that they should no longer trust the public key because, for some reason, that public key is no longer bound to that particular individual’s identity. This could be because an employee left the company or changed his name and needed a new certificate, but most likely it is because the person’s private key was compromised.

30
Q

What does DES stand for?

A. Data Encryption System

B. Data Encryption Standard

C. Data Encoding Standard

D. Data Encryption Signature

A

B. Data Encryption Standard was developed by NIST and the NSA to encrypt sensitive but unclassified government data.

31
Q

Which of the following best describes a certificate authority?

A. An organization that issues private keys and the corresponding algorithms

B. An organization that validates encryption processes

C. An organization that verifies encryption keys

D. An organization that issues certificates

A

D. A registration authority (RA) accepts a person’s request for a certificate and verifies that person’s identity. Then the RA sends this request to a certificate authority (CA), which generates and maintains the certificate.

32
Q

What does DEA stand for?

A. Data Encoding Algorithm

B. Data Encoding Application

C. Data Encryption Algorithm

D. Digital Encryption Algorithm

A

C. DEA is the algorithm that fulfilled the DES standard. So DEA has all of the attributes of DES: a symmetric block cipher that uses 64-bit blocks, 16 rounds, and a 56-bit key.

33
Q

Who was involved in developing the first public key algorithm?

A. Adi Shamir

B. Ross Anderson

C. Bruce Schneier

D. Martin Hellman

A

D. The first released public key cryptography algorithm was developed by Whitfield Diffie and Martin Hellman.

34
Q

What process usually takes place after creating a DES session key?

A. Key signing

B. Key escrow

C. Key clustering

D. Key exchange

A

D. After a session key has been created, it must be exchanged securely. In most cryptosystems, an asymmetric key (the receiver’s public key) is used to encrypt this session key, and it is sent to the receiver.

35
Q

DES performs how many rounds of transposition/permutation and substitution?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 56

A

A. DES carries out 16 rounds of mathematical computation on each 64-bit block of data it is responsible for encrypting. A round is a set of mathematical formulas used for encryption and decryption processes.

36
Q

Which of the following is a true statement pertaining to data encryption when it is used to protect data?

A. It verifies the integrity and accuracy of the data.

B. It requires careful key management.

C. It does not require much system overhead in resources.

D. It requires keys to be escrowed.

A

B. Data encryption always requires careful key management. Most algorithms are so strong today that it is much easier to go after key management than to launch a brute-force attack. Hashing algorithms are used for data integrity, encryption does require a good amount of resources, and keys do not have to be escrowed for encryption.

37
Q

If different keys generate the same ciphertext for the same message, what is this called?

A. Collision

B. Secure hashing

C. MAC

D. Key clustering

A

D. Message A was encrypted with key A and the result is ciphertext Y. If that same message A were encrypted with key B, the result should not be ciphertext Y. The ciphertext should be different because a different key was used. But if the ciphertext is the same, this occurrence is referred to as key clustering.

38
Q

What is the definition of an algorithm’s work factor?

A. The time it takes to encrypt and decrypt the same plaintext

B. The time it takes to break the encryption

C. The time it takes to implement 16 rounds of computation

D. The time it takes to apply substitution functions

A

B. The work factor of a cryptosystem is the amount of time and resources necessary to break the cryptosystem or its encryption process. The goal is to make the work factor so high that an attacker could not be successful in breaking the algorithm or cryptosystem.

39
Q

What is the primary purpose of using one-way hashing on user passwords?

A. It minimizes the amount of primary and secondary storage needed to store passwords.

B. It prevents anyone from reading passwords in plaintext.

C. It avoids excessive processing required by an asymmetric algorithm.

D. It prevents replay attacks.

A

B. Passwords are usually run through a one-way hashing algorithm so the actual password is not transmitted across the network or stored on a system in plaintext. This greatly reduces the risk of an attacker being able to obtain the actual password.

40
Q

Which of the following is based on the fact that it is hard to factor large numbers into two original prime numbers?

A. ECC

B. RSA

C. DES

D. Diffie-Hellman

A

B. The RSA algorithm’s security is based on the difficulty of factoring large numbers into their original prime numbers. This is a one-way function. It is easier to calculate the product than it is to identify the prime numbers used to generate that product.

41
Q

Which of the following describes the difference between the Data Encryption Standard and the Rivest-Shamir-Adleman algorithm?

A. DES is symmetric, while RSA is asymmetric.

B. DES is asymmetric, while RSA is symmetric.

C. They are hashing algorithms, but RSA produces a 160-bit hashing value.

D. DES creates public and private keys, while RSA encrypts messages.

A

A. DES is a symmetric algorithm. RSA is an asymmetric algorithm. DES is used to encrypt data, and RSA is used to create public/private key pairs.

42
Q

Which of the following uses a symmetric key and a hashing algorithm?

A. HMAC

B. Triple-DES

C. ISAKMP-OAKLEY

D. RSA

A

A. When an HMAC function is used, a symmetric key is combined with the message, and then that result is put though a hashing algorithm. The result is an HMAC value. HMAC provides data origin authentication and data integrity.

43
Q

The generation of keys that are made up of random values is referred to as Key Derivation Functions (KDFs). What values are not commonly used in this key generation process?

A. Hashing values

B. Asymmetric values

C. Salts

D. Passwords

A

B. Different values can be used independently or together to play the role of random key material. The algorithm is created to use specific hash, password, and\or salt value, which will go through a certain number of rounds of mathematical functions dictated by the algorithm.

44
Q

When should a Class C fire extinguisher be used instead of a Class A fire extinguisher?

A. When electrical equipment is on fire

B. When wood and paper are on fire

C. When a combustible liquid is on fire

D. When the fire is in an open area

A

A. A Class C fire is an electrical fire. Thus, an extinguisher with the proper suppression agent should be used.

45
Q

Which of the following is not a main component of CPTED?

A. Natural access control

B. Natural surveillance

C. Territorial reinforcement

D. Target hardening

A

D. Natural access control is the use of the environment to control access to entry points, such as using landscaping and bollards. An example of natural surveillance is the construction of pedestrian walkways so there is a clear line of sight of all the activities in the surroundings. Territorial reinforcement gives people a sense of ownership of a property, giving them a greater tendency to protect it. These concepts are all parts of CPTED. Target hardening has to do with implementing locks, security guards, and proximity devices.

46
Q

Which problems may be caused by humidity in an area with electrical devices?

A. High humidity causes excess electricity, and low humidity causes corrosion.

B. High humidity causes corrosion, and low humidity causes static electricity.

C. High humidity causes power fluctuations, and low humidity causes static electricity.

D. High humidity causes corrosion, and low humidity causes power fluctuations.

A

B. High humidity can cause corrosion, and low humidity can cause excessive static electricity. Static electricity can short out devices or cause loss of information.

47
Q

What does positive pressurization pertaining to ventilation mean?

A. When a door opens, the air comes in.

B. When a fire takes place, the power supply is disabled.

C. When a fire takes place, the smoke is diverted to one room.

D. When a door opens, the air goes out.

A

D. Positive pressurization means that when someone opens a door, the air goes out, and outside air does not come in. If a facility were on fire and the doors were opened, positive pressure would cause the smoke to go out instead of being pushed back into the building.

48
Q

Which of the following answers contains a category of controls that does not belong in a physical security program?

A. Deterrence and delaying

B. Response and detection

C. Assessment and detection

D. Delaying and lighting

A

D. The categories of controls that should make up any physical security program are deterrence, delaying, detection, assessment, and response. Lighting is a control itself, not a category of controls.