Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

P-8A NATOPS > Chapter 2: Systems > Flashcards

Chapter 2: Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What type of engines does the P-8A utilize?

A

Two CFM56-7 turbofan engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does EEC stand for?

A

Electronic Engine Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many EEC’s are there?

A

Two

One per engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of the EEC?

A

The EEC deli it’s the maximum thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of a fuel pump?

A

Create pressure to drive fuel flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of a fuel filter?

A

To remove contaminants from fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the engine oil system?

A

To lubricate the engine bearings and accessory gearbox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the function of engine-driven oil pump?

A

To pressurize the engine oil system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of the engine-driven scavenge pump?

A

It returns the oil to the oil tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What two things are required for engine starter operation?

A

Pressurized air and electrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where does the engine start get oil from?

A

Engine accessory gearbox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does the starter motor receive air from?

A

Bleed air from the APU, external ground cart, or other operating engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many igniter plugs are there?

A

Two per engine, so four total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two methods for starting an engine in flight?

A

Windmill and crossbleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many thrust reverser are there?

A

One per engine, so two total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of the thrust reverser?

A

Ground operations only after touchdown to slow the aircraft, reduce stopping distance and brake wear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the engine fire protection consist of?

A

Engine overheat and fire detection system

Engine fire extinguishing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many overheat/fire detector loops are on each engine?

A

Two

Normally, both detector loops must sense a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine overheat or fire alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are there?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does A/T stand for?

A

Auto throttle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the A/T system?

A

Automatic thrust control for takeoff through climb, cruise,

descent, approach, and go-around or landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is fuel primarily contained?

A

Two main tanks
Center tank
Two aux tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the fueling station located?

A

The fueling station is located outboard of the engine nacelle on the right wing.
Ground defueling and fueling transfer are also controlled at the fueling station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does UARRSI stand for?

A

Universal Aerial Refueling Receptacle Slipway Installation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the function of UARRSI?

A

To refuel in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the capacity of each surge tank?

A

57 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of the surge tanks?

A

To collect fuel overflow only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Both engines are normally pressure fed from which tank?

A

The center tank until the center tank quantity decreases to near zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of a check valve in the fuel feed system?

A

Ensure proper direction of fuel flow and to prevent transfer of fuel between tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Each main tank and the center tank has how many pumps?

A

Two AC driven pumps per tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is the center tank fuel used before the main tanks?

A

The center tank has higher pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the suction feed line?

A

Used to draw fuel into each engine from the corresponding main tanks when fuel is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the auxiliary fuel system?

A

The auxiliary fuel system provides supplemental fuel for extended range operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where does the aux fuel tank groups send fuel?

A

To the center tank via pressure differential created by OBIGGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does OBIGGS stand for?

A

On-Board Inert Gas Generating System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of the OBIGGS system?

A

Regulates max O2 concentration in fuel tanks to 9 percent

The On-Board Inert Gas Generating System (OBIGGS) supplies Nitrogen-Enriched Air (NEA) to all of the fuel
tanks in sufficient quantity to ensure a 9 percent maximum oxygen concentration at any time throughout the flight
envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does FQIS stand for?

A

Fuel Quantity Indication System

37
Q

What is the function of FQIS?

A

The Fuel Quantity Indication System (FQIS) calculates the usable fuel quantity in each tank

38
Q

What type of APU does the P-8A utilize?

A

Honeywell 131-9(B)

39
Q

What is an APU?

A

A self-contained gas turbine

Auxiliary power unit

40
Q

What is the function of the APU?

A

Provides bleed air for engine starts or air conditioning

AC power is also provided via the incorporated generator

41
Q

Where does the APU receive its electrical power for starts?

A

Aircraft batter or the aircraft dc system

42
Q

At what altitudes may the APU be started and operated?

A

Up to the aircraft maximum verified altitude

43
Q

Where is the APU located?

A

Within a fireproof compartment located in the tail of the aircraft

44
Q

Caution regarding APU fuel source temperature

A

Damage to APU fuel components may occur if fuel source temperature is greater than 57 °C (135 °F).

45
Q

Note regarding APU start using battery power only

A

When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come online and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are
zero until the APU generator is placed online

46
Q

Note regarding monitoring EGT during start

A

During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indicationmay fluctuate from 0 to 1,100 °C prior to normal EGT rise. This indication has no adverse
effect on starting the APU. It is not necessary to monitor EGT during start.

47
Q

Note regarding APU FAULT light during start

A

APU FAULT light may momentarily illuminate during start.

48
Q

The APU start cycle may take as long as how many seconds?

A

120 seconds

49
Q

How long should you operate the APU before using it as a bleed air source?

A

1 full minute

50
Q

Describe a normal APU shutdown process

A

APU switch OFF
Generator trips, bleed air valve closes
APU runs for 1 minute cool down
As speed decreases fuel valve and inlet door close
If fuel valve does not close, FAULT light illuminates after 30 seconds
An immediate shutdown may be accomplished by pulling the APU fire switch.

51
Q

What does ECU stand for?

A

Electronic Control Unit

52
Q

What is the function of the ECU?

A

Monitors and controls the APU

Provides automatic shutdown protection

53
Q

What are the reasons for an automatic APU shutdown?

A

ELF HOOF

EGT exceedance and
Low oil pressure
Fire, APU
High oil temperature
Over speed conditions
Other system faults
Fuel control unit failure
54
Q

What does the APU fire protection consist of?

A

APU fire detection loop (Battery Bus)

APU fire extinguisher (Hot Battery Bus)

55
Q

How many fire detection loops are part of the APU compartment?

56
Q

What are the indications of an APU fire?

A 
APU fire switch illuminates red
MASTER WARNING lights illuminate, 
fire warning bell sounds, 
and the APU fire warning light flashes.
In the main wheelwell, on ground only, 
the APU fire warning horn sounds. 
A Crew Message System (CMS) warning message will be displayed for
warning alerts.
57
Q

What are the engine overheat indications?

A

ENG OVERHEAT light
MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate. A hi-lo chime will accompany the illumination of the MASTER CAUTION light.

58
Q

What are the indications for the FAULT/INOP test?

A

MOFA

  1. Both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate.
  2. The OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates.
  3. The FAULT light illuminates.
  4. The APU DET INOP light illuminates.
59
Q

What are the indications for the OVHT/FIRE test?

A
  1. The fire warning bell sounds.
  2. Both MASTER WARNING lights illuminate.
  3. Both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate.
  4. The OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates.
  5. Both engine fire switches illuminate.
  6. The APU fire switch illuminates.
  7. Both ENG OVERHEAT lights illuminate.
  8. The WHEEL WELL fire warning light illuminates if ac power is available.
  9. On the ground, the wheelwell APU fire warning horn sounds and the wheelwell APU fire warning light
    flashes
60
Q

How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are there?

61
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel located?

A

Right main wheel well

62
Q

What does IDG stand for and what does it do?

A

Two engine Integrated Drive Generators supply 115 volt, 400 cycle AC

63
Q

What is the function of the transformer rectifier (TR) units and the main battery/battery charger?

A

Supply DC power

64
Q

T/F A single IDG is able to provide power for all normal flight conditions.

65
Q

Skipped most of the electrical system

A

Will continue at 2.6 Lighting systems

66
Q

Position lights vs anticollision lights

A

Position lights are the red, green and white navigational lights
Anticollision lights are the three red lights (one on top, two on bottom)

67
Q

Skipped the majority of 2.6 lighting systems

68
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there?

A

Three

A, B, and standby

69
Q

When is the standby hydraulic system used?

A

When A and/or B pressure is lost

70
Q

How are flight controls affected with the failure of one of the hydraulic systems?

A

Either hydraulic system A or B may power all flight controls with no decrease in aircraft controllability

71
Q

Where is the hydraulic fluid reservoir located for systems A and B?

A

In the main wheel well area

72
Q

How are hydraulic systems A and B pressurized?

73
Q

How is the standby hydraulic system reservoir pressurized and serviced?

A

It is connected to system B

74
Q

The left weapon bay door is powered by which hydraulic system?

A

Left weapon bay door - A

Right weapon bay door - A (alternate)

75
Q

The right weapon bay door is powered by which hydraulic system?

A

Right weapon bay door - B

Left weapon bay door - B (Alternate)

76
Q

What type of pumps are associated with both A and B hydraulic system?

A

Both have an engine-driven pump and an AC electric motor-driven pump

77
Q

Caution regarding minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pump.

A

Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pumps is 1,675 pounds in the related main tank. Operation of the electric motor-driven pumps with less than the specified fuel quantity could result in overheat and failure of the associated hydraulic system.

78
Q

What does PTU stand for and what does it do?

A

Power Transfer Unit

Transfers volume and pressure from system A to B when required

79
Q

What is the function of the landing gear transfer unit?

A

Transfers volume of hydraulic fluid required to raise the landing gear when system A engine-driven pump volume is lost

80
Q

What does WBDDS stand for?

A

Weapons bay door drive system

81
Q

Are the weapons bay doors capable of running on only one hydraulic system (A or B)?

A

Yes
In the event of a single hydraulic system failure, the remaining hydraulic system drives the opening and closing of both doors at reduced rates.

82
Q

What does HCM stand for and what does it do?

A

Hydraulic Control Module (HCM)
Regulates hydraulic fluid flow to the HPDU and door uplock
actuators.

83
Q

What does HPDU stand for and what does it do?

A

Hydraulic Power Drive Unit
Provides rotary power to the rotary geared actuators and
subsequently both weapons bay doors

84
Q

What is the function of the rotary geared actuators, angle gearbox, and torque shafts?

A

Rotary geared actuators, angle gearbox, and torque shafts Convert HPDU hydraulic power into low-speed/high torque mechanical power used to open and close the weapons bay doors

85
Q

What is the function of the overspeed brakes in the WBDDS?

A

Overspeed brakes restrain the weapons bay doors in the event the doors ever become uncontrolled. The overspeed brakes are mechanically actuated by a centrifugal actuation mechanism. The overspeed brake trips (locks-up) when the drive line exceeds a set speed. Once tripped, the brakes will remain locked until they are reset once the aircraft is back on-ground

86
Q

What is the function of the fusible torque shaft in the WBDDS?

A

A fusible torque shaft on the left and right driveline between the HPDU and the angle gear box. The fusible torque shaft protects the WBDDS from damage in the event an overspeed brake inadvertently actuates or if a door jams.

87
Q

What is the function of the door uplocks?

A

Mechanically lock the weapons bay doors in the up position. The uplock assembly is driven by a dual redundant hydraulic actuator.

88
Q

What does the weapons bay ECU stand for and what does it do?

A

Weapons Bay Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
Interfaces with aircraft electronic control systems, including the SMS, and various WBDDS components, such as position sensors, door uplocks, and HPDU, to receive commands and transmit status signals

89
Q

Skipped 2.8 Flight Control Systems

P-8A NATOPS (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions