Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood Flashcards

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1
Q

Define blood and its 3 general functions

A

Blood is a liquid connective tissue that consists of cells surrounded by a a liquid EXC matrix called blood plasma

  1. Transportation - O2, CO2, nutrients, waste products
  2. Regulation - homeostasis, pH through buffers, body temp, water content
  3. Protection - clotting for blood loss, fight disease
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2
Q

Define interstitial fluid

A

Bathes body cells and is constantly renewed by the blood

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3
Q

Describe the physical characteristics of blood

A
  • Denser and more viscous (thicker) which a sticky feel
  • 38 deg C (1 deg higher than oral/rectal body temp)
  • Has an alkaline pH ranging from 7.35 to 7.45
  • Bright red when saturated with oxygen, dark red when unsaturated
  • Volume is 5 to 6 L in an adult male and 4 to 5 L in a female
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4
Q

Blood plasma and formed elements are the _______

A

two components of whole blood

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5
Q

Since WBC’s and platelets are denser than RBCs but less dense than plasma they form a:

a) single coat
b) inner coat
c) buffy coat

A

c) buffy coat

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6
Q

What is the composition of blood plasma?

A

91.5% water, 7% proteins, and 1.5% other solutes

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7
Q

Define plasma proteins and list them (3)

A

Proteins that are confined only to blood plasma - mostly produced by the liver

  1. Albumins: smallest and most numerous protein that maintains osmotic pressure
  2. Globulins: large proteins that produce immunoglobulins (antibodies) that help attack viruses and bacteria
  3. Fibrinogen: large proteins that platys essential role in blood clotting
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8
Q

Describe the 3 principal formed elements in the blood:

  • RBC’s
  • WBC’s
  • Platelets
A

RBCs (erythrocytes) transport oxygen from the lungs to body cells and delivery carbon dioxide from body cells to the lungs

WBCs (leukocytes) protect the body from invading pathogens and other foreign substances

Platelets do not have a nucleus and release chemicals that promote blood clotting when blood vessels are damaged - similar to thrombocytes (has a nucleus)

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9
Q

Define hematocrit

A

% of total blood volume occupied by RBCs

Normal range for adult females in 38-46% and for adults 40-54% - higher due to testosterone levels

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10
Q

What is the significant of lower-than-normal or higher-than-normal hematocrit?

A

Anemia - lower-than-normal hematocrit which can cause excessive blood loss

Polycythemia - higher-than-normal hematocrit (65% or higher) causes increased viscosity and can contribute to high BP and increased risk of stroke

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11
Q

Describe how homeopoiesis changes throughout the lifespan

A

The process by which the formed elements of blood is developed

Prior to birth it occurs in the yolk sac and later in the liver, spleen, thymus, and lymph bodes of a fetus

Last 3m prior to birth red bone marrow becomes and continues to be the primary site of homeopoiesis

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12
Q

Define red bone marrow

A

Highly vascularized connective tissue located in the microscopic spaces between trabecular of spongy bone tissue

Mainly located in the axis skeletal, pectoral and pelvic girdles, and proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur

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13
Q

Define pluripotent stem cells

A

aka hemoblasts which are derived from mesenchyme that have the capacity to develop into many different types of cells

These stem cells develop into either myeloid stem cells or lymphoid stem cells

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14
Q

Define progenitor cells

A

Developed by myeloid stem cells and no longer capable of reproducing themselves and are committed to giving rise to more specific elements of the body

Colony-forming unit—erythrocyte -> RBCs
Colony-forming unit—megakaryocyte -> platelets
Colony-forming unit—granulocyte macrophage -> eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil

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15
Q

Define precursor cells

A

Precurosr cells or ‘blasts’ develop from progenitor cells or lymphoid stem cells and over several cell divisions the develop into the actual formed elements of the blood

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16
Q

What are hemopoietic growth factors? Describe:

Erythropoietin (EPO)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Cytokines

A

They regulate the differentiation and proliferation of particular progenitor cells

EPO increases the number of RBC precursors and is primarily produced by cells located between the kidney tubules - low EPO decreases ability of transportation of oxygen and nutrients

TPO is produced in the liver and stimulates the formation of platelets from megakaryocytes

Cytokines are small glycoproteins that act as local hormones stimulating proliferation of progenitor cells in red bone marrow to regulate activities of cells in immune responses

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17
Q

What are the two important families of cytokines that stimulate WBC formation?

A

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) and interleukins

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18
Q

Which oxygen-carrying proteins in RBCs give whole blood its red colour?

A

Hemoglobin

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19
Q

Describe the anatomy of RBCs

A

They are biconcave discs that have a strong and flexible plasma membrane that allows them to deform without rupturing as they squeeze through narrow blood capillaries

They lack a nucleus and other organelles can neither reproduce or carry on extensive metabolic activities

Their cytosol contains hemoglobin molecules that are synthesized before the loss of nucleus during RBC production

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20
Q

RBCs generate ATP:

A) aerobically
B) anaerobically

A

B) anaerobically

Which is why they do both use up any of the oxygen they transport

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21
Q

Describe the components and physiology of a hemoglobin molecule

A

Each RBC contains about 280 million hemoglobin molecules

It consists of a protein called globin that has 4 polypeptide chains that has a ringlike nonprotein called heme bound to each of the 4 chains

At the center of each heme is an iron ion that can combine reversibly with one oxygen molecule, allowing each hemoglobin molecule to attach to 4 oxygen molecule and then reverses as oxygen is delivered to tissues

Hemoglobin picks up carbon dioxide which is relaased into lungs for exhalation

Hemoglobin regulates nitric oxide (NO) as it binds to hemoglobin and when released causes vasodilation to improve blood flow

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22
Q

Describe how RBCs are recycled (9 steps)

A
  1. RBCs only last ~120 days as wear and tear cause them to burst and are removed from circulation by fixed phagocytic macrogphases in spleen, liver, or red bone marrow
  2. Globulin and heme protons are split apart
  3. Globulin is broken down into amino acids, which can be reused to synthesize other proteins
  4. Iron is removed from the heme as Fe3+, which associates with the plasma protein transferrin, a transporter for Fe3+ in the bloodstream
  5. In muscle fiers, liver cells, and macrophages of liver and spleen, Fe3+ detaches from transferrin and attaches to an iron-storage protein called ferritin
  6. On release from a storage site or absorption from the GI tract, Fe3+ reattaches to transferrin and is carries to red bone marrow, where RBC precursor cells take it up through endocytosis for hemoglobin synthesis, needed for the heme portion
  7. Erythropoiesis in red bone marrow results in the production of RBCs, which enter into circulation
  8. When iron is removed from heme, the non-iron portion of heme is covered to biliverdin (green pigment) and bilirubin (yellow pigment)
  9. Bilirubin enters blood and is transported to the liver where it is released into bile, passed through the small intestine into the large intestinewehre is it covered into urobilogen and excreted in urine or in faces in the form of stercobilin
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23
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoiesis is the production of RBCs which starts in red bone marrow with a precursor cell called a proerythroblast that divides several times, producing cells that begin to synthesize hemoglobin

A cell near the end of the development sequence ejects its nucleus and becomes a reticulocyte where the center of the cell begins to develop its biconcave shape

They pass from red bone marrow into the bloodstream by squeezing between the endothelial cells of blood capillaries and develop into mature RBCs within 1 to 2 days after their release from red bone marrow

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24
Q

Define hypoxia

A

Cellular oxygen deficiency that occurs in their is too little oxygen entering the blood such as during anemia, associated with low hematocrit

Whatever the cause, hypoxia stimulates the kidneys to step up the release of erythropoietin, which speeds the development of proerythoblasts into reticulocytes in the red bone marrow

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25
Q

What factors speed up and slow down erythropoiesis?

A

There is a negative feedback regulation of erythropoisesis

Lower oxygen content of air at high altitudes, anemia, and circulatory problems may reduce oxygen delivery to the body which is detected bye kidney cells

This increases erythropoietin secretion into blood received by the control corer causing the release of reticulocytes into the blood which increases oxygen delivery

Kidneys detect this increase oxygen and reduce the erythropoietin secretion

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26
Q

How do white blood cells differ from RBCs?

A

Unlike RBCs, WBC’s have a nuclei and a full complement of other organelles but lack hemoglobin

They are considered granular or granular depending on whether they contain conspicuous chemical-filled cytoplasmic granules

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27
Q

What are the 3 types of granular leukocytes?

A

Neutrophil - smallest granules, evenly distributed, they have an acidic (red) or basic (blue) stain, 2-5 lobe nucleus

Eosinophil - large, uniformed-sized granules that have a red-orange acidic stain, 2 lobe nucleus

Basophil - round, variable-sized granules have blue-purple basic stain, 2 lob nucleus

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28
Q

What are the 2 types of agranular leukocytes?

A

Lymphocyte - nucleus stain dark and is round or slightly indented while the cytoplasm stains sky blue, they vary in sizes and the large the more cytoplasm, increased size indicated viral infections/autoimmune deficiency

Monocyte - kidney shaped nucleus and cytoplasm is blue-grey and has a foamy appearance, they wanted into blood/tissue and become macrophages

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29
Q

What is the difference between fixed and wandering macrophages?

A

Fixed - they reside in a particular tissue

Wandering - they roam the tissues and gather at sites of infection/inflammation

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30
Q

Describe major histocompatibility (MHC) antigens

A

WBCs and other nucleated cells have MHC proteins protruding from their membranes

They cell identity markers are unique to each person (except MZ twins)

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31
Q

Leukocytosis vs. leukopenia

A

Leukocytosis - A normal and adaptive increase in WBCs above 10,000ul in the presence of stressors

Leukopenia - abnormally low level of WBCs (below 5,000ul) which may be caused by radiation or chemotherapeutic agents

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32
Q

Describe emigration

A

It is the way WBCs leave the blood stream - they roll along the endothelium stick to it, and then squeeze between endothelial cells

Once granular leukocytes leave the bloodstream they never return but lymphocytes continually recirculate

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33
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Chemicals that area released by microbes and inflamed tissues that attract phagocytes that ingest bacteria and dispose of dead matter

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34
Q

How do neutrophils carry out phagocytosis?

A

They engulf a pathogen and unleash several chemicals to destroy the pathogen

Chemicals include lysozyme, strong oxidants, and defensins (proteins)

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35
Q

What is the significance of high and low blood cell counts of the following WBC’s?

Neutrophils 
Lymphocytes 
Monocytes 
Eosonphils 
Basophils
A

Neutrophils: high = bacterial infections/stress; low = radiation exposure/drug toxicity

Lymphocytes: high = viral infeactions/leukemia; low = prolonged illness/HIV

Monocytes: high = viral/fungal infections/TB; low = bone marrow suppression

Eosonphils: = allergic reaction/parasitic infection; low = drug toxicity/stress

Basophils: allergic reaction/leukemia; low = pregnancy/ovulation/stress

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36
Q

What is the origin and function of platelets?

A

Under the influence of thrombopoietin, myeloid cells develop into megakarocyte colony-forming cells that develop into precursor cells called megakaryoblasts, that transform into meagakaryoctes what have has many fragments, each enclosed by a plasma membrane called a platelet

They form a platelet plug in hemostasis; release chemicals that promote vascular spasm and blood clotting and live 5-9 days

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37
Q

What is the clinical significant of a complete blood count (CBC)?

A

CBC is a test that screens for anemia and various infections

It includes counts of RBCs, WBCs, platelets, heatocrit, differential WBC count

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38
Q

Describe the 3 mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis

A
  1. Vascular spasm - the smooth muscles in the walls of damaged arteries/arterioles contract to reduce blood loss for several minutes/hours
  2. Platelet plug formation - platelet adhesion (platelets stick to damaged blood vessel); platelet release reaction (adhesion activates platelets and they extend projections allowing them to interaction with each other and they liberate ADP, 5-HT, thromboxane A2); platelet aggregation (ADP makes other platelets sticky and they adhere to the originally activated platelets), this aggregation forms a plug
  3. Blood clotting - the process of gel formation of the blood is called clotting or coagulation
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39
Q

What is serum?

A

When gel separates form the liquid, the liquid is serum - blood plasma minus clotting proteins

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40
Q

Define hemorrhage

A

The loss of a large amount of blood from the vessels

Hemostsisi is a sequence of responses that stops bleeding to prevent hemorrhage

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41
Q

Define thrombosis

A

Clotting of an undamaged blood vessel

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42
Q

What are coagulation factors?

A

Calcium ions, several inactive enzymes synthesized by hepatocytes and released into bloodstream, as well as various molecules associated with platelets or released by damaged tissues

They are identified by roman numerals

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43
Q

What are the 3 stages of clotting?

A
  1. The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways lead to the formation of prothrombinase
  2. Prothrombinase converts prothrombin (plasma protein from liver) into the enzyme thrombin
  3. Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin which forms the thread of the clot
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44
Q

What is the difference between the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway of blood clotting?

A

Extrinsic - occurs rapidly in response to tissue trauma, tissue factor (TF) or thromboplastin leaks into the blood from cells outside the blood vessels and in the presence of Ca2+ it activated clotting factor X which initiates the formation of prothrombinase

Intrinsic - occurs more slowly in response to blood trauma, where endothelial cells come in contact with collagen fibres which activates collating factor XII which imitates a sequence that eventually activates clotting factor X to form prothrombinase. Additionally activated platelets release phospholipids and Ca2+ that activate factor X.

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45
Q

What is the common pathway in blood clotting?

A

The formation of prothombinase marks the beginning of the common pathway

prothombinase and Ca2+ catalyze the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, which in the presence of Ca2+ converts fibrinogen which is soluble to loos fibrin which is non-soluble

Thrombin also activates factor XIII which strengthens and stabilizes the fibrin threads into a sturdy clot

Thrombin has 2 positive feedback loops: thrombin accelerates formation of prothrombinase which accelerates the production of more thrombin; thrombin activates platelets, which reinforces their aggregation and the release of phospholipids

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46
Q

What is clot retraction?

A

Consolidation or tightening of the fibrin clot, slowly pulling the edges of the damaged vessel closer together

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47
Q

What role does vitamin K play in clotting?

A

Although not involved in actual clot formation, it is required for the synthesis of 4 clotting factors

Thus vit. K deficiency is associated with uncontrolled bleeding

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48
Q

What is the fibrinolytic system?

A

It dissolves small, inappropriate clots and dissolves clots at site of damage once it is repaired

Dissolution of a clot is called fibrinolysis

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49
Q

Define plasminogen

A

It is an inactive plasma enzyme that is incorporated into the clot that can be activated into plasmin by thrombin, activated factor XII, and tissue plasminogen activator

Once activated, it can dissolve the clot by digesting fibrin threads and inactivating substances

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50
Q

List and describe anticoagulants

A

An anticoagulant can delay/supress/prevent blood clotting

Antithrombin - blocks the action of XII, X, and II

Heparin - produced by mast cells and basophils that combines with antithrombin and increases its effectiveness in blocking thrombin

Activated protein C (APC) - inactivates the 2 major clotting factors not blocked by antithrombin

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51
Q

Define each of the following terms: thrombosis, thrombus, embolus, pulmonary embolism

A

All involves in intravascular clotting as thrombosis is clotting in an unbroken blood vessel resulting from things such as atherosclerosis or infection

Thrombus - blood clot
Embolus - a blot clot transported by the blood stream
Pulmonary embolism - embolus lodges in the lungs

52
Q

How is blood categorized into different blood groups?

A

It is based on the presence or absence of various antigens which are composed of glycoproteins and glycolipids - these antigens are called agglutinogens

53
Q

Describe eh difference between A, B, AB, and O blood types

A

Type A - RBCs only display antigen A
Type B - RBCs only display antigen B
Type AB - RBCs display antigen A & B
Type O - RBCs display neither antigen A or B

54
Q

Describe anti A and anti B antibodies

A

People have antibodies for any antigens that your RBC lacks

Thus if you are type A you have anti B antibodies and cannot receive a blood transfusion from anyone besides type A blood or agglutination (clumping) will occur causing hemolysis of the RBCs, liberating hemoglobin that may cause kidney damage

55
Q

Why is type O blood considered universal recipients/donors?

A

Because they lack antibodies for the ABO blood group and thus can give or receive any blood type

However, this is misleading as they can contain antibodies for other groups

56
Q

What is the difference between a person who is Rh+ and Rh-

A

Rh+ have RBCs with an Rh antigen and Rh- do not

If a person who is Rh- receives blood from an Rh+ they will being to make anti-Rh antibodies and thus is there is a second transfusion agglutination and hemolysis will occur

57
Q

Describe hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

A

If Rh+ blood leaks from fetus into Rh- mother, the mother will begin to make anti-Rh antibodies (typically at delivery)

In a second pregnancy, the anti-Rh antibodies can cross the placenta of the fetus and if that baby is Rh+ agglutination and hemolysis may occur in the fetal blood

anti-Rh gamma globulin injection can prevent HDN

58
Q

Define anemia

A

Oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced due to insufficient iron, inadequate B12 or follicular acid hefopoises, excessive loss of RBCs through bleeding, RBC ruptures, deficient hemoglobin synthesis, or destruction of red bone marrow

59
Q

Define sickle cell disease

A

RBCs contain Hb-S, an abnormal kind of hemoglobin that bind the erythrocyte into a sickle shape, allowing them to rupture easily

60
Q

Define hemophilia

A

An inherited deficiency of clotting which which bleeding may occur spontaneously or after only minor trauma

61
Q

Define leukemia

A

A group of red bone marrow cancers in which abnormal WBCs multiple uncontrollably accumulating in red bone marrow and interfering with the production of RBCs, WBCs and platelets

62
Q

Define cyanosis

A

blue/purple skin discoularation due to increased quantity of methemoglobin, hemoglobin not combined with oxygen in blood

63
Q

Define jaundice

A

Yellowish discolouration of eyes, skin, and mucous membrane due to excess bilirubin

64
Q

Define septicemia

A

Toxins or disease-causing bacteria in the blood aka blood poisoning

65
Q

Aplastic anemia is caused by

A) premature rupture of red blood cells
B) excessive loss of red blood cells
C) destruction of red bone marrow
D) deficient production of hemoglobin

A

C) destruction of red bone marrow

66
Q

Which portion of the hemoglobin molecule combines to oxygen?

A) heme
B) beta chain of globin
C) alpha chain of globin
D) iron

A

D) iron

67
Q

Small glycoproteins that are responsible for regulating the development of different blood cell types are called

A) stem cells.
B) cytokines.
C) enzymes.
D) hormones.

A

B) cytokines.

68
Q

In the process of platelet formation, which of the following are the precursor cells that megakaryocyte colony-forming cells develop into?

A) megakaryocytes
B) megakaryoblasts
C) thrombocytes
D) myeloid cells

A

B) megakaryoblasts

69
Q

Graft-versus-host-disease is caused by

A) a lack of healthy white blood cells
B) a lack of healthy red blood cells
C) donor white blood cells attacking host tissue
D) host white blood cells attacking donor tissue

A

C) donor white blood cells attacking host tissue

70
Q

An individual with red blood cells that display the B antigen has

type O blood
type A blood
type AB blood
type B blood

A

type B blood

71
Q

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils have which of the following characteristic in common?

release histamine
agranular
phagocytic
multi-lobed nucleus

A

multi-lobed nucleus

72
Q

Which clotting factor strengthens and stabilizes fibrin threads into a sturdy clot?

XIII
V
XI
X

A

XIII

73
Q

In centrifuged blood, the buffy coat consists of

platelets only
red blood cells and platelets
white blood cells only
white blood cells and platelets

A

white blood cells and platelets

74
Q

How long can stem cells from the umbilical cord be stored in cord-blood banks?

Indefinitely
3-6 months
Up to 20 years
Up to 10 years

A

Indefinitely

75
Q

Stem cells for a cord-blood transplant are collected from the

amniotic fluid
umbilical cord
placenta
chorionic villi

A

umbilical cord

76
Q

An alternative to a bone marrow transplant that has many advantages is

yoga
medication
hormone therapy
cord-blood transport

A

cord-blood transport

77
Q

Platelets are fragments of

monocytes.
erythrocytes.
megakaryocytes.
clots.

A

megakaryocytes.

78
Q

Platelets have a life span of 5-9

days.
weeks.
months.
hours.

A

days.

79
Q

The hormone _____ influences the development of megakaryocte colony-forming units

A

thrombopoietin

80
Q

Low counts of _______ may indicate prolonged illness, HIV infection, or immunosuppression.

lymphocytes
eosinophils
basophils
neutrophils

A

lymphocytes

81
Q

Which lymphocyte attacks spontaneously developing tumor cells?

B cells and T cells
Natural killer cells
T cells
B cells

A

Natural killer cells

82
Q

Which lymphocytes develop into plasma cells that produce antibodies?

T cells
Natural killer cells
T cells and natural killer cells
B cells

A

B cells

83
Q

Which of the following leukocytes is agranular?

eosinophils
lymphocytes
neutrophils
basophils

A

lymphocytes

84
Q

Which leukocyte(s) develop from lymphoid stem cells?

neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils
monocytes
lymphocytes
A

lymphocytes

85
Q

How does the amount of red bone marrow change as a person ages, so long as the person is reasonably healthy?

Levels remain approximately the same.
Levels increase.
Levels change unpredictably.
Levels decrease.

A

Levels decrease.

86
Q

Bone tissue stores up to 99% of total body

potassium.
sodium.
calcium.
protein.

A

calcium.

87
Q

Destruction of yellow bone marrow will directly affect

red blood cell production.
triglyceride storage.
macrophage storage.
white blood cell production.

A

triglyceride storage.

88
Q

Which plasma protein is required for blood clotting?

fibrinogen
albumin
alpha and beta globulins
immunoglobulins

A

fibrinogen

89
Q

Which is the average normal hematocrit for adult females?

47%
52%
30%
42%

A

42%

90
Q

Blood makes up ______ percent of total body mass.

6
12
8
10

A

8

91
Q

Regulatory substances in the blood plasma consist of

hormones
vitamins
All of the choices are correct.
enzymes

A

All of the choices are correct.

92
Q

Erythropoietin is produced by cells in the

liver.
spleen.
kidneys.
red bone marrow.

A

kidneys.

93
Q

Pluripotent stems cells are also called

megakaryoblasts
hemocytoblasts
osteoblasts
myeloblasts

A

hemocytoblasts

94
Q

After birth, hemopoiesis occurs only in the

spleen
lymph nodes
red bone marrow
liver

A

red bone marrow

95
Q

Pluripotent stem cells in red bone marrow produce two types of cells called

myeloid and lymphoid stem cells.
reticulocytes and lymphoblasts.
myeloid stem cells and lymphoblasts.
myeloblasts and lymphoblasts.

A

myeloid and lymphoid stem cells.

96
Q

Colony-forming units are ___________ cells.

progenitor
precursor
blast
myeloblast

A

progenitor

97
Q

Before birth, hemopoiesis first occurs in the __________ of the embryo.

allantois
amniotic cavity
chorion
yolk sac

A

yolk sac

98
Q

Thrombopoietin is produced by cells in the

kidneys
red bone marrow
liver
spleen

A

liver

99
Q

Which of the following represents normal hemoglobin values for adult males?

13.5 to 18 g/100 ml
14 to 20 g/100 ml
12 to 16 g/100 ml
8 to 12 g/100 ml

A

13.5 to 18 g/100 ml

100
Q

Which of the following represents normal hemoglobin values for adult females?

8 to 12 g/100 ml
14 to 20 g/100 ml
12 to 16 g/100 ml
13.5 to 18 g/100 ml

A

12 to 16 g/100 ml

101
Q

Which of the following is a function of platelets during hemostasis?

releasing chemicals to promote blood clotting
producing a platelet plug
releasing chemicals to promote vascular spasm
all of the choices are correct

A

all of the choices are correct

102
Q

A patient with a deficiency in which of the following hormones is likely to suffer from a blood clotting disorder?

EPO (erythropoietin)
cytokines
TPO (thrombopoietin)
CSF (colony-stimulating factor)

A

TPO (thrombopoietin)

103
Q

In children, bone marrow samples are usually taken from the

humerus and femur
sternum and hip bone
sternum and ribs
vertebra and tibia

A

vertebra and tibia

104
Q

Lymphoid stem cells complete development in the

red bone marrow
liver
lymphoid tissues
yellow bone marrow

A

lymphoid tissues

105
Q

Erythropoietin promotes the division of __________________ in red bone marrow.

progenitor cells
proerythroblasts
reticulocytes
erythrocytes

A

proerythroblasts

106
Q

In a normal blood sample, reticulocytes make up _____________ of all red blood cells.

over 5 %
1 to 2 %
less than 0.5 %
0.5 to 1.5 %

A

0.5 to 1.5 %

107
Q

In the blood, released nitric oxide binds to

iron.
hemoglobin.
red blood cells.
heme groups.

A

hemoglobin.

108
Q

Hypoxia will stimulate ____________ to release erythropoietin.

the kidneys
the lungs
the liver
the red bone marrow

A

the kidneys

109
Q

Which of following is not a clotting factors found in platelets?

serotonin
ATP
Ca2+
fibrinogen

A

fibrinogen

110
Q

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the formation of a platelet plug.

A) platelet release reaction, platelet aggregation, platelet adhesion, platelet plug

B) platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, platelet aggregation, platelet plug

C) platelet aggregation, platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, platelet plug

D) platelet plug, platelet adhesion, platelet aggregation, platelet release reaction

A

B) platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, platelet aggregation, platelet plug

111
Q

Which anticoagulant acts as an antagonist to Vitamin K?

antithrombin
activated protein C
warfarin
prostacyclin

A

warfarin`

112
Q

When a vessel is damaged, the first response is

platelet aggregation
platelet adhesion
a vascular spasm
a platelet plug

A

a vascular spasm

113
Q

Which mechanisms are involved in reducing blood loss?

coagulation
All of the choices are correct.
platelet plug
vascular spasm

A

All of the choices are correct.

114
Q

An individual with type AB blood can receive blood transfusions of which type(s)?

all choices are correct
type B
type O
type A

A

all choices are correct

115
Q

In ABO blood typing, if no agglutination occurs when both anti-A serum and anti-B serum drops are mixed with the blood, then the individual has

type A blood
type O blood
type B blood
type AB blood

A

type O blood

116
Q

In ABO blood typing, if agglutination occurs only when anti-B serum is mixed with the blood, then the individual has

type AB blood
type A blood
type B blood
type O blood

A

type B blood

117
Q

In ABO blood typing, if agglutination occurs only when anti-A serum is mixed with blood, then the individual has

type B blood
type O blood
type AB blood
type A blood

A

type A blood

118
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can only be a factor if

the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh-
the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh-
the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh+
the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh+

A

the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh+

119
Q

An individual with type AB blood has

anti-B antibodies
both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
anti-A antibodies
neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

A

neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

120
Q

Which of the following is not a treatment for sickle-cell disease?

blood transfusion
antibiotics
desmopressin
fluid therapy

A

desmopressin

121
Q

A person with sickle-cell disease has an abnormal kind of

fibrinogen.
antibody.
hemoglobin.
albumin.

A

hemoglobin.

122
Q

rder for a person to have sickle-cell disease, they need

two defective genes for hemoglobin
one normal gene and one defective gene for hemoglobin
only one defective gene for a clotting factor
only one defective gene for erythropoietin

A

two defective genes for hemoglobin

123
Q

Once a bone marrow transplant has occurred, how long does it take to produce enough white blood cells to protect against infection?

2 to 3 months
2 to 3 weeks
2 to 3 days
120 days

A

2 to 3 weeks

124
Q

Which of the following cannot be treated with a bone marrow transplant?

aplastic anemia
Hodgkin’s disease
thalassemia
hemophilia

A

hemophilia

125
Q

The most common site to remove bone marrow from a donor is

ribs
vertebrae
iliac crest of the hip
sternum

A

iliac crest of the hip

126
Q

Which leukemia occurs mostly in adults over the age of 55?

acute lymphoblastic leukemia
acute myelogenous leukemia
chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

127
Q

Which parts of the world have high incidences of sickle-cell disease?

Eastern Europe
Central America and South America
Africa, Asia and Mediterranean Europe
North America

A

Africa, Asia and Mediterranean Europe