chapter 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

what does the central dogma of molecular genetcis/fundamental dogma state?

A
  • information flows from DNA to RNA to protein
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2
Q

what is the Hershey-Chase experiment?

A
  • researchers used radiolabeled sulfur and phosphorous as a way of distinguishing between proteins (which contain S but not P naturally) and nucleic acids (which have P but not S) and used bacteriophages which inject genetic material into bacterial cells and concluded that the bacterial cells post-transduction contained radiolabeled P and not S indicating that the genetic material in question was DNA
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3
Q

the simplest version of the central dogma is?

A
  • information is stored over the long term in DNA and is then transcribed into mRNA which are then translated into proteins
    • note that reverse transcriptase allows DNA to be transcribed from RNA, reversing the normal flow of information
    • several forms of non coding RNA exist including tRNA
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4
Q

what is the genetic code?

A
  • DNA/RNS contain a genetic code
  • each contain 4 bases whcih are combined to code for 20 amino acids
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5
Q

what are codons?

A
  • combinations of 3 nucleobases code for amino acids
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6
Q

how many combinations of bases exist?

A
  • 64 (43)
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7
Q

the genetic code has something called degeneracy meaning?

A
  • A code in which several code words have the same meaning. The genetic code is degenerate because there are many instances in which different codons specify the same amino acid. A genetic code in which some amino acids may each be encoded by more than one codon.
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8
Q

What is the code for the start codon?

A
  • AUG (methionine)
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9
Q

what are the 3 stop codons?

A
  • UAG
  • UGA
  • UAA
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10
Q

codons for each amino acid usually have?

A
  • the same first 2 amino acids but differ at the third (wobble) to provide some degree of protection against mutations
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11
Q

What are the basic points of the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure?

A
  • DNA is organized in a double helix of antiparallel strands, with a sugar-phosphate backbone connected by phosphodiester bonds on the outside and nitrogenous bases on the inside
  • complementary base-pairing dictates that A pairs with T and C pairs with G
  • the interior of the structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between base pairs (2 for AT and 3 for GC) as well as hydrophobic interactions between stacked nitrogenous bases
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12
Q

in eukaroyes, DNA is organized into?

A
  • linear chromosomes
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13
Q

Human cells normally have how many distinct chromosomes?

A
  • 22 known as autosomes (somatic cells contain 2 copies of each of these chromosomes)
  • 2 sex chromosomes (females 2x and male 1x1y)
  • so in the standard human cell there are 46 chromosomes with 2 copies of each 22 autosomes and either of the 2 sex chromsomes
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14
Q

What are histones?

A
  • proteins that act as spools for DNA to wind around
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15
Q

what are DNA-histone complexes called?

A
  • nucleosomes that contain approximately 200 base pairs each
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16
Q

what is euchromatin?

A
  • a loose configuration that is difficult to see under light microscopy and allows DNA to be readily transcribed
  • throughout interphase, DNA generally exists as euchromatin which makes sense because this is the form that allows transcription to happen and for cellular activities to be carried out
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17
Q

what is heterochromatin?

A
  • the tightly coiled, dense form of chromatin that is visible during cell division and is present to a lesser extent during interphase
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18
Q

what plays a major role int he interactions between histones and DNA?

A
  • charge
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19
Q

what is the normal charge if histones?

A
  • alkaline and positively charged at physiological pH which facilitates their interaction with the highly negatively charged phosphate groups on the backbone of DNA
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20
Q

how does acetylation affect histones?

A
  • reduces their positive charge, making histones interact with DNA less closely, whcih in turn facilitates transcription activity
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21
Q

what is DNA replication

A
  • the basis for genetic inheritance, because it is the process that allows DNA to be passed on to a daughter cell
  • In replication, a DNA helix unwinds and a new complementary sequence is synthesized from each strand
  • this process is known as semiconservative replication, because each new DNA sequence contains one strand from the original DNA molecule and one newly synthesized complement
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22
Q

what was the Meselson-Stahl experiment

A

Meselson and Stahl conducted their famous experiments on DNA replication using E. coli bacteria as a model system.

They began by growing E. coli in medium, or nutrient broth, containing a “heavy” isotope of nitrogen, 15N. When grown on medium containing heavy 15N, the bacteria took up the nitrogen and used it to synthesize new biological molecules, including DNA.

After many generations growing in the 15N, the nitrogenous bases of the bacteria’s DNA were all labeled with heavy 15N. Then, the bacteria were switched to medium containing a “light” 14N isotope and allowed to grow for several generations. DNA made after the switch would have to be made up of 14N, as this would have been the only nitrogen available for DNA synthesis.

Meselson and Stahl knew how often E. coli cells divided, so they were able to collect small samples in each generation and extract and purify the DNA. They then measured the density of the DNA (and, indirectly, its 15N and 14N) using density gradient centrifugation.

This method separates molecules such as DNA into bands by spinning them at high speeds in the presence of another molecule, such as cesium chloride, that forms a density gradient from the top to the bottom of the spinning tube. Density gradient centrifugation allows very small differences—like those between 15N and 14N end text-labeled DNA—to be detected.

Diagram of a test tube containing CsCl, nitrogen-14-labeled DNA, and nitrogen-15-labeled DNA following high-speed centrifugation. The density of the medium in the test tube is greatest at the bottom and least at the top, thanks to the formation of the CsCl gradient. The nitrogen-14-labeled DNA forms a band relatively close to the top of the test tube, while the nitrogen-15-labeled DNA forms a band closer to the bottom of the test tube. The positions of the bands reflect their relative densities.

Results of the experiment:

When DNA from the first four generations of E. coli was analyzed, it produced the pattern of semiconservative model

What did this result tell Meselson and Stahl? Let’s walk through the first few generations, which provide the key information.

Conclusion

The experiment done by Meselson and Stahl demonstrated that DNA replicated semi-conservatively, meaning that each strand in a DNA molecule serves as a template for synthesis of a new, complementary strand.

Although Meselson and Stahl did their experiments in the bacterium E. coli, we know today that semi-conservative DNA replication is a universal mechanism shared by all organisms on planet Earth. Some of your cells are replicating their DNA semi-conservatively right now!

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23
Q

Where does DNA replication begin?

A
  • the origin of replication whcih has specific sequences that binds with a protein complex known as the pre-replication complex and tend to have high AT content
    • bacterial genomes have one origin of replication from which replication proceeds bidirectionally
    • eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication and the centromeme connects the sister chromatids that are created during this process
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24
Q

what does DNA helicase do in DNA replication?

A
  • unwinds the DNA helix and separates the two strands of DNA
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25
Q

what does single-stranded DNA binding proteinds do in DNA replication?

A
  • keep the separated strands from immediately re-annealing
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26
Q

what does primase do in DNA replication?

A
  • synthesizes a short RNA primer with free 3’ OH group that is used as the starting point for the synthesis of a new strand
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27
Q

what does DNA polymerase do in DNA replication?

A
  • reads the DNA in a 3’ to 5’ direction and synthesizes the complementary strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction
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28
Q

what does DNA gyrase do in DNA replication?

A
  • AKA DNA topoisomerase II
  • alleviates the supercoiling that would otherwise be created as helicase works its way down the DNA molecule
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29
Q

what does ligase do in DNA replication?

A
  • links together Okazaki fragments, which are created from the lagging strand of DNA replication
30
Q

Describe DNA polymerase in prokaryotes

A
  • DNA polymerase I- assists with Okazaki fragments and removing the RNA primer through excision repair
  • DNA polymerase II- primarily involved with repair
  • DNA polymerase III- involved in the main process of DNA synthesis
31
Q

Describe DNA polymerase in eukaryotes.

A
  • DNA polymerase alpha- initiates synthesis in replication in both the leading and lagging strands
  • DNA polymerase sigma- takes over because it operates more efficiently
  • DNA polymerase epsalon and beta- specifically assists in extension of the leading strand and also assists in DNA repair
  • DNA polymerase gamma- replicated mitochondrial DNA
32
Q

What is reverse transcriptase?

A
  • special kind of DNA polymerase that operates with an RNA template
33
Q

what is telomerase?

A
  • extends telomeres, which are repetitice sequences at the end of eukaryotic chromosomes that exist to cope with the fact that DNA polymerase cannot faithfully replicate the end of the chromosomal sequence
  • rebuilds telomeres and is active in stem and cancer cells but not in most somatic cells minus cells that divide quickly)
34
Q

what is transcription?

A
  • takes place in the nucleus and its end result is the creation of an mRNA copy of a gene that can be transported to the cytosol for translation into a protein
35
Q

which enzymes are also present in transcription?

A
  • helicase and topoisomerase
36
Q

what is RNA polymerase?

A
  • the enzyme responsible for RNA synthesis and starts when it binds to a promoter region upstream of the start codon with the assistance of trnascription factors
  • the most important promoter in eukaryotes is the TATA box
37
Q

In transcription, the template strand is known as?

A
  • the antisense strand and the opposite strand is known as the sense strand becuase it corresponds to the codons on the mRNA that is eventually exported to the cytosol for translation
38
Q

what are the types of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes?

A
  • RNA polymerase II is the “default” RNA polymerase that synthesizes hnRNA (the precursor to mRNA) and some small nuclear RNA (snRNA)
  • RNA polymerase I synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) in the nucleolus
  • RNA polynerase III synthesizes transfer RNA (tRNA) and some rRNA
39
Q

the immediate product if trnascription is not mRNA, but rather is?

A
  • heterogenous nucleur RNA (hnRNA) which must undergo a set of post-transcriptional modifications to become mRNA
40
Q

what are the 3 post transcriptional modifications that exist in eukaryotes and why only in eukaryotes?

A
  • the 3’ poly-A tail
  • the 5’ cap
  • splicing
    • these processes occur only in eukaryotes is because transcription and translation in prokaryotes occur simultaneously so there is no room for post transcriptional modifications
41
Q

What is the 3’ poly A tail?

A
  • a string of approximately 250 adenine nucleotides added to the 3’ end of an hnRNA transcript
  • it protects the eventual mRNA transcript against rapid degradation in the cytosol
42
Q

what does the 5’ cap do?

A
  • refers to a 7-methylguanine triphosphate cap placed on the 5’ end of an hnRNA trnascript
  • it helps prevent the transcript from being degraded too quickly in the cytosol but also prepares the RNA complex for export from the nucleus
43
Q

what is splicing?

A
  • in splicing, noncoding sequences (introns) are removed and coding sequences (exons) are ligated together
    • exons can be ligated in different combinations to increase the amount of different, but related proteins that can be expressed from a single gene
    • explains why there are over 200,000 proteins in the human body, but only approximately 20,000 genes
  • splicing is carried out by the spliceosome, a combination of small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) and protein complexes (when combined, they are known as small nuclear ribonuclear proteins (snRNPs)
44
Q

what is translation?

A
  • the process in which an mRNA sequence is translated into a protein, with each codon corressponding to an amino acid
    • it takes place in the cytoplasm in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
45
Q

what is trnasfer RNA (tRNA)?

A
  • relatively small RNA molecule characterized by a hairpin structure that is responsible for “translating” between codons and amino acids
    • at the bottom of the hairpin structure, tRNA molecules contain an anticodon, which is specfically complementary to a certain codon of mRNA
46
Q

what do aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases do?

A
  • enzymes that do the work of “charging” tRNA molecules with the appropriate amino acids by attaching the C-terminus of the amino acid in question to the 3’ end of the tRNA molecule
    • this process requires 2 ATP bonds and this energy is then used to power the formation of a peptide bond during translation
47
Q

what is ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?

A
  • a major part of the structure of ribosomes, where translation takes place
  • ribosomes contain multiple rRNA strands with associated proteins, and have 2 major components
  • the large sub-unit catalyzes the formation of the polypeptide chain, while the small unit reads the RNA
48
Q

How many steps does translation occur in and what are they?

A
  • 3
    • initiation
    • elongation
    • termination
49
Q

what is initiation?

A
  • occurs when the mRNA sequence binds to the small ribsoomal subunit
    • the first tRNA is known as the initiatot tRNA and it binds to the start codon AUG
    • the initial amino acid is methionine in eukaryotes, but N-formylmethionine in prokrayotes
    • once this happens, initiation factors facilitate the binding of the small ribosomal subunit to the large ribosomal subunit, forming the initiation complex
50
Q

what is elongation?

A
  • during elongation, the ribosome reads the mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction and synthesizes a polypeptide from its N terminus to its C terminus which is one of the reasons why amino acid sequences are traditionally specified in the N-to-C order
  • proteins known as elongation factors help move this process along
51
Q

What are the 3 binding sites that are involved in elongation?

A
  • the A site- contains the next aminoacyl-tRNA complex
  • P site- a peptide bond is formed between the growing polypeptide chain and the incoming amino acid
  • E site- the tRNA which is now no longer “charged”, briefly pauses at this site and detaches from the mRNA. this process continues until termination, when a stop codon (UGA, UAG, UAA) on the mRNA is encountered, at which point a release factor triggers ribosome disassembly and release the polypeptide
52
Q

what are post-translational modifications?

A
  • proteins undergo this and it can be covalent modifications by the addition of various functional groups
  • these modifications can affect the functionality of a protein or play a role in signalling pathways
53
Q

What are common post-translational modifications?

A
  • phosphorylation- most common and describes the addition of phosphates by enzymes known as kinases which regulates the activity of enzymes
  • glycosylation- describes the addition of carbohydrates, and the effects of glycosylation include improvements in protein stability, regulatory functions, and structural/functional roles (ex. human ABO blood system)
54
Q

what are point mutations?

A
  • occur when DNA polymerase incorrectly carries out base-pair matching. this means that the corresponding mRNA codon synthesized from that DNA sequence will be offf by one case, such as CAG instead of CGG. the effect of this varies depending on the specific location and outcome of the point mutation
55
Q

what are silent mutations?

A
  • occur if the mutated codon codes for the same amino acid as the original codon
  • such mutations have no efect on the physiological function of the organism
    • ex. GCU (alanine) to GCA (alanine)
56
Q

what are conservative point mutaions?

A
  • examples of missense mutations that occur when the mutated codon codes for an amino acid that has similar functional properties )ex. polarity and size) as the amino acid coded for by the original codon
    • ex. GAU (aspartic acid) to GAC (glutamic acid
  • expected to have relatively small effects on the functionality of the protein coded for by the gene (guideline)
57
Q

What are non-conservative point mutations?

A
  • missense mutations that occur when the mutated codon codes for an amino acid with dissimiliar functional properties to the amino acid coded for by the original codon
    • ex. GCG (alanine) to GAG (glutamic acid)
  • most likely will have a significant impact on the functionality of the protein in question
58
Q

what are nonsense mutations?

A
  • occur when the mutated codon is a stop codon
    • this truncates the translation process early, and is generally associated with significant malfunctioning in the protein product of the gene, especially if a nonsense mutation occurs relatively early in the gene
59
Q

what are frameshift mutations?

A
  • A frameshift mutation is a type of mutation involving the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide in which the number of deleted base pairs is not divisible by three. “Divisible by three” is important because the cell reads a gene in groups of three bases. Each group of three bases corresponds to one of 20 different amino acids used to build a protein. If a mutation disrupts this reading frame, then the entire DNA sequence following the mutation will be read incorrectly.
60
Q

what are addition or deletion mutations?

A
  • if 3 or a multiple of 3 nucleotides are added or deleted, then one or more amino acids are deleted from one or added to the protein, with consequences that would be difficult to predict (can be catastrophic or not depending on the region of the protein and the specific details of the codon in question)
61
Q

What is deletion?

A
  • deletion of a large chromosomal regions
  • effect of deletion is it removes certain genes from a chromosome, leading either to loss of heterozigosity or a reduction in gene dosage depending on whether the copy of the chromosome has a different allele or the same allele
62
Q

what is duplication?

A
  • adding extra copies of a region of a chromsome
63
Q

what is amplification?

A
  • generally increases the gene dosage (the amount that gets transcribed) by leading to more transcription of the genes in question
64
Q

What is inversion?

A
  • can also occur when a mistake takes place in the directionality of a chromsome, in which a segment is reversed from end to end.
  • generally harmless, although they may lead to an increased risk of miscarriage or infertility due to a higher likelihood of problems arising in gametes
65
Q

what is translocation?

A
  • refers to a scenario in which a sequence of genes switches places from one chromosome to another
66
Q

what is insertion?

A
  • describes what happens if a sequence is moved from one chromosome to another (the difference is that translocation involves a reciprocal switch, whereas insertion is a one-way change)
67
Q

what are balanced translocations?

A
  • the exchange of genetic material is even, and nothing is lost or missing while in unbalanced translocations, the exchange is unequal
68
Q

what are transposons?

A
  • generally non-coding genetic elements that can move from chromosome to chromoosome
    • comprise over 40% of the human genome and are generally non problematic unless they are inserted somewhere that breaks up a coding sequence
69
Q

what is aneuploidy?

A
  • too many or too few copies of a given chromosome
    • one copy is monosomy
    • three copies is trisomy
70
Q

what is “proof reading”?

A
  • DNA polymerase can see when DNA base pairs are mismatched due to errors in copying, the H bonds between the base pairs are relatively unstable so it is detected and can be excised and the correct base pair is inserted (3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity)
71
Q

what is DNA damage?

A
  • can be caused by external sources such as ROS, radiation, mutagenic compounds/toxins and viruses (mutagens) and most are also carcinogenic
72
Q

what are 2 ways in which DNA can repair itself?

A
  • base excision repair- deals with relatively small-scale errors (mismatch repair can be thought of as a subset of base excision repair and has specific proteins dedicated to that functionality during the G2 stage of the cell cycle)
  • nucleotide excision repair- targets larger lesions
    • additionally the mitotic checkpoint takes place in metaphase that guards against aneuploidy