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BIO 235 Final > Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood > Flashcards

Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood Flashcards

1
Q

Define blood and its 3 general functions

A

Blood is a liquid connective tissue that consists of cells surrounded by a a liquid EXC matrix called blood plasma

  1. Transportation - O2, CO2, nutrients, waste products
  2. Regulation - homeostasis, pH through buffers, body temp, water content
  3. Protection - clotting for blood loss, fight disease
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2
Q

Define interstitial fluid

A

Bathes body cells and is constantly renewed by the blood

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3
Q

Describe the physical characteristics of blood

A
  • Denser and more viscous (thicker) which a sticky feel
  • 38 deg C (1 deg higher than oral/rectal body temp)
  • Has an alkaline pH ranging from 7.35 to 7.45
  • Bright red when saturated with oxygen, dark red when unsaturated
  • Volume is 5 to 6 L in an adult male and 4 to 5 L in a female
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4
Q

Blood plasma and formed elements are the _______

A

two components of whole blood

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5
Q

Since WBC’s and platelets are denser than RBCs but less dense than plasma they form a:

a) single coat
b) inner coat
c) buffy coat

A

c) buffy coat

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6
Q

What is the composition of blood plasma?

A

91.5% water, 7% proteins, and 1.5% other solutes

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7
Q

Define plasma proteins and list them (3)

A

Proteins that are confined only to blood plasma - mostly produced by the liver

  1. Albumins: smallest and most numerous protein that maintains osmotic pressure
  2. Globulins: large proteins that produce immunoglobulins (antibodies) that help attack viruses and bacteria
  3. Fibrinogen: large proteins that platys essential role in blood clotting
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8
Q

Describe the 3 principal formed elements in the blood:

  • RBC’s
  • WBC’s
  • Platelets
A

RBCs (erythrocytes) transport oxygen from the lungs to body cells and delivery carbon dioxide from body cells to the lungs

WBCs (leukocytes) protect the body from invading pathogens and other foreign substances

Platelets do not have a nucleus and release chemicals that promote blood clotting when blood vessels are damaged - similar to thrombocytes (has a nucleus)

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9
Q

Define hematocrit

A

% of total blood volume occupied by RBCs

Normal range for adult females in 38-46% and for adults 40-54% - higher due to testosterone levels

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10
Q

What is the significant of lower-than-normal or higher-than-normal hematocrit?

A

Anemia - lower-than-normal hematocrit which can cause excessive blood loss

Polycythemia - higher-than-normal hematocrit (65% or higher) causes increased viscosity and can contribute to high BP and increased risk of stroke

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11
Q

Describe how homeopoiesis changes throughout the lifespan

A

The process by which the formed elements of blood is developed

Prior to birth it occurs in the yolk sac and later in the liver, spleen, thymus, and lymph bodes of a fetus

Last 3m prior to birth red bone marrow becomes and continues to be the primary site of homeopoiesis

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12
Q

Define red bone marrow

A

Highly vascularized connective tissue located in the microscopic spaces between trabecular of spongy bone tissue

Mainly located in the axis skeletal, pectoral and pelvic girdles, and proximal epiphyses of the humerus and femur

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13
Q

Define pluripotent stem cells

A

aka hemoblasts which are derived from mesenchyme that have the capacity to develop into many different types of cells

These stem cells develop into either myeloid stem cells or lymphoid stem cells

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14
Q

Define progenitor cells

A

Developed by myeloid stem cells and no longer capable of reproducing themselves and are committed to giving rise to more specific elements of the body

Colony-forming unit—erythrocyte -> RBCs
Colony-forming unit—megakaryocyte -> platelets
Colony-forming unit—granulocyte macrophage -> eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil

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15
Q

Define precursor cells

A

Precurosr cells or ‘blasts’ develop from progenitor cells or lymphoid stem cells and over several cell divisions the develop into the actual formed elements of the blood

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16
Q

What are hemopoietic growth factors? Describe:

Erythropoietin (EPO)
Thrombopoietin (TPO)
Cytokines

A

They regulate the differentiation and proliferation of particular progenitor cells

EPO increases the number of RBC precursors and is primarily produced by cells located between the kidney tubules - low EPO decreases ability of transportation of oxygen and nutrients

TPO is produced in the liver and stimulates the formation of platelets from megakaryocytes

Cytokines are small glycoproteins that act as local hormones stimulating proliferation of progenitor cells in red bone marrow to regulate activities of cells in immune responses

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17
Q

What are the two important families of cytokines that stimulate WBC formation?

A

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) and interleukins

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18
Q

Which oxygen-carrying proteins in RBCs give whole blood its red colour?

A

Hemoglobin

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19
Q

Describe the anatomy of RBCs

A

They are biconcave discs that have a strong and flexible plasma membrane that allows them to deform without rupturing as they squeeze through narrow blood capillaries

They lack a nucleus and other organelles can neither reproduce or carry on extensive metabolic activities

Their cytosol contains hemoglobin molecules that are synthesized before the loss of nucleus during RBC production

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20
Q

RBCs generate ATP:

A) aerobically
B) anaerobically

A

B) anaerobically

Which is why they do both use up any of the oxygen they transport

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21
Q

Describe the components and physiology of a hemoglobin molecule

A

Each RBC contains about 280 million hemoglobin molecules

It consists of a protein called globin that has 4 polypeptide chains that has a ringlike nonprotein called heme bound to each of the 4 chains

At the center of each heme is an iron ion that can combine reversibly with one oxygen molecule, allowing each hemoglobin molecule to attach to 4 oxygen molecule and then reverses as oxygen is delivered to tissues

Hemoglobin picks up carbon dioxide which is relaased into lungs for exhalation

Hemoglobin regulates nitric oxide (NO) as it binds to hemoglobin and when released causes vasodilation to improve blood flow

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22
Q

Describe how RBCs are recycled (9 steps)

A
  1. RBCs only last ~120 days as wear and tear cause them to burst and are removed from circulation by fixed phagocytic macrogphases in spleen, liver, or red bone marrow
  2. Globulin and heme protons are split apart
  3. Globulin is broken down into amino acids, which can be reused to synthesize other proteins
  4. Iron is removed from the heme as Fe3+, which associates with the plasma protein transferrin, a transporter for Fe3+ in the bloodstream
  5. In muscle fiers, liver cells, and macrophages of liver and spleen, Fe3+ detaches from transferrin and attaches to an iron-storage protein called ferritin
  6. On release from a storage site or absorption from the GI tract, Fe3+ reattaches to transferrin and is carries to red bone marrow, where RBC precursor cells take it up through endocytosis for hemoglobin synthesis, needed for the heme portion
  7. Erythropoiesis in red bone marrow results in the production of RBCs, which enter into circulation
  8. When iron is removed from heme, the non-iron portion of heme is covered to biliverdin (green pigment) and bilirubin (yellow pigment)
  9. Bilirubin enters blood and is transported to the liver where it is released into bile, passed through the small intestine into the large intestinewehre is it covered into urobilogen and excreted in urine or in faces in the form of stercobilin
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23
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoiesis is the production of RBCs which starts in red bone marrow with a precursor cell called a proerythroblast that divides several times, producing cells that begin to synthesize hemoglobin

A cell near the end of the development sequence ejects its nucleus and becomes a reticulocyte where the center of the cell begins to develop its biconcave shape

They pass from red bone marrow into the bloodstream by squeezing between the endothelial cells of blood capillaries and develop into mature RBCs within 1 to 2 days after their release from red bone marrow

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24
Q

Define hypoxia

A

Cellular oxygen deficiency that occurs in their is too little oxygen entering the blood such as during anemia, associated with low hematocrit

Whatever the cause, hypoxia stimulates the kidneys to step up the release of erythropoietin, which speeds the development of proerythoblasts into reticulocytes in the red bone marrow

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25
What factors speed up and slow down erythropoiesis?
There is a negative feedback regulation of erythropoisesis Lower oxygen content of air at high altitudes, anemia, and circulatory problems may reduce oxygen delivery to the body which is detected bye kidney cells This increases erythropoietin secretion into blood received by the control corer causing the release of reticulocytes into the blood which increases oxygen delivery Kidneys detect this increase oxygen and reduce the erythropoietin secretion
26
How do white blood cells differ from RBCs?
Unlike RBCs, WBC's have a nuclei and a full complement of other organelles but lack hemoglobin They are considered granular or granular depending on whether they contain conspicuous chemical-filled cytoplasmic granules
27
What are the 3 types of granular leukocytes?
Neutrophil - smallest granules, evenly distributed, they have an acidic (red) or basic (blue) stain, 2-5 lobe nucleus Eosinophil - large, uniformed-sized granules that have a red-orange acidic stain, 2 lobe nucleus Basophil - round, variable-sized granules have blue-purple basic stain, 2 lob nucleus
28
What are the 2 types of agranular leukocytes?
Lymphocyte - nucleus stain dark and is round or slightly indented while the cytoplasm stains sky blue, they vary in sizes and the large the more cytoplasm, increased size indicated viral infections/autoimmune deficiency Monocyte - kidney shaped nucleus and cytoplasm is blue-grey and has a foamy appearance, they wanted into blood/tissue and become macrophages
29
What is the difference between fixed and wandering macrophages?
Fixed - they reside in a particular tissue | Wandering - they roam the tissues and gather at sites of infection/inflammation
30
Describe major histocompatibility (MHC) antigens
WBCs and other nucleated cells have MHC proteins protruding from their membranes They cell identity markers are unique to each person (except MZ twins)
31
Leukocytosis vs. leukopenia
Leukocytosis - A normal and adaptive increase in WBCs above 10,000ul in the presence of stressors Leukopenia - abnormally low level of WBCs (below 5,000ul) which may be caused by radiation or chemotherapeutic agents
32
Describe emigration
It is the way WBCs leave the blood stream - they roll along the endothelium stick to it, and then squeeze between endothelial cells Once granular leukocytes leave the bloodstream they never return but lymphocytes continually recirculate
33
What is chemotaxis?
Chemicals that area released by microbes and inflamed tissues that attract phagocytes that ingest bacteria and dispose of dead matter
34
How do neutrophils carry out phagocytosis?
They engulf a pathogen and unleash several chemicals to destroy the pathogen Chemicals include lysozyme, strong oxidants, and defensins (proteins)
35
What is the significance of high and low blood cell counts of the following WBC's? ``` Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosonphils Basophils ```
Neutrophils: high = bacterial infections/stress; low = radiation exposure/drug toxicity Lymphocytes: high = viral infeactions/leukemia; low = prolonged illness/HIV Monocytes: high = viral/fungal infections/TB; low = bone marrow suppression Eosonphils: = allergic reaction/parasitic infection; low = drug toxicity/stress Basophils: allergic reaction/leukemia; low = pregnancy/ovulation/stress
36
What is the origin and function of platelets?
Under the influence of thrombopoietin, myeloid cells develop into megakarocyte colony-forming cells that develop into precursor cells called megakaryoblasts, that transform into meagakaryoctes what have has many fragments, each enclosed by a plasma membrane called a platelet They form a platelet plug in hemostasis; release chemicals that promote vascular spasm and blood clotting and live 5-9 days
37
What is the clinical significant of a complete blood count (CBC)?
CBC is a test that screens for anemia and various infections It includes counts of RBCs, WBCs, platelets, heatocrit, differential WBC count
38
Describe the 3 mechanisms that contribute to hemostasis
1. Vascular spasm - the smooth muscles in the walls of damaged arteries/arterioles contract to reduce blood loss for several minutes/hours 2. Platelet plug formation - platelet adhesion (platelets stick to damaged blood vessel); platelet release reaction (adhesion activates platelets and they extend projections allowing them to interaction with each other and they liberate ADP, 5-HT, thromboxane A2); platelet aggregation (ADP makes other platelets sticky and they adhere to the originally activated platelets), this aggregation forms a plug 3. Blood clotting - the process of gel formation of the blood is called clotting or coagulation
39
What is serum?
When gel separates form the liquid, the liquid is serum - blood plasma minus clotting proteins
40
Define hemorrhage
The loss of a large amount of blood from the vessels Hemostsisi is a sequence of responses that stops bleeding to prevent hemorrhage
41
Define thrombosis
Clotting of an undamaged blood vessel
42
What are coagulation factors?
Calcium ions, several inactive enzymes synthesized by hepatocytes and released into bloodstream, as well as various molecules associated with platelets or released by damaged tissues They are identified by roman numerals
43
What are the 3 stages of clotting?
1. The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways lead to the formation of prothrombinase 2. Prothrombinase converts prothrombin (plasma protein from liver) into the enzyme thrombin 3. Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin which forms the thread of the clot
44
What is the difference between the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
Extrinsic - occurs rapidly in response to tissue trauma, tissue factor (TF) or thromboplastin leaks into the blood from cells outside the blood vessels and in the presence of Ca2+ it activated clotting factor X which initiates the formation of prothrombinase Intrinsic - occurs more slowly in response to blood trauma, where endothelial cells come in contact with collagen fibres which activates collating factor XII which imitates a sequence that eventually activates clotting factor X to form prothrombinase. Additionally activated platelets release phospholipids and Ca2+ that activate factor X.
45
What is the common pathway in blood clotting?
The formation of prothombinase marks the beginning of the common pathway prothombinase and Ca2+ catalyze the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, which in the presence of Ca2+ converts fibrinogen which is soluble to loos fibrin which is non-soluble Thrombin also activates factor XIII which strengthens and stabilizes the fibrin threads into a sturdy clot Thrombin has 2 positive feedback loops: thrombin accelerates formation of prothrombinase which accelerates the production of more thrombin; thrombin activates platelets, which reinforces their aggregation and the release of phospholipids
46
What is clot retraction?
Consolidation or tightening of the fibrin clot, slowly pulling the edges of the damaged vessel closer together
47
What role does vitamin K play in clotting?
Although not involved in actual clot formation, it is required for the synthesis of 4 clotting factors Thus vit. K deficiency is associated with uncontrolled bleeding
48
What is the fibrinolytic system?
It dissolves small, inappropriate clots and dissolves clots at site of damage once it is repaired Dissolution of a clot is called fibrinolysis
49
Define plasminogen
It is an inactive plasma enzyme that is incorporated into the clot that can be activated into plasmin by thrombin, activated factor XII, and tissue plasminogen activator Once activated, it can dissolve the clot by digesting fibrin threads and inactivating substances
50
List and describe anticoagulants
An anticoagulant can delay/supress/prevent blood clotting Antithrombin - blocks the action of XII, X, and II Heparin - produced by mast cells and basophils that combines with antithrombin and increases its effectiveness in blocking thrombin Activated protein C (APC) - inactivates the 2 major clotting factors not blocked by antithrombin
51
Define each of the following terms: thrombosis, thrombus, embolus, pulmonary embolism
All involves in intravascular clotting as thrombosis is clotting in an unbroken blood vessel resulting from things such as atherosclerosis or infection Thrombus - blood clot Embolus - a blot clot transported by the blood stream Pulmonary embolism - embolus lodges in the lungs
52
How is blood categorized into different blood groups?
It is based on the presence or absence of various antigens which are composed of glycoproteins and glycolipids - these antigens are called agglutinogens
53
Describe eh difference between A, B, AB, and O blood types
Type A - RBCs only display antigen A Type B - RBCs only display antigen B Type AB - RBCs display antigen A & B Type O - RBCs display neither antigen A or B
54
Describe anti A and anti B antibodies
People have antibodies for any antigens that your RBC lacks Thus if you are type A you have anti B antibodies and cannot receive a blood transfusion from anyone besides type A blood or agglutination (clumping) will occur causing hemolysis of the RBCs, liberating hemoglobin that may cause kidney damage
55
Why is type O blood considered universal recipients/donors?
Because they lack antibodies for the ABO blood group and thus can give or receive any blood type However, this is misleading as they can contain antibodies for other groups
56
What is the difference between a person who is Rh+ and Rh-
Rh+ have RBCs with an Rh antigen and Rh- do not If a person who is Rh- receives blood from an Rh+ they will being to make anti-Rh antibodies and thus is there is a second transfusion agglutination and hemolysis will occur
57
Describe hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
If Rh+ blood leaks from fetus into Rh- mother, the mother will begin to make anti-Rh antibodies (typically at delivery) In a second pregnancy, the anti-Rh antibodies can cross the placenta of the fetus and if that baby is Rh+ agglutination and hemolysis may occur in the fetal blood anti-Rh gamma globulin injection can prevent HDN
58
Define anemia
Oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced due to insufficient iron, inadequate B12 or follicular acid hefopoises, excessive loss of RBCs through bleeding, RBC ruptures, deficient hemoglobin synthesis, or destruction of red bone marrow
59
Define sickle cell disease
RBCs contain Hb-S, an abnormal kind of hemoglobin that bind the erythrocyte into a sickle shape, allowing them to rupture easily
60
Define hemophilia
An inherited deficiency of clotting which which bleeding may occur spontaneously or after only minor trauma
61
Define leukemia
A group of red bone marrow cancers in which abnormal WBCs multiple uncontrollably accumulating in red bone marrow and interfering with the production of RBCs, WBCs and platelets
62
Define cyanosis
blue/purple skin discoularation due to increased quantity of methemoglobin, hemoglobin not combined with oxygen in blood
63
Define jaundice
Yellowish discolouration of eyes, skin, and mucous membrane due to excess bilirubin
64
Define septicemia
Toxins or disease-causing bacteria in the blood aka blood poisoning
65
Aplastic anemia is caused by A) premature rupture of red blood cells B) excessive loss of red blood cells C) destruction of red bone marrow D) deficient production of hemoglobin
C) destruction of red bone marrow
66
Which portion of the hemoglobin molecule combines to oxygen? A) heme B) beta chain of globin C) alpha chain of globin D) iron
D) iron
67
Small glycoproteins that are responsible for regulating the development of different blood cell types are called A) stem cells. B) cytokines. C) enzymes. D) hormones.
B) cytokines.
68
In the process of platelet formation, which of the following are the precursor cells that megakaryocyte colony-forming cells develop into? A) megakaryocytes B) megakaryoblasts C) thrombocytes D) myeloid cells
B) megakaryoblasts
69
Graft-versus-host-disease is caused by A) a lack of healthy white blood cells B) a lack of healthy red blood cells C) donor white blood cells attacking host tissue D) host white blood cells attacking donor tissue
C) donor white blood cells attacking host tissue
70
An individual with red blood cells that display the B antigen has type O blood type A blood type AB blood type B blood
type B blood
71
Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils have which of the following characteristic in common? release histamine agranular phagocytic multi-lobed nucleus
multi-lobed nucleus
72
Which clotting factor strengthens and stabilizes fibrin threads into a sturdy clot? XIII V XI X
XIII
73
In centrifuged blood, the buffy coat consists of platelets only red blood cells and platelets white blood cells only white blood cells and platelets
white blood cells and platelets
74
How long can stem cells from the umbilical cord be stored in cord-blood banks? Indefinitely 3-6 months Up to 20 years Up to 10 years
Indefinitely
75
Stem cells for a cord-blood transplant are collected from the amniotic fluid umbilical cord placenta chorionic villi
umbilical cord
76
An alternative to a bone marrow transplant that has many advantages is yoga medication hormone therapy cord-blood transport
cord-blood transport
77
Platelets are fragments of monocytes. erythrocytes. megakaryocytes. clots.
megakaryocytes.
78
Platelets have a life span of 5-9 days. weeks. months. hours.
days.
79
The hormone _____ influences the development of megakaryocte colony-forming units
thrombopoietin
80
Low counts of _______ may indicate prolonged illness, HIV infection, or immunosuppression. lymphocytes eosinophils basophils neutrophils
lymphocytes
81
Which lymphocyte attacks spontaneously developing tumor cells? B cells and T cells Natural killer cells T cells B cells
Natural killer cells
82
Which lymphocytes develop into plasma cells that produce antibodies? T cells Natural killer cells T cells and natural killer cells B cells
B cells
83
Which of the following leukocytes is agranular? eosinophils lymphocytes neutrophils basophils
lymphocytes
84
Which leukocyte(s) develop from lymphoid stem cells? ``` neutrophils basophils eosinophils monocytes lymphocytes ```
lymphocytes
85
How does the amount of red bone marrow change as a person ages, so long as the person is reasonably healthy? Levels remain approximately the same. Levels increase. Levels change unpredictably. Levels decrease.
Levels decrease.
86
Bone tissue stores up to 99% of total body potassium. sodium. calcium. protein.
calcium.
87
Destruction of yellow bone marrow will directly affect red blood cell production. triglyceride storage. macrophage storage. white blood cell production.
triglyceride storage.
88
Which plasma protein is required for blood clotting? fibrinogen albumin alpha and beta globulins immunoglobulins
fibrinogen
89
Which is the average normal hematocrit for adult females? 47% 52% 30% 42%
42%
90
Blood makes up ______ percent of total body mass. 6 12 8 10
8
91
Regulatory substances in the blood plasma consist of hormones vitamins All of the choices are correct. enzymes
All of the choices are correct.
92
Erythropoietin is produced by cells in the liver. spleen. kidneys. red bone marrow.
kidneys.
93
Pluripotent stems cells are also called megakaryoblasts hemocytoblasts osteoblasts myeloblasts
hemocytoblasts
94
After birth, hemopoiesis occurs only in the spleen lymph nodes red bone marrow liver
red bone marrow
95
Pluripotent stem cells in red bone marrow produce two types of cells called myeloid and lymphoid stem cells. reticulocytes and lymphoblasts. myeloid stem cells and lymphoblasts. myeloblasts and lymphoblasts.
myeloid and lymphoid stem cells.
96
Colony-forming units are ___________ cells. progenitor precursor blast myeloblast
progenitor
97
Before birth, hemopoiesis first occurs in the __________ of the embryo. allantois amniotic cavity chorion yolk sac
yolk sac
98
Thrombopoietin is produced by cells in the kidneys red bone marrow liver spleen
liver
99
Which of the following represents normal hemoglobin values for adult males? 13.5 to 18 g/100 ml 14 to 20 g/100 ml 12 to 16 g/100 ml 8 to 12 g/100 ml
13.5 to 18 g/100 ml
100
Which of the following represents normal hemoglobin values for adult females? 8 to 12 g/100 ml 14 to 20 g/100 ml 12 to 16 g/100 ml 13.5 to 18 g/100 ml
12 to 16 g/100 ml
101
Which of the following is a function of platelets during hemostasis? releasing chemicals to promote blood clotting producing a platelet plug releasing chemicals to promote vascular spasm all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
102
A patient with a deficiency in which of the following hormones is likely to suffer from a blood clotting disorder? EPO (erythropoietin) cytokines TPO (thrombopoietin) CSF (colony-stimulating factor)
TPO (thrombopoietin)
103
In children, bone marrow samples are usually taken from the humerus and femur sternum and hip bone sternum and ribs vertebra and tibia
vertebra and tibia
104
Lymphoid stem cells complete development in the red bone marrow liver lymphoid tissues yellow bone marrow
lymphoid tissues
105
Erythropoietin promotes the division of __________________ in red bone marrow. progenitor cells proerythroblasts reticulocytes erythrocytes
proerythroblasts
106
In a normal blood sample, reticulocytes make up _____________ of all red blood cells. over 5 % 1 to 2 % less than 0.5 % 0.5 to 1.5 %
0.5 to 1.5 %
107
In the blood, released nitric oxide binds to iron. hemoglobin. red blood cells. heme groups.
hemoglobin.
108
Hypoxia will stimulate ____________ to release erythropoietin. the kidneys the lungs the liver the red bone marrow
the kidneys
109
Which of following is not a clotting factors found in platelets? serotonin ATP Ca2+ fibrinogen
fibrinogen
110
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the formation of a platelet plug. A) platelet release reaction, platelet aggregation, platelet adhesion, platelet plug B) platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, platelet aggregation, platelet plug C) platelet aggregation, platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, platelet plug D) platelet plug, platelet adhesion, platelet aggregation, platelet release reaction
B) platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, platelet aggregation, platelet plug
111
Which anticoagulant acts as an antagonist to Vitamin K? antithrombin activated protein C warfarin prostacyclin
warfarin`
112
When a vessel is damaged, the first response is platelet aggregation platelet adhesion a vascular spasm a platelet plug
a vascular spasm
113
Which mechanisms are involved in reducing blood loss? coagulation All of the choices are correct. platelet plug vascular spasm
All of the choices are correct.
114
An individual with type AB blood can receive blood transfusions of which type(s)? all choices are correct type B type O type A
all choices are correct
115
In ABO blood typing, if no agglutination occurs when both anti-A serum and anti-B serum drops are mixed with the blood, then the individual has type A blood type O blood type B blood type AB blood
type O blood
116
In ABO blood typing, if agglutination occurs only when anti-B serum is mixed with the blood, then the individual has type AB blood type A blood type B blood type O blood
type B blood
117
In ABO blood typing, if agglutination occurs only when anti-A serum is mixed with blood, then the individual has type B blood type O blood type AB blood type A blood
type A blood
118
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can only be a factor if the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh- the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh- the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh+ the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh+
the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh+
119
An individual with type AB blood has anti-B antibodies both anti-A and anti-B antibodies anti-A antibodies neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
120
Which of the following is not a treatment for sickle-cell disease? blood transfusion antibiotics desmopressin fluid therapy
desmopressin
121
A person with sickle-cell disease has an abnormal kind of fibrinogen. antibody. hemoglobin. albumin.
hemoglobin.
122
rder for a person to have sickle-cell disease, they need two defective genes for hemoglobin one normal gene and one defective gene for hemoglobin only one defective gene for a clotting factor only one defective gene for erythropoietin
two defective genes for hemoglobin
123
Once a bone marrow transplant has occurred, how long does it take to produce enough white blood cells to protect against infection? 2 to 3 months 2 to 3 weeks 2 to 3 days 120 days
2 to 3 weeks
124
Which of the following cannot be treated with a bone marrow transplant? aplastic anemia Hodgkin's disease thalassemia hemophilia
hemophilia
125
The most common site to remove bone marrow from a donor is ribs vertebrae iliac crest of the hip sternum
iliac crest of the hip
126
Which leukemia occurs mostly in adults over the age of 55? acute lymphoblastic leukemia acute myelogenous leukemia chronic lymphoblastic leukemia chronic myelogenous leukemia
chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
127
Which parts of the world have high incidences of sickle-cell disease? Eastern Europe Central America and South America Africa, Asia and Mediterranean Europe North America
Africa, Asia and Mediterranean Europe

BIO 235 Final (11 decks)

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