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Test 4 > Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders > Flashcards

Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statement about the testes is TRUE?
    a. Each testis contains the ductus deferens.
    b. The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.
    c. Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle.
    d. The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body
    temperature.
A

b. The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.

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2
Q
  1. Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
    a. The complete process takes about 28 days.
    b. Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
    c. It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
    testosterone.
    d. The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
A

c. It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
testosterone.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
    a. Infertility
    b. Testicular
    cancer
    c. Both A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
A

c. Both A and B

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4
Q
  1. Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
    a. Varicocele
    b. Hypospadias
    c. Spermatocele
    d. Hydrocele
A

d. Hydrocele

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?
    a. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic
    pain
    b. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
    c. Hesitancy and increased urinary output
    d. Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia
A

b. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?
    a. The tumor usually becomes malignant in time.
    b. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.
    c. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and
    frequency.
    d. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops.
A

c. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and

frequency.

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7
Q
  1. Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?
    a. Increased volume of dilute urine
    b. Irritation of the bladder and urethra
    c. Impaired micturition reflex
    d. Incomplete emptying of the
    bladder
A

d. Incomplete emptying of the

bladder

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
    a. Bone
    b. Lungs
    c. Liver
    d. Testes
A

a. Bone

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9
Q
  1. What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?
    a. Human chorionic gonadotropin
    b. Alpha-fetoprotein
    c. Prostate-specific antigen
    d. Luteinizing hormone
A

c. Prostate-specific antigen

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
    a. It is clear or whitish.
    b. It has a pH of 4 to 5.
    c. It does not contain any
    cells.
    d. It contains mucus.
A

c. It does not contain any

cells.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?
    a. It forms a mature ovarian follicle.
    b. It secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
    c. It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the latter half of the menstrual
    cycle.
    d. It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.
A

c. It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the latter half of the menstrual
cycle.

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12
Q
  1. Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
    a. Obstruction in the fallopian tubes
    b. Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial
    tissue
    c. Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
    d. Fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes
A

b. Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial

tissue

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13
Q
  1. With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal cavity?
    a. The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the
    uterus.
    b. The uterus is perforated because of infection, allowing bacteria to leak out.
    c. Most of the primary infections do not respond to antimicrobial drugs.
    d. Microbes are highly virulent.
A

a. The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the
uterus.

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?
    a. It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule.
    b. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.
    c. Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor
    development.
    d. The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late.
A

b. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?
    a. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue
    b. Proliferation of atypical cells with high risk of malignancy
    c. Benign tumors that develop after menopause
    d. Any tissue changes other than the normal response to hormonal
    changes
A

a. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
    a. Development of malignancy
    b. Irregular menstrual cycles
    c. Interference with ovulation
    d. Abnormal bleeding such as
    menorrhagia
A

d. Abnormal bleeding such as

menorrhagia

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17
Q
  1. Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
    a. The invasive stage
    b. The stage of mild dysplasia
    c. The time before it can be detected by a Pap
    test
    d. Noninvasive severe dysplasia
A

d. Noninvasive severe dysplasia

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18
Q
  1. What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
    a. High estrogen levels
    b. Familial incidence
    c. Infection with herpes simplex virus
    (HSV)
    d. Early age for onset of menstrual cycles
A

c. Infection with herpes simplex virus

HSV

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19
Q
  1. What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?
    a. A positive Pap test
    b. Minor vaginal bleeding or
    spotting
    c. Infection resistant to treatment
    d. Painful intercourse
A

b. Minor vaginal bleeding or

spotting

20
Q
  1. Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered asymptomatic in women?
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Gonorrhea
    c. Syphilis
    d. All of the
    above
A

d. All of the

above

21
Q
  1. Which of the following frequently causes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and subsequent infertility?
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Genital warts
    c. Trichomoniasis
    d. Herpes
    simplex
A

a. Chlamydia

22
Q
  1. Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge and foul odor?
    a. Candidiasis
    b. Trichomoniasis
    c. Syphilis
    d. Gonorrhea
A

b. Trichomoniasis

23
Q
  1. What is the cause of syphilis?
    a. A gram-negative
    diplococcus
    b. An anaerobic protozoa
    c. A virus
    d. An anaerobic spirochete
A

d. An anaerobic spirochete

24
Q
  1. Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
    a. Gonorrhea
    b. Chlamydia
    c. Herpes simplex
    d. All of the
    above
A

d. All of the

above

25
Q
  1. Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection?
    a. Gonorrhea
    b. Chlamydia
    c. Syphilis
    d. Condylomata acuminate
A

c. Syphilis

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
    a. N. gonorrhoeae
    b. Pseudomonas
    aeruginosa
    c. S. aureus
    d. E. coli
A

d. E. coli

27
Q
  1. The most common solid tumor found in young men is:
    a. prostatic cancer.
    b. testicular cancer.
    c. bladder cancer.
    d. penile cancer.
A

b. testicular cancer.

28
Q
  1. A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:
    a. prostatic cancer.
    b. benign prostatic hypertrophy.
    c. acute prostatitis.
    d. chronic prostatitis.
A

a. prostatic cancer.

29
Q
  1. How do testicular tumors usually present?
    a. Soft, tender mass
    b. Multiple firm nodules
    c. Hard, painless unilateral mass
    d. Small, fluid-filled cyst
A

c. Hard, painless unilateral mass

30
Q
  1. Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?
    a. Amenorrhea
    b. Dysmenorrhea
    c. Oligomenorrhea
    d. Metrorrhagia
A

d. Metrorrhagia

31
Q
  1. Which statement does NOT apply to vaginal candidiasis?
    a. It is classified as an STD.
    b. The cause is an opportunistic yeast.
    c. It causes dysuria and dyspareunia.
    d. The mucosa becomes red and
    pruritic.
A

a. It is classified as an STD.

32
Q
  1. Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
    a. lungs.
    b. bone.
    c. pelvic lymph nodes.
    d. brain.
A

c. pelvic lymph nodes.

33
Q
  1. When the uterus is located in the vagina with the cervix at the opening to the vagina, this is called:
    a. first-degree prolapse.
    b. second-degree prolapse.
    c. third-degree prolapse.
    d. procidentia.
A

b. second-degree prolapse.

34
Q
  1. Painful menstruation is called:
    a. polymenorrhea.
    b. premenstrual syndrome.
    c. dysmenorrhea.
    d. endometriosis.
A

c. dysmenorrhea.

35
Q
  1. Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by:
    a. systemic antibacterial therapy.
    b. insertion of an intrauterine device.
    c. sexual intercourse with an infected
    partner.
    d. previous viral infection.
A

a. systemic antibacterial therapy.

36
Q
  1. A chancre is best described as:
    a. a vesicle surrounded by a red inflamed
    area.
    b. a pustule filled with purulent exudate.
    c. an area of necrosis and fibrosis.
    d. a firm painless ulcerated nodule.
A

d. a firm painless ulcerated nodule.

37
Q
  1. Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
    a. slow the growth of the primary tumor.
    b. destroy any micrometastases.
    c. prevent the removal of any lymph
    nodes.
    d. reduce the need for a mastectomy.
A

b. destroy any micrometastases.

38
Q
  1. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
    a. it does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation.
    b. vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis.
    c. premenopausal women are not likely to notice
    changes.
    d. hormone therapy is ineffective.
A

b. vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis.

39
Q
  1. Specific genetic links have been shown for:
  2. cervical cancer.
  3. testicular cancer.
  4. breast cancer.
  5. prostatic cancer.
    a. 1, 2
    b. 3, 4
    c. 1, 3, 4
    d. 2, 3, 4
A

d. 2, 3, 4

40
Q
  1. In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?
    a. Uterine cancer
    b. Breast cancer
    c. Ovarian cancer
    d. Cervical cancer in
    situ
A

d. Cervical cancer in

situ

41
Q
  1. Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the:
    a. prostate.
    b. testes.
    c. ovary.
    d. cervix.
A

a. prostate.

42
Q
  1. Infertility in women may result from:
    a. endometriosis.
    b. hormonal imbalances.
    c. A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
A

c. A and B

43
Q
  1. Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when:
    a. cervical mucus is highly viscous.
    b. vaginal pH is abnormal.
    c. structural abnormalities are present.
    d. A, B, and C
A

d. A, B, and C

44
Q
  1. Balanitis is the infection and inflammation of the:
    a. vagina.
    b. glans penis.
    c. fallopian tubes.
    d. testes.
A

b. glans penis.

45
Q
  1. Structural abnormalities of the uterus may lead to dyspareunia, which is:
    a. painful intercourse.
    b. obstructed urination.
    c. a form of infertility.
    d. fungal infection of the
    uterus.
A

a. painful intercourse.

Test 4 (5 decks)

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