Chapter 2 Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

List 3 veins in the hand used for IV

A
  1. superficial dorsal v.
  2. dorsal venous arch
  3. Radial v.
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2
Q

List 4 veins in arm used for IV

A
  1. basilic v.
  2. cephalic v.
  3. medial cubital
  4. median v. of forearm
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3
Q

What parts of the arm can we place IV’s in

A
  1. AC space
  2. radial part of wrist
  3. back of hand
  4. front of forearm
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4
Q

What’s the difference between aseptic and sterile technique

A

Sterile is needed for invasive procedures to create a bug free environment.

Aseptic is used to reduce risk of infection

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5
Q

Name the 2 modes of intravenous contrast administration. Explain the difference

A

Drip infusion &
Bolus injection

Drips infuse slowly over a long period. Bolus is pushed fast over a short period of time.

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6
Q

What technique eliminates air from the tubing of an IV line?

A

“Bleeding” of the tubing

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7
Q

What needle gauge is used or flow rates < 3ml/sec?

A

22 G

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8
Q

What needle gauge is used or flow rates >3ml/sec?

A

20 G +

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9
Q

If an IV is located in the hand or wrist what flow rate should be used on the power injector?

A

1.5 mL/sec

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10
Q

Power injectors are capable of consistently injecting ______ volumes of contrast agent at flow rates up to ________ mL/ sec

A
  1. large

2. 5- 6 mL/sec

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11
Q

What is the difference between in intrathecal and intraarticular injections?

A

One goes into the space surrounding the spinal cord and the other goes into the joint space.

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12
Q

Why do we have to be cautious when injecting nursing mothers with Iodinated contrast agents?

A

It can be excreted in breast milk

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13
Q

How long after contrast administration should nursing mothers “pump and dump”?

A

24 hrs

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14
Q

Iodinated contrast crosses the blood brain barrier . True or False

A

True

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15
Q

If you have been in renal failure are undergoing dialysis can you still receive contrast ? Explain

A

yes.

the decision to proceed is up to the referring physician

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16
Q

List 3 contraindications to IV iodinated contrast

A
  1. iodine allergy
  2. Prior adverse rxn
  3. Renal insufficiency
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17
Q

Define a “breakthrough reaction”

A

its a repeat adverse reaction to iodinated contrast that occurs even after premedication

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18
Q

Premedication regimens usually consist of what two agents

A

Antihistamines & corticosteroids

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19
Q

In what type of patients would premedication be a likely choice

A

Those with increased risk of having an adverse rxn

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20
Q

What are the 4 H’s that the American College of Radiology says you should pay attention to before administering contrast

A
  1. History
  2. Hydration
  3. Have equipment ready
  4. Heads up ( constantly observe patient condition )
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21
Q

How do neutral contrast agents work in the GI tract ?

A

Distends bowel

Allows for clear visualization

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22
Q

Name 3 negative contrast agents

A

water, air, gas

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23
Q

3 advantages of using water as a negative contrast agent

A
  1. more palatable
  2. enhances bowel wall well
  3. no interference with 3D Imaging
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24
Q

During a chest CT you can improve image quality while acquiring an image at the end of inspiration or expiration?

A

inspiration

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25
Effervescent granules act as a negative, positive or neutral contrast agent?
negative
26
When a patient swallows effervescent granules what is added to the bowel to the stomach and small bowel to enhance visualization?
gas
27
During a CT colonography how is air administered to the patient ? Can you use room air or CO2 to visualize the bowel during this scan ?
- via Enema | - both
28
What are the two routes of barium sulfate suspension administration? What part of the body does it illuminate ?
- oral and rectal | - GI tract
29
How long does the patient have to wait to be scanned after receiving barium sulfate suspension?
30 - 90 min
30
Name 3 cases where the use of bariums sulfate might be potentially harmful to the patient ?
- bowel perforation - scheduled surgery to the abdomen/ pelvis - aspirated into the lungs
31
Describe the concept of osmolality
the propensity of any agent to cause fluid from around a vessel to move into the vessel
32
Iodinated radiocontrast media can be separated into 2 categories, what are they
Ionic and Non ionic
33
2 Examples of High Contrast media
1. conray | 2. Hypaque
34
3 Examples of Low Contrast media
3. Omnipause 4. Isovue 5. Optiray
35
Which has less potential to cause a bad rxn to the patient, Non ionic LOCM or Ionic HOCM?
Non ionic LOCM
36
What does HOCM stand for? LOCM? IOCM
1. High-osmolar Contrast Media 2. Low- osmolar contrast media 3. Iso-molar Contrast media
37
Name one example isomolar contrast media
Iohexal
38
The degree of _______ exhibited by an iodinated contrast agent is directly proportional to its _______ of iodine
1. radiopacity | 2. concentration
39
Iodinated radiocontrast media is water soluble. True or False
true
40
What routes of administration can you use for Iodinated radiocontrast media
1. mouth 2. Intrathecal space 3. Intraarticular space 4. Blood stream 5. Artery or vein
41
What does the process of medication reconciliation involve?
reviewing patients medications at all points of care
42
What 4 pieces of information should be included in patients medication record?
1. name 2. dosage 3. frequency 4. route of administration 5.
43
What type of drug is coumadin ? | What is the generic name for it?
Anticoagulant Generic name: Warfarin
44
What type of drug is Metformin? | What is the generic name for it?
Type 2 diabetic medication Generic name: Glucophage
45
If a patient taking metformin also has acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease and they are scheduled for a CT scan about how long should they be instructed to discontinue their diabetic medication before getting scanned? Why?
24 hr before scan and up to 2 days after scan Renal impairment from the contrast paired with underlying kidney issues can cause dangerous amounts of metformin to build up in the body
46
What is an anxiolytic drug? Name two classes.
drug that helps reduce anxiety Benzodiazepines and SSRIs
47
What test is a measure of blood coagulation. What other lab value is used to asses the patients clotting ability
1. Prothrombin time | 2. Platelet count
48
What test is used to detect abnormalities in blood clotting
Partial thromboplastin time
49
What lab test is used to diagnose a deep vein thrombosis and possible PE
D- timer
50
What lab test is used to screen for damage to the liver by measuring various enzymes and proteins in the body
Liver Function test
51
Which is a more accurate measure of renal function BUN & creatinine or GFR?
GFR
52
What part of the body is a common location for an indwelling (kept in place) catheter
Bladder
53
Which type of catheter is used for temporary drainage, Foley or Straight-type?
Straight type
54
Whats the difference between Hypoxemia and Hypoxia?
Hypoxemia: low [C] oxygen in blood Hypoxia: low [C] oxygen in tissue
55
Untreated hypoxia can lead to the patient becoming...?
cyanotic
56
Do you need a physician to place an order for Oxygen for a patient? Why ?
yes. it is considered a drug
57
In what units is oxygen typically delivered to the patient? What controls the rate of oxygen delivery? In what two forms can Oxygen be stored
1. LPM 2. oxygen flow meter 3. liquid and gas
58
Name 3 options for oxygen delivery What flow rate can be delivered using each device?
1. Nasal canula: 1-5 LPM 2. Mask : > 6 LPM 3. Ventilator
59
Which provides a higher percentage of oxygen delivery, oxygen mask or non- rebreather mask
Non-rebreather mask
60
What is the difference between the insertion of an endotracheal vs tracheostomy tube
endotracheal tube: gets to trachea through the nose or mouth tracheostomy: gets to trachea through surgical opening
61
List and describe the 4 levels of conscious states
Lethargic: drowsy but aroused Obtunded: depressed conscious, hard to wake, in a state of confusion Stupor: Semi comatose (near unresponsive) Coma
62
What is the normal pulse rate for adults? | Is it lower or higher for children?
pulse rate: 60 -100 bpm higher
63
What is the normal body temperature for adults
97.7 - 99.5
64
What are the 3 distinct stages of the cardiac cycle and which parts of the ECG wave to they correspond to ?
Atrial Systole: P wave Ventricular systole: QRS complex Complete cardiac diastole: T wave