Chapter 25 - Brownian motion and Ito Flashcards
define a stochastic process
a stochastic process is a random process that is a function of time
Define brownian motion
Like with everything else, the book is extremely close to being entirely wrong with the terminology.
Brownian motion refer a specific path taking, or a stochastic movement pattern, that occur when a particle move as a result of many varying impacts in continuous time.
Mathemtically, brownian motion is a result of a wiener process.
The wiener process has the following characteristics that define it:
1) Z(0) = 0
2) Z(t+s) - Z(t) is normally distributed with mean 0 and variance s.
3) Non overlapping increments are independently distributed.
4) Z(t) is continuous.
the book say that brownian motion has these characteristics, but this is informal. It may be accepted, but it is more precise to say that the wineer process has those characteristics.
Name an outcome of the characteristics of brownian motion
Martingale.
E[Z(t+s) | Z(t)] = E[Z(t)]
elaborate on the intuition behind:
Z(t+h)-Z(t) = Y(t+h)sigma sqrt(h)
we model a single step movement in Z by considering a step length h. If we let h go very small, we approach continuous motion. But with a simplified discrete case, we can use h=k, where k is some step size. So we are effectively saying that the difference between the Z value before and after the step, which would give us the relative movement during the step, is given by the stochastic function “Y(t+h)sigma sqrt(h)”. Y(t+h) could by any random variable, but we assume it is binary. therefore, the argument “t+h” doesn’t really make that much of a difference, it could be any argument and we’d receive a value with the same expected value etc. However, the argument serve more as a purpose of saying which step the random variable draw belongs to.
We draw from a binary distribution with only two outcomes, -1 and 1. This therefore represent the direction of our movement in the corresponding time step. Then we need the volatility. The volatility, or standard deviation, depends on the particle or whatever we are observing. it is found by estimating the variance and rooting it. When we take volatility, it will be measured in regards to some basic time step size. therefore we need to scale it so that it fits with the specific increment we choose of h. This is why we sqrt the h and multiply it by the standard deviation.
elaborate on the role of binomial distribution in the equation earlier
It is more fitting to describe it as a bernoulli trial. A trial is a special case of the binomial distribution where the number of trials is equal to 1. This gives the binary outcome.
how do we find the number of intervals of length “h” from the time interval 0 to T
Since T and h is the same unit, we simple take:
T/h = #intervals
Generalize the earlier equation to apply to a broader time interval that encompass multiple time steps
we are looking at Z(T)-Z(0). We need the number of intervals, which was T/h.
Z(T)-Z(0) = sum of increments
Recall that the brownian motion deifnitinin have these increments normally distributed and independent. Therefor,e the sum of them is a random variable that is also normally distributed.
Z(T) - Z(0) = ∑y_i(i) sigma sqrt(h) [i=0, T/h]
sigma and sqrt(h) is constant, as long as the time steps are equal sized.
Z(T)-Z(0) = sigma sqrt(h) ∑y_i(i) [i=0, T/h]
So now we are talking about a sum of Bernoulli trials, which gives us a binomial distribution b(x; T/h, 0.5). In other words, we can replace the sum of trials with a single binomial distribution variable.
BUT: To understand some of the properties, we go down a different path.
We have:
Z(T)-Z(0) = sigma sqrt(h) ∑y_i(ih) [i=0, T/h]
Taking the expected value, we get:
E[] = sigma sqrt(h) E[∑y(ih)] = 0
And since the variance is 1, the std is 1 (per trial). The sum of trials give a higher variance, but are canceled out from sqrt(h). We end up getting variance 1 again. BUT: we then have the T term, so we get variance equal to T.
we then use the central limit theorem to say that a sum of independent binomial random variables with mean 0 and variance T approach a normal distribution when the number of samples grow large.
What is the single step brownian motion equation when using infinitesimals
Becasue the variance of the Rademacher variables is 1, we dont get a sigma term. The book generally just omit the sigma due to this.
Since we typically work with sums, give the sum form of the infinitesimal variant brownian motion equation
Define quadratic variation
Defined as the sum of squared increments.
Use this equation to elaborate on some properties of brownian motion
If we find quadratic variation, we will find that as n go to infinty, the quadratic variation becomes T. Therefore, the quadratic variation of brownian motion is not a random variable, but is fixed and finite.
In all of these cases, are we working with the actual brownian motion?
No, we are working with the binomial approximation of it
How can we generalize the simple binomial brownian motion formula to have non-zero mean and variance equal to something other than 1
We add whatever mean we want by shifting the function, and then we explicitly include the sigma term that was actually always included.
generally speaking, when we enhance the model we originally had for brownian motion, and used arithmetic brownian motion, what did we actually do?
We allow for the possibility of non-zero mean and arbitrary variance.
what is dZ(t)
The change given by the random variable at time step t:
dZ(t) = Y(t) sqrt(dt)
Recall that Z(T) is
the sum of all the incremenets
Given as integral
Questions that need answering:
1) Why is X(T)-X(0) normally distributed
2)
name positive properties of arithmetic brownian motion
name drawbacks of arithmetic brownian motion
allow negative values. This is not necessarily bad, but it is DEFEINITELY bad if we want to use brownian motion to model stock prices, as they should not be negative.
ALSO: The current model doesnt connect volatility and dollar return.
define mean reversion
a process that identifies when it has reached upper and lower “thresholds” and increase the likelihood of reverting back to the mean
how can we extend the arithmetic brownian motion
we make the so-called “Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process”.
In broad terms, it modify the drift term so that it want to approach the mean.
The lambda parameter represent how much mean reversion we want.
X(t) is the state. So we use the curernt state to help with understanding which movement it should go towards.
Recall the definition of brownian motion
Brownian motion is defined from some properties:
1) Start at zero, Z(0) = 0 with certainty
2) Independent increments. The future movement does not depend on the past.
3) Normally distributed increments. The change over an interval <t, h+t] is n(x; 0, h). we can approximate using binomial distribution (series of Bernoulli trials) as the sum of Bernoulli trial variables approach normal as the number of trials increase.
4) Continuous paths.
5) Martingale property. Ensure no drift. However, we can extend brownian motion to include drift, but then it becomes a model based on brownian motion, and not necessarily an exact brownian motion.
Define an Ito process
when the drift and volatility depend on X(t) (the current state), it is called an Ito process.
Recall the arithmetic brownian motion equation
dX(t) = a dt + s dZ(t)