Chapter 2/3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells are polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

A

Mast cells, basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do all PMN leukocytes contain?

A

Granules filled with lysosomes filled with nucleases, lipases, proteases, toxic peroxides, superoxide radicals for microbial killing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are in mast cell granules?

A

Histamine. Mast cells are primary responders in allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which progenitor cells generate dendritic cells (DCs)?

A

We don’t actually know, but we group them with lymphoid progenitor cells right now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the ratio of RBCs to WBCs? How does this change during infection?

A

1000:1. However, during infection, the WBC count increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long do PMN cells live? Monocytes?

A

2-3 days. Monocytes live for months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is neutrophilia?

A

Abnormally high number of neutrophils/ Greater than 7500/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe what “left shift” is in context of neutrophils

A

It’s the premature release of neutrophils. Occurs when demand for mature neutrophils exceeds supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can cause neutrophilia?

A

Stress (physiologic), hemorrhage hemolysis, some drugs, metabolic disorders, neoplasms (abnormal tissue masses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the blood percentages of neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils?

A

Neutrophils = 62%
Lymphocytes = 20-30%
Monocytes = 2-8%
Eosinophils = 2.3%
Basophils = 0-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In which acute inflammation scenarios is neutrophilia present?

A

Splenectomy, appendicitis, nervousness (epinephrine), heart attack, burns…etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe neutropenia

A

Abnormally low neutrophil count. Less than 2000 cells/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Consequences of neutropenia?

A

Severe prolonged infections bc supply can’t meet demand
Abnormal distribution and sequestration
Decreased bone marrow production (caused by chemo, aplastic anemia, radiation)
Increased destruction (caused by splenomegaly, immune reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is granulocytopenia?

A

Drastically low levels of all 3 granulocytes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percent of granulocytes do neutrophils comprise?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is the biggest granulocyte?

A

Basophil. But lowest count of all WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Distinguish primary and secondary granules

A

Primary granules = bigger and contain killing enzymes
Secondary granules = smaller and contain molecules for maintaining homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does FMLP stand for? What is its function? Which cell type secretes it?

A

N-formyl-methionyl-leucyl-phenylalanine. Functions as positive chemotactant for neutrophils. Secreted by bacteria. SUPER positively chemotactic even at tiniest concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe eosinophilia

A

Abnormally high eosinophil count. Greater than 450 cells/ul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What problems is eosinophilia associated with?

A

-Type I allergic disorders
-Dermatologic disorders
-Parasite infestation
-Some malignancies
-Some drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is eosinopenia?

A

Abnormally low eosinophil count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What problems is eosinopenia associated with?

A

Stress responses (surgery, shock, trauma, burns, mental distress)
Cushing’s syndrome: excess glucocorticoids, which is drug induced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe basophilia

A

Abnormally high basophil count.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What issues are associated with basophilia?

A

It’s rare in humans, but can experience inflammation and fast hypersensitivity.
Myeloproliferative disorders and found in veterinary medicine (heart worm disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe basopenia and why this one is weird

A

Abnormally low basophil count, but hard to tell because normal range is 0-2%. Can be associated with hyperthyroidism, pregnancy, ovulation, stress, and long term steroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many nuclei do neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils have?

A

Neutrophils are trilobite, so 3 nuclei.
Eosinophils and basophils have 2 nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where are mast cells found?

A

Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Contrast basophil vs mast cell granules

A

Right before releasing histamine, the bigger mast cell granules clump together. Basophil granules are smaller and do NOT clump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Basophil granules contain more _________ than T cells, which cause B cells to start making _____ and are responsible for _________

A

IL-4
IgE
Allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Macrophages enter blood as ______ from ______

A

Monocytes
Bone marrow

31
Q

Macrophages are part of ____, also known as the _____. What is this system’s function?

A

Reticuloendothelial system (RES), all known as the mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)
Functions to trap and expose foreign antigens (APC) for phagocytosis

32
Q

Functions of macrophages?

A

Recycle trapped antigen materials to simple sugars, aa, lipids, nucleic acids. Also to process and present antigens to specific T cells

33
Q

Describe the different types of macrophages that monocytes differentiate into and anatomical site

A

Kupffer cells = liver
Alveolar macrophages = lungs
Peritoneal macrophages = free-floating in peritoneal fluid in abdominal cavity
Microglial cells = central nervous tissue in brain
Dendritic cells = spleen and lymph nodes

34
Q

Where are monocytes located?

A

Along capillaries

35
Q

How long are monocytes in the blood before entering tissue?

A

8 hours after exiting bone marrow. Then go to tissue

36
Q

Which cells are involved in extra cellular killing?

A

Natural killer cells of innate immune system and cytotoxic T cells of adaptive immune system

37
Q

How to NK cells know who to kill?

A

Cell-to-cell contact by engaging killer-cell inhibitory receptors (KIRs) with target cell. If it binds MHC-1 (self antigen), then NK cell activation is inhibited and degranulation occurs. No destruction. If the KIRs are unable to bind MHC-1, then NK cell activates and kills target cell.

38
Q

Hallmarks of inflammation?

A

Redness, swelling, heat, pain, loss of function

39
Q

What causes inflammation?

A

Tissue necrosis, bone fracture, cut, burn, chemical exposure, infection, hypersensitivity reaction

40
Q

Inflammation causes release of what? Give example.

A

Acute phase proteins such as C-reactive protein (CRP). It binds bacteria and activates complement system, which can lead to lysis enhanced by phagocytosis

41
Q

Acute phase protein that is marker for inflammation?

A

C-reactive protein

42
Q

MHC-1 is expressed on ALL cells. True or False?

A

False. Only present on nucleated cells. Meaning erythrocytes don’t have them bc lack nucleus

43
Q

NK cells have antigen specific receptors. True or False?

A

False. Have self antigen receptors but nonspecific killing

44
Q

Describe bradykinin

A

Best example of kinin superfamily. Stimulates nerve endings -> pain during inflammation. Vasodilator

45
Q

Which protein family becomes activated during tissue damage? Through which pathway?

A

Kinins activated through blood clotting cascade

46
Q

Which protein leads to kinin production?

A

Hageman factor (AKA coagulation factor XII) generates Kallikrein, which makes kinins

47
Q

Kinins are responsible for what during inflammation?

A

Pain and itching

48
Q

Explain kinin role in vasodilation

A

Act on vascular endothelial cells to make them contract (get smaller) and vasodilate vessels, thus making the vessels leaky. Also induce CAM expression so that leukocytes can adhere.

49
Q

Steps of leukocyte adhesion

A

Tethering, rolling, activation, adherence and crawling, transendothelial migration

50
Q

Types of CAMs

A

ICAM-I and selectins

51
Q

Which cells are present at site of inflammation? Within what time frame?

A

PMN cells show up within 30-60 minutes to phagocytose intruder

52
Q

Which cells arrive if intruder persists after neutrophils arrive?

A

Mononuclear cells

53
Q

Role of monocytes during inflammation?

A

Produce cytokines when activated with antigen. Process antigen.

54
Q

Key inflammatory cytokines?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNFalpha, IL-8

55
Q

What do inflammatory cytokines do?

A

Induce CAMs for adhesion by neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes

56
Q

Key role of IL-8?

A

Positively chemo-attract leukocytes to increase phagocytosis

57
Q

Chemotactic factors for leukocytes?

A

Bacterial products
Complement
Chemical mediators

58
Q

Fever is commonly present in ____?

A

inflammation

59
Q

Bacterial products cause monocytes to release which cytokines that travel to hypothalamus to trigger fever?

A

IL-1

60
Q

Bone marrow is what kind of lymphatic organ?

A

Primary and secondary

61
Q

Describe parts of thymus and T cell populations that reside there

A

Cortical/outer/cortex region contains immature T cells.
Medulla/central region contains mature T cells that interact with APC for clonal selection

62
Q

T cell maturation occurs when?

A

During fetal development and 1-2 years after birth

63
Q

What percent T cells survive and leave thymus?

A

Only 5-10%

64
Q

List secondary lymphoid organs

A

Bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches, tonsils, appendix

65
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found?

A

Ileum of small intestine

66
Q

What happens in secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Lymphocytes interact with antigen and synthesize antibody. Trapping and concentrating antigens

67
Q

What are MALT, GALT, and BALT?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue = GI tract, salivary glands, eyes, skin
Gut-associated lymphoid tissue = Peyer’s patches
Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue = bronchial tree

68
Q

Which is the largest secondary lymphoid organ? Components? Function?

A

Spleen. White pulp (B and T cells) and red pulp (RBC and macrophages). Functions to filter dead cells and bacteria in blood

69
Q

After antigen exposure, which cells proliferate in spleen?

A

Plasma cells

70
Q

Describe parts of lymph node

A

Cortex, medulla, and outer capsule of connective tissue.

Cortex has lymphoid follicles that enlarge when stimulated with antigen

71
Q

Why do lymph nodes enlarge?

A

B cells undergo mitosis

72
Q

Describe B and T cell populations throughout lymph node

A

Mature but naive B cells undergo mitosis at germinal centers in cortex
Mature but naive T cells in paracortex
Mature and clonally selected B cells in medulla
Hilus receives antibody

73
Q

Describe fate of antigen in bloodstream

A

Antigen enters blood -> APC such as DC, macrophage, or B cell interaction in spleen -> APC interacts with T cells that lead to T and B cell activation -> acquired immune response