Chapter 21: Physiological changes in postpartum patient Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A patient gave birth to an infant 12 hours ago. Where would a nurse expect to locate this patient’s fundus?
    a. At the umbilicus
    b. Two centimetres below the umbilicus
    c. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis
    d. Nonpalpable abdominally
A

ANS: A
The fundus descends about 1 to 2 cm every 24 hours. Within 12 hours after birth the fundus may be approximately at the level of the umbilicus. By the sixth postpartum week the fundus normally is halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. The fundus should be easily palpated using the maternal umbilicus as a reference point.

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2
Q
  1. Which patient is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
    a. A patient who experienced oligohydramnios
    b. A patient who gave birth to twins
    c. A patient who is bottle-feeding their infant
    d. A patient whose infant weighed 3500 g
A

ANS: B
Afterpains are more noticeable after births in which the uterus was overdistended (e.g., large baby, multifetal gestation, polyhydramnios). Breastfeeding may cause afterpains to intensify, not bottle-feeding. An average-weight baby does not intensify afterpains.

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3
Q
  1. A patient gave birth to a healthy newborn 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this patient?
    a. Lochia rubra
    b. Lochia sangra
    c. Lochia alba
    d. Lochia serosa
A

ANS: D
Lochia serosa, which consists of blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris, generally occurs around day 3 or 4 after childbirth. Lochia rubra consists of blood and decidual and trophoblastic debris. The flow generally lasts 3 to 4 days and pales, becoming pink or brown. There is no such term as lochia sangra. Lochia alba occurs in most patients after day 14 and can continue up to 6 weeks after childbirth.

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4
Q
  1. Which hormone remains elevated in the immediate postpartum period of the breastfeeding patient?
    a. Estrogen
    b. Progesterone
    c. Prolactin
    d. Human placental lactogen
A

ANS: C
Prolactin levels in the blood increase progressively throughout pregnancy. In patients who breastfeed, prolactin levels remain elevated into the sixth week after birth. Estrogen and progesterone levels decrease markedly after expulsion of the placenta, reaching their lowest levels 1 week into the postpartum period. Human placental lactogen levels decrease dramatically after expulsion of the placenta.

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5
Q
  1. Two days ago a patient gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night they awakened several times to urinate and noted that their pajamas and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this patient is experiencing during the early after birth period is
    a. elevated temperature caused by after birth infection.
    b. increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth.
    c. loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy.
    d. increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.
A

ANS: C
Within 12 hours of birth patients begin to lose the excess tissue fluid that accumulated during pregnancy. One mechanism for reducing these retained fluids is the profuse diaphoresis that often occurs, especially at night, for the first 2 or 3 days after childbirth. Postpartal diuresis is another mechanism by which the body rids itself of excess fluid. An elevated temperature would cause chills and may cause dehydration, not diaphoresis and diuresis. Diaphoresis and diuresis sometimes are referred to as reversal of the water metabolism of pregnancy, not as the basal metabolic rate. Postpartal diuresis may be caused by the removal of increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.

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6
Q
  1. A patient gave birth to a 2850 g newborn 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the patient’s bladder is distended because their fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate postpartum period, what is the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distension?
    a. Urinary tract infection
    b. Excessive uterine bleeding
    c. A ruptured bladder
    d. Bladder wall atony
A

ANS: B
Excessive bleeding can occur immediately after birth if the bladder becomes distended, because it pushes the uterus up and to the side and prevents it from contracting firmly. A urinary tract infection may result from overdistension of the bladder, but it is not the most serious consequence. A ruptured bladder may result from a severely overdistended bladder. However, vaginal bleeding most likely would occur before the bladder reaches this level of overdistension. Bladder distension may result from bladder wall atony. The most serious concern associated with bladder distension is excessive uterine bleeding.

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7
Q
  1. Which is the cause of breast engorgement?
    a. Overproduction of colostrum
    b. Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts
    c. Hyperplasia of mammary tissue
    d. Congestion of veins and lymphatic
A

ANS: D
Breast engorgement is caused by the temporary congestion of veins and lymphatics, not by overproduction of colostrum, overproduction of milk, or hyperplasia of mammary tissue.

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8
Q
  1. What information would indicate to the nurse that the new postpartum patient knows what to expect about their menstrual activity after childbirth?
    a. The first menstrual cycle will be lighter than normal and then will get heavier
    every month thereafter.
    b. The first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to
    prepregnant volume within three or four cycles.
    c. There will be no menstrual cycle for 6 months after childbirth.
    d. The first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and then will be light for
    several months thereafter.
A

ANS: B
They can expect her first menstrual cycle to be heavier than normal (which occurs by 3 months after childbirth), and the volume of their subsequent cycles will return to prepregnant levels within three or four cycles.

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9
Q
  1. Which is the interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state?
    a. Involutionary period, because of what happens to the uterus
    b. Lochia period, because of the nature of the vaginal discharge
    c. Mini-tri period, because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks
    d. Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy
A

ANS: D
The puerperium, also called the fourth trimester or the postpartum period of pregnancy, was traditionally thought to be 6 to 12 weeks, but it varies from patient to patient. Involution marks the end of the puerperium, or the fourth trimester of pregnancy. Lochia refers to the various vaginal discharges during the puerperium.

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10
Q
  1. What is the term that refers to the self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue in the uterus? a. Autolysis
    b. Subinvolution c. Afterpain
    d. Diastasis
A

ANS: A
Autolysis is caused by a decrease in hormone levels. Subinvolution is failure of the uterus to return to a nonpregnant state. Afterpain is caused by uterine cramps 2 to 3 days after birth. Diastasis refers to the separation of muscles.

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11
Q
  1. What should the nurse be aware of with regard to the postpartum uterus?
    a. At the end of the third stage of labour it weighs approximately 500 g.
    b. After 2 weeks postpartum it should not be palpable abdominally.
    c. After 2 weeks postpartum it weighs 100 g.
    d. It returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks postpartum.
A

ANS: B
After 2 weeks postpartum, the uterus should not be palpable abdominally; however, it does not return to its original size. At the end of the third stage of labour, the uterus weighs approximately 1000 g. After 2 weeks postpartum the uterus weighs about 350 g. The normal self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue accounts for the slight increase in uterine size after each pregnancy.

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12
Q
  1. A nurse understands that which is accurate with regard to afterbirth pains?
    a. They are caused by mild, continuous contractions for the duration of the
    postpartum period.
    b. They are more common in first-time mothers.
    c. They are more noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended.
    d. They are alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds.
A

ANS: C
A large baby or multiple babies over-distend the uterus. The cramping that causes afterbirth pains arises from periodic, vigorous contractions and relaxations, which persist through the first part of the postpartum period. Afterbirth pains are more common in multiparous patients; first-time mothers have better uterine tone. Breastfeeding intensifies afterbirth pain because it stimulates contractions.

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13
Q
  1. A nurse teaches a postpartum patient what information about lochia?
    a. It is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours.
    b. It is usually greater after Caesarean births.
    c. It will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding.
    d. It should smell like normal menstrual flow, unless an infection is present.
A

ANS: D
An offensive odour usually indicates an infection. Lochia flow should approximate a heavy menstrual period for the first 2 hours and then steadily decrease. Less lochia usually is seen after Caesarean births and usually increases with ambulation and breastfeeding.

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14
Q
  1. Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate?
    a. The cervix shortens, becomes firm, and returns to form within a month
    postpartum.
    b. The vaginal rugae gradually reappear starting about 3 weeks after childbirth.
    c. Most episiotomies heal within a week.
    d. Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.
A

ANS: B
The greatly distended, smooth-walled vagina gradually decreases in size and regains tone, although it never completely returns to its prepregnancy state. Rugae reappear within 3 weeks. The cervix regains its form within days; the cervical os may take longer. Most episiotomies take about 2 weeks to heal. Hemorrhoids can take 6 weeks to decrease in size.

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15
Q
  1. What should a nurse teach a postpartum patient regarding to postpartum ovarian function?
    a. Almost 75% of patients who do not breastfeed resume menstruating within a
    month after birth.
    b. Ovulation occurs slightly earlier for breastfeeding patients.
    c. Because of menstruation/ovulation schedules, contraception considerations can be
    postponed until after the puerperium.
    d. The first menstrual flow after childbirth usually is heavier than normal.
A

ANS: D
The first flow is heavier, but within three or four cycles, it is back to normal. Ovulation can occur within the first month, but for 70% of non-lactating patients, it returns in about 3 months. Breastfeeding patients take longer to resume ovulation. Because many patients ovulate before their first postpartum menstrual period, contraceptive options need to be discussed early in the puerperium.

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16
Q
  1. Which should the nurse be aware of with regard to the condition and reconditioning of the urinary system after childbirth?
    a. Kidney function returns to normal a few days after birth.
    b. Diastasis recti abdominis is a common condition that alters the voiding reflex.
    c. Fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight
    loss of over 2 kg during the puerperium.
    d. With adequate emptying of the bladder, bladder tone usually is restored 2 to 3
    weeks after childbirth.
A

ANS: C
Fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight loss of 2.25 kg during the puerperium. Excess fluid loss through other means occurs as well. Kidney function usually returns to normal in about a month. Diastasis recti abdominis is the separation of muscles in the abdominal wall; it has no effect on the voiding reflex. Bladder tone usually is restored 5 to 7 days after childbirth.

17
Q
  1. A nurse would teach a postpartum patient who is not breastfeeding that engorgement will last approximately how long?
    a. 12 hours
    b. 48 hours
    c. 72 hours
    d. 1 week
A

ANS: B
Engorgement typically lasts 24 to 48 hours.

18
Q
  1. Which should the nurse know with regard to the postpartum changes and developments in a patient’s cardiovascular system?
    a. Cardiac output, the pulse rate, and stroke volume all return to prepregnancy
    normal values within a few hours of childbirth.
    b. Basal metabolic rate gradually returns to prepregnancy levels within 1 to 2 weeks
    after birth.
    c. The lowered white blood cell count after pregnancy can lead to false-positive
    results on tests for infections.
    d. A hypercoagulable state protects the new mother from thromboembolism,
    especially after a Caesarean birth.
A

ANS: B
The basal metabolic rate gradually returns to prepregnancy levels within 1 to 2 weeks after birth. Stroke volume increases, and cardiac output remains high for a couple of days. However, the heart rate and blood pressure return to normal quickly. Leukocytosis increases 10 to 12 days after childbirth, which can obscure the diagnosis of acute infections (false-negative results). The hypercoagulable state increases the risk of thromboembolism, especially after a Caesarean birth.

19
Q
  1. Which condition, not uncommon in pregnancy, is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium?
    a. Varicosities of the legs
    b. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    c. Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers
    d. Headaches
A

ANS: D
Headaches in the postpartum period can have a number of causes, some of which deserve medical attention. Total or nearly total regression of varicosities is expected after childbirth. Carpal tunnel syndrome is relieved in childbirth when the compression on the median nerve is lessened. Periodic numbness of the fingers usually disappears after birth unless carrying the baby aggravates the condition.

20
Q
  1. Several changes in the integumentary system that appear during pregnancy disappear after birth, although not always completely. What change is almost certain to be completely reversed?
    a. Nail brittleness
    b. Darker pigmentation of the areolae and linea nigra
    c. Striae gravidarum on the breasts, abdomen, and thighs
    d. Spider nevi
A

ANS: A
The nails return to their prepregnancy consistency and strength. Some patients have permanent darker pigmentation of the areolae and linea nigra. Striae gravidarum (stretch marks) usually do not completely disappear. For some patients, spider nevi persist indefinitely.

21
Q
  1. A patient gave birth to a 3200 gm newborn 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal, and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was approximately 1500 mL. When assessing the patient’s vital signs, the nurse would be concerned to see
    a. temperature 37.9C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50.
    b. temperature 37.4C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68.
    c. temperature 38C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80. d. temperature 36.8C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90.
A

ANS: A
An EBL of 1500 mL with tachycardia and hypotension suggests hypovolemia caused by excessive blood loss. An increased respiratory rate of 36 may be secondary to pain from the birth. Temperature may increase to 38C during the first 24 hours as a result of the dehydrating effects of labour. A BP of 140/90 is slightly elevated, which may be caused by the use of oxytocic medications.

22
Q
  1. Childbirth may result in injuries to the vagina and uterus. Pelvic floor exercises also known as Kegel exercises will help to strengthen the perineal muscles and encourage healing. The nurse knows that the patient understands the correct process for completing these conditioning exercises when she reports
    a. “I contract my thighs, buttocks, and abdomen.”
    b. “I do 10 of these exercises every day.”
    c. “I stand while practicing this new exercise routine.”
    d. “I pretend that I am trying to momentarily stop the flow of urine midstream.”
A

ANS: D
The patient can pretend that they are attempting to stop the passing of gas or the flow of urine midstream. This will replicate the sensation of the muscles drawing upward and inward. Each contraction should be as intense as possible without contracting the abdomen, buttocks, or thighs. Positive results are shown with a minimum of 24 to 45 repetitions per day. The best position to learn Kegel exercises is to lie supine with knees bent. A secondary position is on the hands and knees.

23
Q
  1. A nurse would teach a postpartum patient that which maternal event is abnormal in the early after birth period?
    a. Diuresis and diaphoresis
    b. Flatulence and constipation
    c. Extreme hunger and thirst
    d. Lochial colour changes from rubra to alba
A

ANS: D
For the first 3 days after childbirth, lochia is termed rubra. Lochia serosa follows, and then at about 11 days, the discharge becomes clear, colourless, or white. Diuresis and diaphoresis are the methods by which the body rids itself of increased plasma volume. Urine output of 3000 mL/day is common for the first few days after birth and is facilitated by hormonal changes in the mother. Bowel tone remains sluggish for days. Many patients anticipate pain during defecation and are unwilling to exert pressure on the perineum. The new mother is hungry because of energy used in labour and thirsty because of fluid restrictions during labour.

24
Q
  1. Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
    a. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
    b. The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
    c. The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
    d. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
A

ANS: A
The fundus rises to the umbilicus after birth and remains there for about 24 hours. A fundus that is above the umbilicus may indicate uterine atony or urinary retention. A fundus that is palpable at or below the level of the umbilicus is a normal finding for a patient who is 12 hours after birth. Palpation of the fundus 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus is an unusual finding for 12 hours after birth; however, it is still appropriate.

25
Q
  1. If the patient’s white blood cell (WBC) count is 25  109/L on their second after birth day, the nurse should
    a. tell the health care provider immediately.
    b. have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
    c. recognize that this is an acceptable range at this point after birth.
    d. begin antibiotic therapy immediately.
A

During the first 10 to 12 days after childbirth, values up to 30  10 /L are common. Because this is a normal finding there is no reason to alert the health care provider. There is no need for reassessment or antibiotics because it is expected for the WBCs to be elevated.

26
Q
  1. Which documentation on a patient’s chart after birth day 14 indicates a normal involution process?
    a. Moderate bright red lochial flow
    b. Breasts firm and tender
    c. Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable
    d. Episiotomy slightly red and puffy
A

ANS: C
The fundus descends 1 cm/day, so by after birth day 14 it is no longer palpable. The lochia should be changed by this day to serosa. Breasts are not part of the involution process. The episiotomy should not be red or puffy at this stage.

27
Q
  1. Which are true with regard to the cervix after birth? (Select all that apply.)
    a. It is soft immediately after birth.
    b. The endocervix appears bruised and has small lacerations.
    c. The cervix is edematous, thin, and fragile.
    d. The cervix has regressed to 4 cm dilated by the third postpartum day.
    e. By 1 week after birth, the cervix is 2 to 3 cm dilated.
    f. External cervical os never regains its prepregnancy appearance.
A

ANS: A, C, F
The cervix is soft immediately after birth. The cervix up to the lower uterine segment remains edematous, thin, and fragile for several days after birth. The external cervical os never regains its prepregnancy appearance; it is no longer shaped like a circle but appears as a jagged slit that is often described as a “fish mouth.” The ectocervix, not endocervix, appears bruised and has some small lacerations. By the second or third postpartum day, the cervix is dilated 2 to 3 cm, and by 1 week after birth, it is approximately 1 cm dilated.

28
Q
  1. Which assessments indicate that the perineal bleeding is lochia? (Select all that apply.)
    a. It usually trickles from the vagina.
    b. It spurts from the vagina at regular intervals.
    c. Steady flow can occur as the uterus contracts.
    d. It is bright red 2 to 3 days after birth.
    e. A gush occurs when massaging the uterus.
    f. It has an offensive odour.
A

ANS: A, C, D, E
Lochial bleeding usually trickles from the vagina and can have a steady flow when the uterus contracts. It is bright red for 2 to 3 days and usually trickles from the vagina. A gush can occur when the uterus is massaged. Spurting from the vagina at regular intervals indicates nonlochial bleeding, maybe a cervical or vaginal tear. The odour should be similar to menstrual flow; an offensive odour indicates infection.

29
Q

The physiological changes that occur during the reversal of the processes of pregnancy are distinctive; however, they are normal. To provide care during this recovery period the nurse must synthesize knowledge regarding anticipated maternal changes and deviations from normal. Match the vital signs finding that the after birth nurse may encounter with the probable cause.
a. Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours
b. Rapid pulse
c. Elevated temperature at 36 hours after birth
d. Hypertension
e. Hypoventilation
1. Puerperal sepsis
2. Unusually high epidural or spinal block
3. Dehydrating effects of labor
4. Hypovolemia resulting from hemorrhage
5. Excessive use of oxytocin

A
  1. ANS: C
  2. ANS: E
  3. ANS: A
  4. ANS: B
  5. ANS: D