Chapter 29:The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Conditions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A pregnant patient at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A Caesarean birth is done for labour dystocia. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats/min with minimal variability. At birth the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic. On the basis of the maternal history, the cause of this newborn’s distress is most likely to be
    a. hypoglycemia.
    b. phrenic nerve injury.
    c. respiratory distress syndrome.
    d. sepsis.
A

ANS: D
The prolonged rupture of membranes and the tachypnea (before and after birth) both suggest sepsis. An FHR of 180 beats/min is also indicative. This infant is at high risk for sepsis.

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2
Q
  1. What is the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection?
    a. Good hand hygiene
    b. Isolation of infected infants
    c. Separate gown technique
    d. Standard precautions
A

ANS: A
Virtually all controlled clinical trials have demonstrated that effective hand hygiene is responsible for the prevention of hospital-acquired infection in nursery units. Measures to be taken include standard precautions/routine practices, careful and thorough cleaning, frequent replacement of used equipment, and disposal of excrement and linens in an appropriate manner. Overcrowding must be avoided in nurseries. However, the most important nursing action for preventing neonatal infection is effective hand hygiene

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3
Q
  1. A pregnant woman presents in labour at term, having had no prenatal care. After birth, her infant is noted to be small for gestational age, with small eyes and a thin upper lip. The infant also is microcephalic. On the basis of her infant’s physical findings, this woman should be questioned about her use of which substance during pregnancy?
    a. Alcohol
    b. Cocaine
    c. Heroin
    d. Marijuana
A

ANS: A
The description of the infant suggests fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which is consistent with maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Fetal brain, kidney, and urogenital system malformations have been associated with maternal cocaine ingestion. Heroin use in pregnancy frequently results in intrauterine growth restriction. The infant may have a shrill cry and sleep cycle disturbances and present with poor feeding, tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypothermia or hyperthermia, and sweating. Studies have found a higher incidence of meconium staining in infants born of mothers who used marijuana during pregnancy.

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4
Q
  1. What should be included in a plan of care for an infant experiencing symptoms of drug withdrawal?
    a. Administer chloral hydrate for sedation.
    b. Feed every 4 to 6 hours to allow extra rest.
    c. Swaddle the infant snugly and hold them tightly.
    d. Play soft music during feeding.
A

ANS: C
The infant should be wrapped snugly to reduce self-stimulation behaviours and protect the skin from abrasions. Phenobarbital or diazepam may be administered to decrease central nervous system (CNS) irritability. The infant should be fed in small, frequent amounts and burped well to diminish aspiration and maintain hydration. The infant should not be stimulated (such as with music) because this will increase activity and potentially increase CNS irritability.

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5
Q
  1. How can human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) be transmitted from mother to infant?
    a. Only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation
    b. From a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments
    c. Only through the infant’s ingestion of amniotic fluid
    d. Through the ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother
A

ANS: D
Postnatal transmission of HIV through breastfeeding may occur. Transmission of HIV from mother to infant may occur transplacentally at various gestational ages. Transmission close to or at the time of birth is thought to account for 50% to 80% of cases.

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6
Q
  1. The use of which substance during pregnancy is the leading cause of cognitive impairment?
    a. Alcohol
    b. Tobacco
    c. Marijuana
    d. Heroin
A

ANS: A
Alcohol use during pregnancy is recognized as one of the leading causes of cognitive impairment in newborns.

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7
Q
  1. During a prenatal examination, the woman reports having two cats at home. The nurse teaches the patient they should not be cleaning the litter box while they are pregnant. When the woman asks why, what is the basis for the nurse’s response?
    a. Cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis which is a parasite that can infect the
    mother and unborn child.
    b. The mother and fetus can be exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus
    (HIV) in cats’ feces.
    c. Inform her that it is not a clean task and the father of the baby should clean the litter box.
    d. Cat feces are known to carry Escherichia coli, which can cause severe infections in both mother and baby.
A

ANS: A
Toxoplasmosis is a multisystem disease caused by the protozoal Toxoplasma gondii parasite commonly found in cats. Clinical features ascribed to toxoplasmosis include hydrocephalus or microcephaly, chorioretinitis, seizures, or encephalitis, among other features. HIV is not transmitted by cats. Although suggesting that the baby’s father clean the litter boxes may be a valid statement, it is not appropriate, does not answer the client’s question, and is not the nurse’s best response. E. coli is found in normal human fecal flora. It is not transmitted by cats.

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8
Q
  1. A primigravida has just given birth to a healthy newborn. The nurse is about to administer erythromycin ointment to the newborn’s eyes when the mother asks, “What is that medicine for?” What is the basis for the nurse’s response?
    a. It is an eye ointment to help newborns see clearer.
    b. It is to protect newborns from contracting maternal herpes.
    c. Erythromycin is given prophylactically to newborns to prevent a gonorrheal infection.
    d. This medicine will protect newborn’s eyes from drying out over the next few days.
A

ANS: C
With the prophylactic use of erythromycin, the incidence of gonococcal conjunctivitis has declined to less than 0.5%. Eye prophylaxis is administered at or shortly after birth to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Erythromycin has no bearing on enhancing vision, is used to prevent infections caused by gonorrhea, not herpes, and is not used for eye lubrication.

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9
Q
  1. What should nurses be aware of with regard to skeletal injuries sustained by a newborn during labour or birth?
    a. A newborn’s skull is still forming and fractures fairly easily.
    b. Unless a blood vessel is involved, linear skull fractures heal without special
    treatment.
    c. Clavicle fractures often need to be set with an inserted pin for stability.
    d. Other than the skull, the most common skeletal injuries are to leg bones.
A

ANS: B
About 70% of newborn skull fractures are linear. Because the newborn skull is flexible, considerable force is required to fracture it. Clavicle fractures need no special treatment. The clavicle is the bone most often fractured during birth, not the leg bones.

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10
Q
  1. Which should nurses be aware of with regard to injuries to the infant’s plexus during labour and birth?
    a. If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3
    to 6 months.
    b. Erb palsy is caused by damage to the lower plexus.
    c. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to pick up the child from under
    the axillae.
    d. Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with facial nerve paralysis until the
    condition resolves.
A

ANS: A
If the nerves are stretched with no avulsion, they should recover completely in 3 to 6 months. However, if the ganglia are disconnected completely from the spinal cord, the damage is permanent. Erb palsy is caused by damage to the upper plexus and is less serious than brachial palsy. Parents of children with brachial palsy are taught to avoid picking up the child under the axillae or by pulling on the arms. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated, but both mother and infant will need help from the nurse at the start.

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11
Q
  1. What should the nurse be aware of with regard to the classification of a neonatal bacterial infection?
    a. Congenital infection progresses more slowly than health care associated infection.
    b. Health care associated infection can be prevented by effective hand hygiene;
    early-onset infections cannot.
    c. Infections occur with about the same frequency in boy and girl infants, although
    female mortality is higher.
    d. The clinical sign of a rapid, high fever makes infection easier to diagnose.
A

ANS: B
Hand hygiene is an effective preventive measure for health care associated infections because these come from the infant’s environment. Early-onset or congenital infections are caused by the normal flora of the maternal vaginal tract and progress more rapidly than health care associated infections. Infection occurs about twice as often in boys and results in higher mortality for them. Clinical signs of neonatal infection are nonspecific and similar to non-infectious problems, making diagnosis difficult.

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12
Q
  1. Near the end of the first week of life, an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-coloured, maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus. What is the newborn showing signs of?
    a. Gonorrhea
    b. Herpes simplex virus
    c. Congenital syphilis
    d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
A

NS: C
The rash is indicative of congenital syphilis. The lesions may extend over the trunk and extremities.

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13
Q
  1. Which bacterial infection is decreasing because of effective medication treatment?
    a. Escherichia coli infection
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. Candidiasis
    d. Group B streptococcal infection
A

ANS: D
Penicillin has significantly decreased the incidence of group B streptococcal infections. E. coli may be increasing, perhaps because of the increased use of ampicillin (resulting in a more virulent E. coli strain resistant to the drug). Tuberculosis is increasing in Canada and the United States. Candidiasis is a fairly benign fungal infection.

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14
Q
  1. Which should the nurse be aware of when caring for a mother who has used alcohol during their pregnancy, and for their infant?
    a. The pattern of growth restriction of the fetus begun in prenatal life is halted after
    birth, and normal growth takes over.
    b. Newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are below the twenty-fifth
    percentile for weight and height.
    c. Alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders that do not meet FAS criteria are
    often not detected until the child goes to school.
    d. Both the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant and the diminished mental
    capacities tend toward normal over time.
A

ANS: C
Some learning problems do not become evident until the child is at school. The pattern of growth restriction persists after birth. Newborns with FAS are below the tenth percentile for weight and height. Although the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant tend to become less evident, mental capacities never become normal.

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15
Q
  1. For infants of mothers who used heroin during their pregnancy, which statement is true?
    a. They are usually small for gestational age.
    b. They have a higher-than-average birth weight.
    c. They have more risk of congenital anomalies.
    d. They have a decreased risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
A

ANS: A
Heroin crosses the placenta and often results in a growth reduction and a baby that is small for gestational age. Infants usually have a lower-than-average birth weight. There is less of a risk of congenital anomalies. There is an increased risk of SIDS.

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16
Q
  1. What should the nurse understand about the treatment of newborn born to mothers who are substance users?
    a. Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted.
    b. Mothers who use one substance likely will use or abuse another, compounding
    the infant’s difficulties.
    c. The Finnegan Neonatal Abstinence Scoring System is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself.
    d. No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.
A

ANS: B
Mothers’ use of multiple substances (even when these are just alcohol and tobacco) makes it difficult to assess the problems of the exposed infant, particularly concerning withdrawal manifestations. Infants of substance-using mothers may demonstrate some of the physiological signs of addiction, but are not addicted in the behavioural sense. “Drug-exposed newborn” is a more accurate description than “addict.” The Finnegan is designed to assess the neurological, behavioural, and stress/abstinence funct ion of the neonate. Newborn urine, hair, or meconium sampling may be used to identify an infant’s intrauterine drug exposure.

17
Q
  1. Providing care for a newborn born to a mother who uses substances can present a challenge for the health care team. Nursing care for this infant requires a multisystem approach. What is the first step to take when providing care for this infant?
    a. Pharmacological treatment
    b. Reduction of environmental stimuli
    c. Neonatal abstinence syndrome scoring
    d. Adequate nutrition and maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance
A

ANS: C
Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) is the term used to describe the cohort of symptoms associated with drug withdrawal in neonates. The Neonatal Abstinence Scoring System evaluates central nervous system (CNS), metabolic, vasomotor, respiratory, and gastrointestinal disturbances. This evaluation tool enables the health care team to develop an appropriate plan of care and is recommended within 2 hours of admission to the nursery and then every 4 hours. The infant is scored throughout the length of their stay, and the treatment plan is adjusted accordingly. Pharmacological treatment is based on the severity of withdrawal symptoms but is not the first step in care. Symptoms are determined with a standard assessment tool. The medications of choice are morphine, phenobarbital, diazepam, or a diluted tincture of opium. Swaddling, holding, and reducing environmental stimuli are essential when providing care to an infant who is experiencing withdrawal but are not the first step in care. These nursing interventions are appropriate for an infant who displays CNS disturbances. Poor feeding is one of the gastrointestinal symptoms common to this population. Fluid and electrolyte balance must be maintained, and adequate nutrition provided. These infants often have a poor suck reflex and may need to be fed via gavage.

18
Q
  1. While completing a newborn assessment, the nurse should be aware that which is the most common birth injury?
    a. Injury to the soft tissues
    b. Caused by forceps gripping the head on delivery
    c. Fracture of the humerus and femur
    d. Fracture of the clavicle
A

ANS: D
The most common birth injury is fracture of the clavicle (collarbone). It usually heals without treatment, although the arm and shoulder may be immobilized for the infant’s comfort.

19
Q
  1. Which medication is contraindicated for infants born to opioid-addicted mothers?
    a. Naloxone
    b. Gentamycin
    c. Vitamin K
    d. Erythromycin
A

ANS: A
The use of naloxone (Narcan) is contraindicated for infants born to mothers who are addicted to opioids because it may exacerbate neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) and cause seizures.

20
Q
  1. Which infant is more likely to have Rh incompatibility?
    a. An infant with an Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father homozygous for the
    Rh factor
    b. An infant who is Rh negative and whose mother is Rh negative
    c. An infant with an Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father heterozygous for the
    Rh factor
    d. An infant who is Rh positive and whose mother is Rh positive
A

ANS: A
If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor, all the offspring will be Rh positive. Only Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility. If the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive and heterozygous for the factor, there is a 50% chance that each infant born of the union will be Rh positive, and a 50% chance that each will be born Rh negative.

21
Q
  1. Which would an infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis characteristically exhibit?
    a. Edema
    b. Immature red blood cells
    c. Enlargement of the heart
    d. Ascites
A

ANS: B
Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when the fetus compensates for the anemia associated with Rh incompatibility by producing a large number of immature erythrocytes to replace those that have been hemolyzed. Edema would occur with hydrops fetalis, a more severe form of erythroblastosis fetalis. A fetus with hydrops fetalis may exhibit effusions into the peritoneal, pericardial, and pleural spaces. An infant with hydrops fetalis displays signs of ascites.

22
Q
  1. What should the nurse be aware of concerning hemolytic diseases of the newborn?
    a. Rh incompatibility matters only when Rh-negative offspring are born to an
    Rh-positive mother.
    b. ABO incompatibility is more likely than Rh incompatibility to precipitate
    significant anemia.
    c. Exchange transfusions are frequently required in the treatment of hemolytic
    disorders.
    d. The indirect Coombs’ test is performed on the mother before birth; the direct
    Coombs’ test is performed on the cord blood after birth.
A

ANS: D
An indirect Coombs’ test may be performed on the mother a few times during pregnancy. Only the Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother is at risk. ABO incompatibility is more common than Rh incompatibility but causes less severe problems; significant anemia, for instance, is rare with ABO. Exchange transfers are needed infrequently because of the decrease in the incidence of severe hemolytic disease in newborns from Rh incompatibility.

23
Q
  1. The goal of treatment of the infant with phenylketonuria (PKU) is to
    a. cure cognitive impairment.
    b. prevent central nervous system (CNS) damage, which leads to cognitive
    impairment.
    c. prevent gastrointestinal symptoms.
    d. cure the urinary tract infection.
A

ANS: B
CNS damage can occur as a result of toxic levels of phenylalanine. No known cure exists for cognitive impairment. Digestive problems are a clinical manifestation of PKU. PKU does not involve any urinary problems.

24
Q
  1. Which will be present when assessing an infant with untreated phenylketonuria (PKU)?
    a. Hypoactivity
    b. Rapid weight gain
    c. Frequent vomiting
    d. Flat affect
A

ANS: C
Clinical manifestations in untreated PKU include failure to thrive (growth failure); frequent vomiting; irritability; hyperactivity; and unpredictable, erratic behaviour. Cognitive impairment is also evident and is a later sign.

25
Q
  1. The most common cause of pathological hyperbilirubinemia is
    a. hepatic disease.
    b. hemolytic disorders in the newborn.
    c. postmaturity.
    d. congenital heart defect.
A

ANS: B
Hemolytic disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathological jaundice. Hepatic damage may be a cause of pathological hyperbilirubinemia, but it is not the most common cause. Prematurity would be a potential cause of pathological hyperbilirubinemia in newborn, but it is not the most common cause. Congenital heart defect is not a common cause of pathological hyperbilirubinemia in newborns.

26
Q
  1. Which will the nurse observe when assessing a 2-week-old newborn with congenital hypothyroidism? (Select all that apply.)
    a. Diarrhea
    b. Tachycardia
    c. Large anterior fontanel
    d. Large posterior fontanel
    e. Dry mottled skin
    f. Hoarse cry
    g. Cyanosis
A

ANS: C, D, F, G
Signs and symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism at birth include large anterior and posterior fontanels, a hoarse cry, and cyanosis. The infant will have constipation, not diarrhea. The infant will have bradycardia, not tachycardia. Dry mottled skin is a clinical manifestation, but it is not seen until age 6 to 9 weeks.

27
Q
  1. Which are potential maternal–fetal ABO incompatibilities? (Select all that apply.)
    a. Maternal blood group O; fetal blood group A
    b. Maternal blood group O; fetal blood group B
    c. Maternal blood group B; fetal blood group O
    d. Maternal blood group B; fetal blood group AB
    e. Maternal blood group A; fetal blood group O
    f. Maternal blood group A; fetal blood group B
A

ANS: A, B, D, F
Potential incompatibilities include maternal blood group O with fetal blood group A or B; maternal blood group A with fetal blood group B or AB; and maternal blood group B with fetal blood group B or AB.

28
Q

. When caring for a newborn that is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome, which will the nurse assess for in the infant? (Select all that apply.)
a. Jitteriness
b. Shrill cry
c. Exaggerated Moro reflex
d. Slow, shallow respirations
e. Hypothermia
f. Hyperthermia

A

ANS: A, B, E, F
The newborn withdrawal syndrome has many clinical manifestations, including jitteriness, shrill and persistent cry, yawning and sneezing frequently, decreased Moro reflex and increased tendon reflex, poor feeding and sucking, tachypnea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypothermia, or hyperthermia and sweating.