Chapter 27 Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Crick’s adaptor hypothesis?

A

adaptor hypothesis = postulation that a small nucleic acid could act as an adaptor, binding to both a specific amino acid and the mRNA sequence encoding that amino acid
verified with the discovery of tRNA

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2
Q

What is translation? (Translation and Aminoacyl-tRNAs)

A

translation = the overall process of mRNA-guided protein synthesis

the tRNA adaptor “translates” the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA into the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide

amino acids are “activated” for protein synthesis.

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3
Q

What are aminoacyl-tRNAs?

A

= tRNA attached to an amino acid

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4
Q

What are aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases?

A

catalyze the formation of aminoacyl-tRNAs

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5
Q

What is necessary to encode each amino acid?

A

Three Nucleotides are Necessary to Encode Each Amino Acid

the four code letters of DNA (A, T, G, and C) in groups of two yields only 42 = 16 different combinations
insufficient to encode 20 amino acids.

groups of three yield 43 = 64 different combinations

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6
Q

What is a codon?

A

codon = a triplet of nucleotides that codes for a specific amino acid

in all living systems, translation occurs in such a way that codons are read in a successive, nonoverlapping fashion

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7
Q

What is a triplet?

A

The Triplet, Nonoverlapping Code
inserting or deleting one base pair alters the amino acid sequence coded by the mRNA

inserting or deleting three nucleotides leaves the remaining triplets intact
provides evidence that a codon has only three nucleotides

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8
Q

What is reading frame?

A

reading frame = method of dividing nucleotides such that a new codon begins every three nucleotide residues
established by the first codon
no punctuation between codons
in principle, any given ssDNA or mRNA sequence has three possible reading frames

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9
Q

What was the first breakthrough of amino acids connected to codons?

A

Nirenberg and Matthaei fed poly(U) and 20 radiolabeled amino acids to E.coli
found that radioactive polypeptide only formed in the tube containing *Phe
thus UUU codes for Phe

the same approach revealed:
CCC codes for proline
AAA codes for lysine
GGG did not generate any polypeptide, because it forms tetraplexes that cannot be bound by ribosomes

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10
Q

What is polynucleotide phosphorylase?

A

polynucleotide phosphorylase = catalyzes the formation of RNA polymers with a base composition that reflects the relative concentrations of precursors in the medium
discovered by Ochoa

Nirenberg and Ochoa groups used artificial mRNAs made by polynucleotide phosphorylase to identify the base compositions of coding triplets

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11
Q

What can trinucleotides induce?

A

Trinucleotides that Induce Specific Binding of Aminoacyl-tRNAs to Ribosomes

isolated E. coli ribosomes bind a specific aminoacyl-tRNA in the presence of the corresponding synthetic polynucleotide messenger

a Each number represents the factor by which the amount of bound 14C increased when the indicated trinucleotide was present, relative to a control with no trinucleotide.

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12
Q

What is a complementary approach to possible codons?

A

Khorana used defined mRNAs in planned patterns to produce polypeptides with repeating patterns
(AC)n (alternating ACA and CAC codons) produced a polypeptide with equal amounts of threonine and histidine.
Given that a histidine codon has one A and two Cs, CAC must code for histidine and ACA for threonine.
Consolidation of the results from many experiments permitted assignment of 61 of the 64 possible codons

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13
Q

What is the effect of a termination codon?

A

three codons disrupted amino acid coding patterns when they occurred in a synthetic RNA polymer
synthesized dipeptides or tripeptides

these codons were identified as termination codons

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14
Q

What are some important things to know about amino acid code words in mRNAs?

A

61 codons code for amino acids
3 codons (UAA, UGA, UAG) are termination codons
1 codon (AUG) is the start / initiation codon (as well as the Met codon)
degenerate = an amino acid may be specified by more than one codon
The Genetic code is universal
exceptions include minor variations in mitochondria, some bacteria, and some single-celled eukaryotes

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15
Q

How is protein synthesis initiated?

A

initiation of protein synthesis in the cell relies on initiation codons and other signals in the mRNA

in retrospect, the experiments to identify codon function should not have worked without initiation codons
experimental conditions caused the initiation requirements for protein synthesis to be relaxed

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16
Q

What is open reading frame?

A

(protein synthesis; initiation)
open reading frame (ORF) = a reading frame without a termination codon among 50+ consecutive codons

long ORFs usually correspond to genes that encode proteins
a typical protein requires an ORF with 500+ codons

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17
Q

What is an anti-codon?

A

anticodon = a three-base sequence on the tRNA that base pairs with mRNA codons

base pairing occurs via hydrogen bonding

the alignment of the two RNA segments is antiparallel

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18
Q

What does a Wobble allow some tRNAs to recognize?

A

Wobble Allows Some tRNAs to Recognize More than One Codon
when several different codons specify one amino acid, the difference usually lies at the third base position
for example, alanine is encoded by GCU, GCC, GCA, and GCG
the third position in each codon is much less specific and is said to “wobble”
this allows certain tRNAs to recognize more than one codon

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19
Q

What is the wobble hypothesis?

A

the wobble hypothesis = proposes the third base of most codons pairs loosely with the corresponding anticodon base
permits rapid dissociation of the tRNA from its codon during protein synthesis
the first two bases of the codon form strong Watson-Crick base pairs with the anticodon
confers most of the coding specificity

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20
Q

What are relationships of the wobble hypothesis?

A

the first base of the anticodon (read in the 5′⟶3′ direction) determines the number of codons recognized by the tRNA
when an amino acid is specified by several different codons, the codons that differ in either of the first two bases require different tRNAs
at least 32 tRNAs are required to translate all 61 codons (31 to encode the amino acids, 1 for initiation)
Inosinate (I) can form weak hydrogen bonds with A, U, and C

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21
Q

How many numbers of tRNAs are in E.coli cells?

A

most cells have more tRNAs than the 32 tRNAs required to translate all codons

The bacteriumE. colihas 47 different tRNA genes.

Many of these are present in multiple copies, such that there are 86 total tRNA genes in theE. coligenome.

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22
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

missense mutations = mutations in which a single new base pair replaces another
most common type of mutation
in the third position of the codon, single base substitutions changes the amino acid only ~25% of the time
Two types: Transition and transversion
Transition: Purine replaced by purine [or pyri by pyri] (most common)
Transversion: Purine replaced by pyrimidine or vice versa (rare)

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23
Q

What is a translational frameshift?

A

translational frameshifting = “hiccupping” of ribosomes at a certain point in the translation to change the reading frame
allows 2+ related but distinct proteins to be produced from a single transcript
occurs during translation for the overlapping gag and pol genes of the retrovirus Rous sarcoma virus

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24
Q

What is RNA editing? (of mRNAs)

A

RNA editing = the addition, deletion, or alteration of RNA nucleotides in a manner that affects the meaning of the transcript during translation
addition or deletion of nucleotides is common in RNAs from mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes
Cytochrome Oxidase Subunit II: posttranscriptional editing inserts four U residues
-revises the reading frame

guide RNAs (gRNAs) = act as templates for the editing process

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25
Q

How is RNA editing altered by nucleotides?

A

commonly involves enzymatic deamination of adenosine or cytidine to form inosine or uridine, respectively

ADARs (adenosine deaminases that act on RNA) = carry out adenosine deamination reactions

APOBEC (apoB mRNA editing catalytic peptide) family of enzymes = carry out cytidine deaminations
includes AID (activation-induced deaminase) enzymes

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26
Q

What is RNA Editing of the Gene Transcript for the apoB-100 Component of LDL?

A

an APOBEC cytidine deaminase found only in the intestine binds to the apoB-100 mRNA and changes a Gln codon to a stop codon
produces a truncated protein
reaction permits tissue-specific synthesis of two different proteins from one gene

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27
Q

Give an overview of the 5 stages of protein synthesis.

A
  1. activation
  2. Initiation
  3. Elongation
  4. Termination
  5. Protein folding
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28
Q

What makes a ribosome a complex supramolecular machine?

A

each E. coli cell contains 15,000+ ribosomes
~25% of the dry weight of bacteria
bacterial ribosomes:
contain ~65% rRNA (forms the core and catalyzes peptide bond formation) and ~35% protein
have two unequal subunits (30S and 50S)
S (Svedberg unit) values = sedimentation coefficients that refer to their rate of sedimentation in a centrifuge

30S= 1 (16S rRNA)
50S= 2 (5S and 23S rRNAs)

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29
Q

What are the bacterial ribosomal subunits?

A

bacterial ribosomes have 30S and 50S subunits
-the combined sedimentation coefficient is 70S

50S and 30S subunits come together to form a cleft through which mRNA passes

there is no protein within 18 Å of the active site for peptide bond formation

high-resolution structure confirms that the ribosome is a ribozyme

Large subunit: 5S, 23S (Ribozyme)
Small subunit: 16S

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30
Q

What is the eukaryotic ribosomal structure?

A

eukaryotic ribosomes have a similar structure to bacterial ribosomes with somewhat increased complexity
eukaryotic ribosomes:
are larger (~80S) and more complex than bacterial ribosomes
have two subunits (60S and 40S on average)
Large subunit: 5S, 5.8S, 28S (probable role as Ribozyme)
Small subunit: 18S

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31
Q

Whats a big comparison between eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes?

A

chloroplasts and mitochondria have simpler ribosomes than bacteria

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32
Q

How are the secondary structure in small subunit rRNAs conserved?

A

folding patterns of rRNAs are highly conserved in all organisms

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33
Q

How are ribosomes assembled in eukaryotes?

A

ribosomes are assembled through a hierarchical incorporation of r-proteins as the rRNAs are synthesized

processing of pre-rRNAs occurs within large ribonucleoprotein complexes

dozens of proteins and snoRNAs are involved in final maturation of the ribosome

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34
Q

What characteristic structural features do transfer RNAs have?

A

in both bacteria and eukaryotes, tRNAs are small and consist of 73-93 nucleotide ssRNA
mitochondria and chloroplasts contain smaller tRNAs

common structural elements:
8+ residues have modified bases and sugars (many are methylated derivatives)
have a guanylate (pG) residue at the 5′ end
have the trinucleotide sequence CCA(3′) at the 3′ end
have a cloverleaf shape in 2-D and a twisted L shape in 3-D

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35
Q

What is the amino acid arm of tRNA?

A

amino acid arm = carries a specific amino acid esterified by its carboxyl group to the 2′-OH or 3′-OH group of the A residue at the 3′ end of the tRNA

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36
Q

What is the anit-codon arm of tRNA?

A

anticodon arm = contains the anticodon

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37
Q

What is the D arm of tRNA?

A

D arm = contains the unusual nucleotide dihydrouridine (D)
contributes to overall folding of tRNAs

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38
Q

What is the TψC arm of tRNA?

A

TψC arm = contains ribothymidine and pseudouridine (ψ)
ψ has an unusual carbon-carbon bond between the base and ribose
contributes to overall folding of tRNAs
interacts with the large-subunit rRNA

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39
Q

How does Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetases attach the Correct Amino Acids to their tRNAs?

A

stage 1:
occurs in the cytosol
activates the carboxyl group of each amino acid
establishes a link between each new amino acid and the information encoding it in the mRNA

tRNAs are “charged” when attached to their amino acid (aminoacylated)

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40
Q

What is aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases and what is its function?

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases = esterify the 20 amino acids to their corresponding tRNAs
specific for one amino acid and 1+ corresponding tRNAs
most organisms have one enzyme for each amino
*aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases fall into Class I or Class II
no evidence of a common ancestor
based on differences in:
primary and tertiary structure
reaction mechanism

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41
Q

What is the first step in Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetases?

A

the reaction catalyzed by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is

amino acid + tRNA + ATP –>(mg2+) aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP + PPi

step 1 forms the enzyme-bound intermediate, aminoacyl adenylate (aminoacyl-AMP)

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42
Q

What is step 2 in the Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetase Reaction?

A

step 2 transfers the aminoacyl group from enzyme-bound aminoacyl-AMP to its corresponding specific tRNA
mechanism depends on the enzyme class

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43
Q

In Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, how is the ester linkage affected? (think free energy)

A

(The Ester Linkage has a Highly Negative ∆G′°)
pyrophosphate formed in the activation reaction undergoes hydrolysis to phosphate by inorganic pyrophosphatase
two high-energy phosphate bonds are ultimately expended for each amino acid molecule activated

the overall reaction for amino acid activation is essentially irreversible:

 amino acid + tRNA + ATP-->(Mg2+)         aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP + PPi 
	         ∆G′° = −29 kJ/mol
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44
Q

What is the proofreading function of aminoacyl-tRNA?

A

Ile-tRNA synthetase has a proofreading function to distinguish between Val and Ile by a factor of 200.

Val-AMP fits into the hydrolytic (proofreading) site of Ile-tRNA synthetase
Val-AMP is hydrolyzed
tRNA does not become aminoacylated to the wrong amino acid

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45
Q

What are additional methods for enhancing fidelity of protein synthesis?

A

most aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases can hydrolyze the ester linkage in the aminoacyl-tRNAs

some aminoacylation active sites can sufficiently discriminate between the proper substrate and incorrect amino acids

The few aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases that activate amino acids with no close structural relatives (Cys-tRNA synthetase, for example) demonstrate little or no proofreading activity;
in these cases, the active site for aminoacylation can sufficiently discriminate between the proper substrate and any incorrect amino acid

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46
Q

What is the error rate of protein synthesis?

A

the overall error rate of protein synthesis is ∼1 mistake per 10^4 amino acids incorporated
higher than that of DNA replication

flaws in a protein have less biological significance
eliminated when the protein is degraded
not passed on to future generations

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47
Q

What is the “second genetic code”?

A

individual aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases must be specific for a single amino acid and for certain tRNAs

“second genetic code” refers to the interaction between aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases and tRNAs

nucleotides in tRNA that confer binding specificity are concentrated in:
the amino acid arm
the anticodon arm
the nucleotides of the anticodon itself

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48
Q

How is tRNA recognized by Ala-tRNA synthetases?

A

a single G=U base pair in the amino acid arm of tRNAAla determines tRNA recognition by Ala-tRNA synthetases
true across a range of organisms, from bacteria to humans

Ten or more specific nucleotides may be involved in recognition of a tRNA by its specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase. But in a few cases the recognition mechanism is quite simple.

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49
Q

What are two unusual amino acids in peptides?

A

selenocysteine = formed after charging a UGA-recognizing tRNA with serine in both bacteria and eukaryotes

pyrrolysine = directly attached to its tRNA that recognizes UAG (stop) codon in some archaea

There are actually 22 rather than 20 amino acids specified by the known genetic code. The two extra amino acids are selenocysteine and pyrrolysine, each found in only very few proteins but both offering a glimpse into the intricacies of code evolution. Formate dehydrogenase in bacteria and glutathione peroxidase in mammals require selenocysteine for their activity. Pyrrolysine is found in a group of anaerobic archaea called methanogens.

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50
Q

What is stage 2 in protein synthesis?

A

A Specific Amino Acid Initiates Protein Synthesis
*the AUG initiation codon specifies an amino-terminal methionine residue.

all organisms have two tRNAs for methionine:
one for when (5′)AUG is the initiation codon
one when a Met residue in an internal position in a polypeptide

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51
Q

What two tRNAs are specific for methionine in bacteria?

A

fMet-tRNA(fMet) inserts N-formyl-methionine (fMet) at the amino-terminal end
added in response to the (5′)AUG initiation codon

Met-tRNA(Met) inserts methionine in interior positions
added in response to the interior (5′)AUG codons

52
Q

How is fMet-tRNA(fMet) formed?

A

fMet-tRNA(fMet) is formed in two successive reactions:

Methionine + tRNA(fMet) +ATP → Met-tRNA(fMet) + AMP + PPi

N10-formyltetrahydrofolate + Met-tRNA(fMet) → tetrahydrofolate + fMet-tRNA(fMet)

transformylase transfers the formyl group and is more selective than the Met-tRNA synthetase

53
Q

What tRNAs are specific for Methionine in eukaryotic cells?

A

in eukaryotic cells:
*a specialized initiating tRNA inserts methionine at the amino-terminal end
*Met-tRNA(Met) inserts methionine in interior positions

*polypeptides synthesized by mitochondrial and chloroplast ribosomes begin with N-formylmethionine,
*which strongly supports the view that these organelles originated from bacterial ancestors incorporated into precursor eukaryotic cells.

54
Q

What are the three steps of initiation in bacteria?

A

initiation in bacteria requires:
the 30S ribosomal subunit
mRNA
the initiating fMet-tRNA(fMet)
three initiation factors (IF1, IF2, and IF3)
GTP
the 50S ribosomal subunit
Mg2+

55
Q

How is the initiation complex formed in bacteria? (step 1)

A

IF3 prevents the 30S and 50S subunits from combining prematurely

Shine-Dalgarno sequence = region of mRNA that guides the initiating (5′)AUG to its correct position
the mRNA is complementary to a sequence in the rRNA

56
Q

What is the shine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

mRNA Sequences that Serve as Signals for Initiation of Protein Synthesis in Bacteria
Shine-Dalgarno consensus sequence is an initiation signal of four to nine purine residues, 8 to 13 bp to the5’ side of the initiation codon

57
Q

What are the three sites that bind tRNAs in bacterial ribosomes?

A

the aminoacyl (A) site
the peptidyl (P) site
the exit (E) site

Both the 30S and the 50S subunits contribute to the characteristics of the A and P sites, whereas the E site is largely confined to the 50S subunit.

58
Q

What is the the aminoacyl (A) site on bacterial ribosomes?

A

the aminoacyl (A) site = site where incoming aminoacyl-tRNAs (other than fMet-tRNAfMet) bind
IF1 binds and prevents tRNA binding at the A site during initiation

59
Q

What is the peptidyl (P) site on bacterial ribosomes?

A

the peptidyl (P) site = site where amino acids are added to the growing chain
only site where fMet-tRNA(fMet) can bind

60
Q

What is the exit (E) site on bacterial ribosomes?

A

the exit (E) site = binds uncharged tRNAs

61
Q

How is the initiation complex in bacteria formed? steps 2 and 3

A

the anticodon of fMet-tRNA(fMet) is correctly paired with the mRNA’s initiation codon at the P site

the initiation complex = a functional 70S ribosome containing mRNA and the initiating fMet-tRNA(fMet)

62
Q

Whats the first step in the initiation of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

A

eukaryotic mRNAs are bound to the ribosome as a complex with specific binding proteins

eukaryotic cells have at least 12 initiation factors
eIF1A is a functional homolog of IF1
eIF3 is a functional homolog of IF3

eIF1A blocks tRNA binding to the A site

eIF3 prevents premature joining of the ribosomal subunits

eIF1 binds to the E site

63
Q

What is step 2 in the protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

A

a complex containing charged tRNAMet, eIF2, and GTP binds to the 40S subunit, along with eIF5 and eIF5B
–creates a 43S preinitiation complex

64
Q

What is step 3 in the initiation of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

A

-the eIF4F complex contains:
eIF4E (binds 5′ cap)
eIF4A (an ATPase and RNA helicase)
eIF4G (a linker protein)

-mRNA binds to eIF4F
mediates its association with the 43S preinitiation complex
(The eIF4G protein binds to eIF3 and eIF4E to provide the first link between the 43S preinitiation complex and the mRNA. The eIF4G also binds to the poly(A) binding protein (PABP) at theend of the mRNA, circularizing the mRNA (Fig. 27-27) and facilitating the translational regulation of gene expression)

65
Q

How is mRNA circularized in the eukaryotic initiation complex?

A

eIF4G binds to the poly(A) binding protein (PABP) at the 3′ end of the mRNA, circularizing the mRNA
facilitating the translational regulation of gene expression

66
Q

What is step 4 in the initiation of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

A

addition of the mRNA and associated factors creates a 48S complex

the 48S complex scans the mRNA until AUG is encountered
**may be facilitated by the RNA helicase of eIF4A

67
Q

What is step 5 in the initiation of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

A

the 60S subunit associates with the complex

eIF5 promotes eIF2 GTPase activity
eIF2-GDP complex has reduced affinity for the initiator tRNA

eIF5B hydrolyzes GTP and triggers dissociation of eIF2-GDP and other factors
homologous to IF2

68
Q

What is stage 3 in protein metabolism?

A

Peptide Bonds are Formed in the Elongation Stage

elongation requires:
the initiation complex
aminoacyl-tRNAs
elongation factors (EF-Tu, EF-Ts, and EF-G in bacteria)
GTP

69
Q

What is the elongation step 1?

A

Binding of an Incoming Aminoacyl-tRNA
an incoming aminoacyl-tRNA binds an GTP-bound EF-Tu complex

the aminoacyl-tRNA–EF-Tu–GTP complex binds to the A site of the 70S initiation complex

after GTP hydrolysis, EF-Tu–GDP complex leaves the ribosome

70
Q

What is step 2 in elongation?

A

Peptide Bond Formation
*the N-formylmethionyl group is transferred to the amino group of the aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site to form a dipeptidyl-tRNA
α-amino group of the amino acid in the A site acts as the nucleophile

tRNA shift to a hybrid binding state
the 3′ and 5′ ends of tRNA(fMet) are in the E site
the 3′ and 5′ ends of the peptidyl-tRNA are in the P site

71
Q

How is the first peptide bond in bacteria made?

A

In the p-site

72
Q

What is the ribosome rescue system?

A

Ribosome Pausing, Arrest, and Rescue

ribosomes may stall if mRNA is damaged or incomplete

tmRNA (transfer messenger RNA) rescues stalled bacterial ribosomes in a multistep pathway
permits release and degradation of the damaged mRNA
tags the truncated polypeptide for degradation

(In virtually all bacteria, the rescue system consists oftransfer-messenger RNA (tmRNA)andsmall protein B (SmpB). These bind to the stalled complex in such a way that the tmRNA is positioned in the empty A site so that the ribosome can continue translation until it encounters a stop codon embedded in the tmRNA. The ribosome is then recycled, and both the defective mRNA and the polypeptide translated from it are degraded. Similar systems exist in eukaryotes.)

73
Q

What is the activity of Peptidyl Transferase?

A

the 23S rRNA has peptidyl transferase activity that catalyzes peptide bond formation
catalyzes the reaction by binding and aligning the tRNAs in the A and P sites in the proper orientations

a highly conserved active site A residue in 23S rRNA may facilitate the reaction by general base catalysis and transition state stabilization

74
Q

What is step 3 in elongation?

A

Translocation
*in translocation, the ribosome moves one codon toward the 3′ end of the mRNA
shifts the anticodon of the dipeptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site
shifts the deacylated tRNA from the P site to the E site
leaves the A site open for a new aminocyl-tRNA

ribosome translocation requires EF-G and energy provided by GTP hydrolysis

75
Q

How does the elongation cycle repeat?

A

the attachment of a third amino acid residue occurs in the same way as addition of the second residue

two GTPs are hydrolyzed for each amino acid residue added to the growing polypeptide

76
Q

How is the eukaryotic elongation cycle similar/different then bacteria?

A

elongation cycle steps are similar to those in bacteria

eukaryotic elongation factors have analogous functions to the bacterial elongation factors
eEF1α is analogous to EF-Tu
eEF1βγ is analogous to EF-Ts
eEF2 is analogous to EF-G

when a new aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site, an allosteric interaction leads to ejection of the uncharged tRNA from the E site

77
Q

How does proofreading occur on the ribosome?

A

*the GTPase activity of EF-Tu contributes to the rate and fidelity of protein synthesis
*EF-Tu–GTP and EF-Tu–GDP complexes exist for a few milliseconds before dissociation
-These two intervals provide opportunities for the codon-anticodon interactions to be proofread
-incorrect aminoacyl-tRNAs dissociate from the A site during one of these periods

78
Q

What does the proofreading mechanism on the ribosome establish?

A

The proofreading mechanism establishes if the proper codon-anticodon pairing takes place

If a tRNA is aminoacylated with the wrong amino acid, this efficiently incorporated into a protein in response to codon recognized by that tRNA.

(The proofreading mechanism on the ribosome establishes only that the proper codon-anticodon pairing has taken place, not that the correct amino acid is attached to the tRNA. If a tRNA is successfully aminoacylated with the wrong amino acid (as can be done experimentally), this incorrect amino acid is efficiently incorporated into a protein in response to whatever codon is normally recognized by the tRNA.)

79
Q

What does GTPγS Improve?

A

GTPγS Improves Fidelity of Protein Synthesis

the GTP analog guanosine 5′-O-(3-thiotriphosphate) (GTPγ S):
slows hydrolysis
improves fidelity (by increasing the proofreading intervals)
reduces the rate of protein synthesis

Improved fidelity might diminish speed, whereas increases in speed would probably compromise fidelity

80
Q

What is stage 4 of protein synthesis?

A

Termination of Polypeptide Synthesis Requires a Special Signal

termination is signaled by a termination codon in the mRNA (UAA, UAG, UGA) occupying the A site

81
Q

What are termination factors?

A

termination factors (release factors) = the proteins RF1, RF2, and RF3 which function to:
*induces peptidyl transferase to transfer the growing polypeptide to a water molecule rather than to another amino acid and hydrolyze the terminal peptidyl-tRNA bond
*release the polypeptide and the last uncharged tRNA
*RF3 cause dissociation of the 70S ribosome into its subunits
*RF1 recognizes the termination codons UAG and UAA, and RF2 recognizes UGA and UAA

eukaryotes have a single release factor, eRF

82
Q

How is protein synthesis terminated in bacteria?

A

ribosome recycling factor (RRF) and energy from GTP hydrolysis aid in ribosome dissociation

IF3 promotes dissociation of the tRNA

the complex of IF3 and the 30S subunit is then ready to initiate another round

83
Q

How does energy affect fidelity in protein synthesis?

A

Energy Cost of Fidelity in Protein Synthesis

*at least four high-energy phosphate equivalents are required to generate each peptide bond
–aminoacyl-tRNA formation uses two high-energy phosphate groups
–a GTP is cleaved during the first elongation step
–a GTP is cleaved during translocation
–ATP is consumed each time an incorrectly activated amino acid is hydrolyzed during proofreading
–at least 4 x 30.5 kJ/mol = 122 kJ/molof phosphodiester bond energy to generate a peptide bond
-the energy investment is required to guarantee fidelity

84
Q

What is a polysome?

A

= cluster of ribosomes

in bacteria, transcription and translation are tightly coupled
Large clusters of 10 to 100 ribosomes that are very active in protein synthesis can be isolated from both eukaryotic and bacterial cells.

85
Q

What are expressome?

A

= a complex of ribosomes and RNA polymerase that begins translation during transcription

86
Q

What is stage 5 of protein synthesis?

A

Newly Synthesized Polypeptide Chains Undergo Folding and Processing

during or after synthesis, a polypeptide progressively assumes its native conformation

chaperones and chaperonins assist by restricting formation of unproductive aggregates and limiting the conformational space
**examples: GroEL/GroES in bacteria and Hsp60 in eukaryotes
requires ATP

TheGroEL/GroES system is required for the folding of about 10%–15% of the proteins inE. coli.

87
Q

What are Chaperonins in protein folding?

A
88
Q

What do proteins sometimes require further?

A

Posttranslational Modifications
many proteins require further processing by posttranslational modifications to attain their final active conformation

89
Q

What are the Amino-Terminal and Carboxyl-Terminal Modifications?

A

forming the final functional protein may include enzymatic removal of residues, including:
the formyl group
the amino-terminal Met residue
additional amino-terminal residues
carboxyl-terminal residues

the amino group of the amino-terminal residue is N-acetylated in up to 50% of eukaryotic proteins

carboxyl-terminal residues may also be modified

90
Q

What happens to the signal sequence towards the end?

A

Loss of Signal Sequences

signal sequences = the 15 to 30 residues at the amino-terminal end of some proteins
play a role in directing the protein to its ultimate destination in the cell
are eventually removed by specific peptidases

91
Q

What are some modifications of individual amino acid residues?

A

the -OH groups of certain Ser, Thr, and Tyr residues may be enzymatically phosphorylated by ATP
adds negative charges to these polypeptides
functional significance varies

the milk protein casein has many phosphoserine groups that bind Ca2+. Calcium, phosphate, and amino acids are all valuable to suckling young, so casein efficiently provides three essential nutrients.

92
Q

What might happen to Glu residues?

A

The Addition of Extra Carboxyl Groups to Glu Residues

extra carboxyl groups may be added to Glu residues of some proteins
**γ-carboxyglutamate residues in the amino-terminal region of prothrombin bind Ca2+ to initiate the clotting mechanism
theγ-carboxyl groups are introduced by an enzyme that requires vitamin K

93
Q

What amino acids are methylated?

A

monomethyl- and dimethyllysine residues occur in some muscle proteins and in cytochrome c

calmodulin contains trimethyllysine

carboxyl groups of Glu residues may undergo methylation to remove their negative charge

94
Q

Are carbohydrate side chains attached during or after polypeptide synthesis?

A

carbohydrate side chains of glycoproteins are attached covalently during or after polypeptide synthesis

can be attached enzymatically to:
Asn residues (N-linked oligosaccharides)
Ser or Thr residues (O-linked oligosaccharides)

95
Q

Why might there be an addition of Isoprenyl groups?

A

isoprenyl groups are added to some eukaryotic proteins
via a thioester bond between the isoprenyl group and a Cys residue
helps anchor proteins in a membrane

proteins modified this way include Ras proteins and lamins

The transforming (carcinogenic) activity of therasoncogene is lost when isoprenylation of the Ras protein is blocked, a finding that has stimulated interest in identifying inhibitors of this posttranslational modification pathway for use in cancer chemotherapy.

96
Q

How does Farnesylation of a Cys residue happen?

A
97
Q

Why might there be an addition of a prosthetic group?

A

many proteins require covalently bound prosthetic groups for their activity

examples:
the biotin molecule of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
the heme group of hemoglobin or cytochrome c

98
Q

What is Proteolytic processing?

A

many proteins are synthesized as large, inactive precursor polypeptides
proteolytic cleavage yields their active forms

examples:
Proinsulin
some viral proteins
proteases (chymotrypsinogen, trypsinogen, etc.)

99
Q

Why are Disulfide cross-links formed?

A

some proteins form intrachain or interchain disulfide bridges between Cys residues
-common in exported eukaryotic proteins
-helps protect the native conformation of the protein from the extracellular environment

100
Q

What are tetracycline and chloramphenicol functions and used for?

A

tetracyclines = inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by blocking the A site
prevent aminoacyl-tRNA binding

chloramphenicol = inhibits bacterial, mitochondrial, and chloroplast protein synthesis by blocking peptidyl transfer
does not affect eukaryotic cytosolic protein synthesis

101
Q

slide 100 What is puromycin?

A

Protein Synthesis Is Inhibited by Many Antibiotics and Toxins
puromycin = an inhibitory antibiotic that binds to the A site and terminates polypeptide synthesis
made by the mold Streptomyces alboniger
structure similar to the 3′ end of an aminoacyl-tRNA
producing peptidylpuromycin

102
Q

What are cycloheximide and streptomycin functions and used for?

A

cycloheximide = blocks the peptidyl transferase of 80S eukaryotic ribosomes
does not affect 70S bacterial, mitochondrial, and chloroplast ribosomes (not very good chemotheraputic)

streptomycin = causes misreading of the genetic code in bacteria at low concentrations and inhibits initiation at higher concentrations

103
Q

What is diptheria toxin and ricin function and used for?

A

diphtheria toxin = catalyzes the ADP-ribosylation of a diphthamide (a modified histidine) residue of eEF2 to inactivate it
released by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae
The elongation process is affected due to the translocation step of peptidyl transferase activity (eEF2 similar to EF-G)

ricin = a toxic protein of the castor bean that inactivates the 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes by depurinating a specific A residue in 28S rRNA

(Diphtheria is a serious bacterial illness that causes sore throat, swollen glands, breathing difficulties, and often death. Although it has been largely eradicated in the developed world, a few thousand cases still occur each year in countries where vaccination is limited.)

104
Q

What is the thermodynamic cost of transport?

A

the thermodynamic cost of protein synthesis is magnified by cellular processes to transport proteins to their correct locations

occurs in eukaryotic cells

Extracellular always goes to the lysosome
Intracellular can use lysosome or proteosome

105
Q

What is a signal sequence?

A

signal sequence = a short sequence of amino acids that directs a protein to its appropriate location in the cell
typically removed during transport or after reaching the final destination
at the amino terminus for proteins slated for transport into mitochondria, chloroplasts, or the ER
(In many cases, the targeting capacity of particular signal sequences has been confirmed by fusing the signal sequence from one protein to a second protein and showing that the signal directs the second protein to the location where the first protein is normally found.)

106
Q

Where does posttranslation modification in many eukaryotic proteins begin?

A

Posttranslational Modification of Many Eukaryotic Proteins Begins in the Endoplasmic Reticulum
*signal sequences mark most lysosomal, membrane, or secreted proteins for translocation into the ER lumen

107
Q

What are features of signal sequences?

A

signal sequences:
vary in length from 13 to 36 amino acid residues
have ~10 to 15 hydrophobic amino acid residues
have 1+ positively charged residues, usually near the amino terminus
have a short, polar sequence at the carboxyl terminus

108
Q

How does ER targeting take place?

A

the signal sequence is synthesized first

signal recognition particle (SRP) = a large complex that binds the signal sequence and the ribosome
binds GTP and halts elongation at ~70 amino acids

GTP-bound SRP directs the ribosome, the mRNA, and the incomplete polypeptide to GTP-bound SRP receptors in the cytosolic face of the ER

peptide translocation complex = interacts directly with the ribosome and accepts the nascent polypeptide

109
Q

How does ER targeting take place? cont

A

SRP dissociates from the ribosome
accompanied by GTP hydrolysis

elongation of the polypeptide resumes
the growing polypeptide is fed into the ER lumen

the signal sequence is removed by a signal peptidase within the ER lumen

the ribosome dissociates and is recycled

110
Q

How are eukaryotic proteins directed with the appropriate signals to the er?

A
111
Q

What key role does Glycosylation play in protein targeting?

A

N-glycosylation occurs in the in the ER lumen
involves a 14-residue core oligosaccharide that is built up stepwise

A few proteins areO-glycosylated in the ER, but mostO-glycosylation occurs in the Golgi complex or in the cytosol (for proteins that do not enter the ER)
(Picture=Synthesis of the Core Oligosaccharide of Glycoproteins)

112
Q

What is Tunicamycin?

A

tunicamycin = blocks the first step in the synthesis of the core oligosaccharide
mimics the structure of UDP-N-acetylglucosamine
In cells treated with tunicamycin, hydrolases that should be targeted to lysosomes are instead secreted, confirming that the N-linked oligosaccharide plays a key role in targeting these enzymes to lysosomes.

113
Q

How do proteins travel?

A

Proteins Destined for Lysosomes, the Plasma Membrane, or Secretion

proteins travel from the ER to the cis side of the Golgi complex in transport vesicles

sorting occurs in the trans side of the Golgi complex

114
Q

How does phosphorylation of Mannose residues on lysosome-targeted enzymes happen?

A

N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase recognizes an unknown structural feature of hydrolases destined for lysosomes

115
Q

What are nuclear localization sequences?

A

Signal Sequences for Nuclear Transport are not Cleaved
*nuclear localization sequence (NLS) = a signal sequence that targets a protein to the nucleus
not cleaved to allow for repeated nuclear importation following nuclear envelope breakdown

nuclear importation is mediated by:
importin alpha and beta
a GTPase called Ran
(RNA molecules synthesized in the nucleus are exported to the cytosol. Ribosomal proteins synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes are imported into the nucleus and assembled into 60S and 40S ribosomal subunits in the nucleolus; completed subunits are then exported back to the cytosol)

116
Q

What are targets of Nuclear proteins?

A

. A protein with an appropriate nuclear localization signal (NLS) is bound by a complex of importins α and β. 2. The resulting complex binds to a nuclear pore and translocates. 3. Inside the nucleus, dissociation of importin β is promoted by the binding of Ran-GTP. 4. Importin α binds to Ran-GTP and CAS (cellular apoptosis susceptibility protein), releasing the nuclear protein. 5. Importins α and β and CAS are transported out of the nucleus and recycled. They are released in the cytosol when Ran hydrolyzes its bound GTP. 6. Ran-GDP is bound by NTF2, and transported back into the nucleus. 7. Ran-GEF promotes the exchange of GDP for GTP in the nucleus, and Ran-GTP is ready to process another NLS-bearing protein-importin complex.
(b) Transmission electron micrograph of a freeze-fractured nucleus, showing numerous nuclear pores. The nuclear pore complex is one of the largest molecular aggregates in the cell . It is made up of multiple copies of more than 30 different proteins.

117
Q

How do bacteria use signal sequences?

A

Bacteria Also Use Signal Sequences for Protein Targeting
bacteria use amino terminus signal sequences to target proteins to:
their inner or outer membranes
the periplasmic space between these membranes
the extracellular medium

118
Q

What is the model for protein export in bacteria?

A

SecB = chaperone protein

SecA = a receptor and a translocating ATPase

translocation complex = made up of Sec Y, E, and G

119
Q

How do cells import proteins?

A

Cells Import Proteins by Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis

120
Q

What is Clathrin-Dependent Endocytosis?

A

coated pits = invaginations of the membrane which concentrate endocytic receptors
coated on their cytosolic side with the protein clathrin

dynamin = a GTPase that pinches off the endocytic vesicle

121
Q

How is protein degradation mediated?

A

Protein Degradation is Mediated by Specialized Systems in All Cells
*protein degradation is critical to cellular proteostasis

half-lives of eukaryotic proteins vary from 30 seconds to many days
defective proteins are short-lived
enzymes at key regulatory points in metabolic pathways are short-lived
hemoglobin is long-lived

122
Q

How are proteins degraded in E.coli?

A

proteins are degraded by proteolytic systems that contain AAA+ ATPases, including:
Lon
ClpXP
ClpAP
ClpCP
ClpYQ
FtsH

ATP hydrolysis maneuvers a target protein through a pore into a proteolytic chamber where they are cleaved

123
Q

How are proteins degraded in eukaryotes?

A

ubiquitin = protein that is covalently linked to proteins slated for destruction via an ATP-dependent pathway
highly conserved protein

the ATP-dependent pathway includes three enzyme types:
E1 activating enzymes
E2 conjugating enzymes
E3 ligases

124
Q

What is the 26S proteasome?

A

26S proteasome = a large complex that degrades ubiquitinated proteins
highly conserved
(before entering, ubiquitin is removed)
The outer rings are formed from sevenαsubunits, and the inner rings from sevenβsubunits. Three of theβsubunits have protease activities, each with different substrate specificity.

125
Q

What is a simple signal for Ubiquitination?

A

the identity of the first residue has a profound influence on half-life
(all depends on where they are located)