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Test 4 > Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders > Flashcards

Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
    a. Parietal cells
    b. Chief cells
    c. Mucous
    cells
    d. Gastrin cells
A

a. Parietal cells

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
    a. Stomach
    b. Duodenum
    c. Ileum
    d. Ascending colon
A

c. Ileum

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3
Q
  1. When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic
    secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
    a. Gastrin
    b. Secretin
    c. Cholecystokinin
    d. Histamine
A

b. Secretin

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
    a. Amylase
    b. Peptidase
    c. Lactase
    d. Trypsin
A

d. Trypsin

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5
Q 
5. In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support
the functions of the structure?
a. Pancreas
b. Liver
c. Small
intestine
d. Spleen
A

b. Liver

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
    a. Sympathetic nervous system
    b. Vagus nerve
    c. Increased saliva
    d. Absence of food in the
    system
A

b. Vagus nerve

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
    a. Bicarbonate ion
    b. Hydrochloric acid
    c. Activated digestive
    enzymes
    d. Insulin
A

a. Bicarbonate ion

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8
Q
  1. The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity but inhibits gastric activity through the:
    a. defecation reflex.
    b. enterogastric reflex
    c. vomiting reflex.
    d. autodigestive reflex
A

b. enterogastric reflex

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?
    a. Lipolysis
    b. Ketogenesis
    c. Gluconeogenesis
    d. Glycogenesis
A

d. Glycogenesis

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10
Q
  1. What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?
    a. Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose
    b. Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for
    storage
    c. Formation of glucose from protein and fat
    d. Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
A

c. Formation of glucose from protein and fat

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11
Q
  1. Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. peptide hormones.
    b. clotting factors and
    antibodies.
    c. cellular energy.
    d. hemoglobin
A

c. cellular energy.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
    a. They give feces the characteristic brown color.
    b. They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty
    acids.
    c. They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.
    d. They are excreted in the feces
A

c. They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.

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13
Q
  1. The visceral peritoneum:
    a. lines the abdominal wall.
    b. hangs from the stomach over the loops of small
    intestine.
    c. contains many pain receptors.
    d. forms the outer covering of the stomach
A

d. forms the outer covering of the stomach

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14
Q
  1. The early stage of vomiting causes:
    a. metabolic alkalosis.
    b. metabolic acidosis.
    c. increased respirations.
    d. increased excretion of hydrogen
    ions.
A

a. metabolic alkalosis.

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15
Q
  1. Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of:
    a. bile.
    b. blood.
    c. protein.
    d. bacteria.
A

a. bile.

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16
Q
  1. Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:
    a. melena.
    b. occult blood.
    c. frank blood.
    d. hematemesis.
A

b. occult blood.

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17
Q
  1. Severe vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis because of increased:
    a. ketones produced.
    b. CO2
    retained in the lungs and kidneys.
    c. hypovolemia and lactic acid
    production.
    d. metabolic rate
A

c. hypovolemia and lactic acid

production

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
    a. It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and
    XII.
    b. It is entirely voluntary.
    c. It is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus.
    d. It does not affect respiration.
A

a. It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and

XII.

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19
Q
  1. What does the defecation reflex require?
    a. Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous
    system
    b. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter
    c. Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
    d. Voluntary relaxation of pelvic muscles
A

c. Coordination through the sacral spinal cord

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20
Q
  1. What is the definition of dysphagia?
    a. A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened
    muscle
    b. Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus
    c. Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach
    d. Difficulty in swallowing
A

d. Difficulty in swallowing

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21
Q
  1. What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?
    a. Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the
    trachea
    b. Repeated reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus
    c. No fluid or food entering the stomach
    d. Gastric distention and cramp
A

c. No fluid or food entering the stomach

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to cleft palate?
    a. The mandibular processes do not fuse.
    b. The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of
    pregnancy.
    c. Exposure to environmental factors in the last trimester causes the defect.
    d. Speech and eating are not affected.
A

b. The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of
pregnancy.

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23
Q
  1. Oral candidiasis is considered to:
    a. be a common bacterial infection in infants and young
    children.
    b. cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue.
    c. cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scraped off.
    d. be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth.
A

d. be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth

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24
Q
  1. Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
    a. Active infection is usually asymptomatic
    b. The virus builds up a resistance.
    c. The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.
    d. The virus mutates; therefore, no effective immunity
    develops
A

c. The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.

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25
Q
  1. What does the term periodontitis refer to?
    a. Erosion of the enamel tooth surface
    b. Bacterial damage to the teeth and surrounding alveolar
    bone
    c. Inflammation and infection of the gingivae
    d. Formation of calcified plaque on the tooth
A

b. Bacterial damage to the teeth and surrounding alveolar

bone

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26
Q
  1. What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?
    a. Floor of the mouth or tongue
    borders
    b. Mucosa lining the cheeks
    c. Hard and soft palate
    d. Gingivae near the teeth
A

a. Floor of the mouth or tongue

borders

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27
Q
  1. What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
    a. An abnormally long esophagus
    b. Increased intra-abdominal pressure
    c. Stenosis of the hiatus in the
    diaphragm
    d. A small fundus in the stomach
A

b. Increased intra-abdominal pressure

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28
Q
  1. What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
A

a. Colicky right upper quadrant pain
b. Vomiting and anorexia
c. Projectile vomiting after eating
d. Diarrhea with abdominal
distention

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29
Q
  1. What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?
    a. Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions
    b. Hyperchlorhydria and chronic peptic ulcers
    c. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
    d. Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the
    mucosa
A

a. Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions

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30
Q
  1. What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
    a. Unrefrigerated custards or salad
    dressings
    b. Poorly canned foods
    c. Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
    d. Contaminated water
A

c. Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?
    a. A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker
    b. Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily
    basis
    c. A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa
    d. An individual with an allergy to shellfish
A

d. An individual with an allergy to shellfish

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32
Q
  1. What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?
    a. Absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach
    b. Failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and
    duodenum
    c. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus
    d. Thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation
A

c. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus

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33
Q
  1. A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:
    a. have an increase in appetite.
    b. have chronic diarrhea.
    c. develop severe colicky pains.
    d. vomit undigested food from previous
    meals.
A

d. vomit undigested food from previous

meals.

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34
Q
  1. Prolonged or severe stress predisposes to peptic ulcer disease because:
    a. of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands.
    b. of reduced bicarbonate content in bile and pancreatic secretions.
    c. stress increases the number of acid- and pepsinogen-secreting
    cells.
    d. increased epinephrine increases motility.
A

a. of reduced blood flow to the gastric wall and mucous glands.

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35
Q
  1. The pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease may involve any of the following EXCEPT:
    a. decreased resistance of the mucosal barrier.
    b. increased stimulation of pepsin and acid
    secretions.
    c. infection by H. pylori.
    d. increased stimulation of mucus-producing glands.
A

d. increased stimulation of mucus-producing glands.

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?
    a. Severe anemia
    b. Chemical peritonitis
    c. Severe gastric hemorrhage
    d. Pyloric obstruction
A

b. Chemical peritonitis

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37
Q
  1. What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?
    a. Abdominal discomfort between meals and at
    night
    b. Nausea and diarrhea
    c. Hematemesis
    d. Sharp colicky pain with food intake
A

c. Hematemesis

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38
Q
  1. What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?
    a. Occult blood in the stool and anemia
    b. Hematemesis and shock
    c. Abdominal pain and distention
    d. Red blood on the surface of the
    stool
A

a. Occult blood in the stool and anemia

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39
Q
  1. Following gastric resection, the onset of nausea, cramps, and dizziness immediately after meals indicates:
    a. a large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing
    distention.
    b. severe hypoglycemia has developed.
    c. the pylorus is restricting the flow of chyme.
    d. bile and pancreatic secretions are irritating the small intestine.
A

a. a large volume of chyme has entered the intestines, causing
distention.

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40
Q
  1. Bilirubin is a product of:
    a. hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of
    hemoglobin.
    b. production of excess chyme and bile.
    c. mixing of undigested food and gastric secretions.
    d. accumulation of white blood cells (WBCs) due to infection.
A

a. hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of

hemoglobin.

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41
Q
  1. Why does mild hyperbilirubinemia occur in newborns?
    a. Blood incompatibility between mother and child
    b. Damage to many erythrocytes during the birth process
    c. Poor circulation and albumin transport for bilirubin
    d. Immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly
    enough
A

d. Immature liver cannot process bilirubin quickly

enough

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42
Q
  1. Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:
    a. bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the
    bile.
    b. water content in the bile.
    c. bile salts in the bile.
    d. bicarbonate ions in the bile.
A

a. bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the

bile.

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43
Q
  1. What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?
    a. Intrahepatic jaundice
    b. Acute pancreatitis
    c. Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant
A

c. Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant

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44
Q
  1. Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:
    a. cholelithiasis.
    b. cholecystitis.
    c. cholangitis.
    d. choledocholithiasis.
A

d. choledocholithiasis.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?
    a. It is also called serum hepatitis.
    b. It is transmitted by the fecal-oral
    route.
    c. It contains a double strand of DNA.
    d. It frequently leads to chronic hepatitis.
A

b. It is transmitted by the fecal-oral

route.

46
Q
  1. What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?
    a. Acute infection is present.
    b. Chronic infection has developed.
    c. Liver failure is in progress.
    d. The usual prolonged recovery from any viral infection is
    occurring.
A

b. Chronic infection has developed.

47
Q
  1. What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?
    a. HAV
    b. HBV
    c. HCV
A

c. HCV

48
Q
  1. During the course of a hepatitis B infection, the onset of jaundice occurs in the:
    a. incubation period.
    b. preicteric stage.
    c. icteric stage.
    d. posticteric stage.
A

c. icteric stage.

49
Q
  1. What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
    a. Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material has been
    removed
    b. Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
    c. Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
    d. Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
A

d. Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis

50
Q
  1. What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?
    a. Below normal blood levels of AST and ALT
    b. Upper left quadrant tenderness and dull pain
    c. A small, firm, nodular liver and portal
    hypertension
    d. Decreased production of blood clotting factors
A

d. Decreased production of blood clotting factors

51
Q
  1. A factor that may precipitate encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:
    a. serum urea.
    b. conjugated bilirubin.
    c. serum ammonia.
A

c. serum ammonia.

52
Q
  1. In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:
    a. ingesting excessive lipids.
    b. bleeding occurs in the digestive tract.
    c. an increase in unconjugated bilirubin occurs in the
    serum.
    d. less bile is produced.
A

b. bleeding occurs in the digestive tract.

53
Q
  1. What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?
    a. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins
    b. Alcohol irritating the mucosa
    c. Failure to inactivate estrogen
    d. Poor nutritional status
A

a. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the veins

54
Q
  1. What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
    a. Anemia and leucopenia
    b. Jaundice and pruritus
    c. Recurrent infections
    d. Deficit of vitamin K and
    prothrombin
A

d. Deficit of vitamin K and

prothrombin

55
Q
  1. Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?
    a. Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
    b. Severe anemia and increased serum bilirubin
    c. Hypokalemia and increased serum ammonia
A

a. Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
    a. Metastatic tumors
    b. Acute hepatitis
    c. Long-term exposure to certain
    chemicals
    d. Chronic cholelithiasis
A

c. Long-term exposure to certain

chemicals

57
Q
  1. What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?
    a. Formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia
    b. Infection by intestinal microbes
    c. Immune complex reaction
    d. Autodigestion of tissue by pancreatic
    enzymes
A

d. Autodigestion of tissue by pancreatic

enzymes

58
Q
  1. How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
    a. Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid
    balance.
    b. Erosion in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria.
    c. Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop.
    d. Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic.
A

a. Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid
balance

59
Q
  1. Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
    a. damage to the intestinal villi.
    b. obstruction in the pancreatic ducts.
A

a. damage to the intestinal villi.

60
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?
    a. A light gray-colored stool
    b. A tarry black stool
    c. Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools
    d. Watery stools with mucus and
    blood
A

c. Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools

61
Q
  1. What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?
    a. Low sodium, high fat
    b. High carbohydrate, low protein
    c. High calorie with vitamin
    supplements
    d. Gluten-free
A

d. Gluten-free

62
Q
  1. What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn’s disease?
    a. Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
    b. Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
    c. A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
    d. Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal
    areas
A

d. Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal
areas

63
Q
  1. Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus and frank blood are typical of:
    a. diverticulitis.
    b. ulcerative colitis.
    c. Crohn’s disease.
    d. celiac disease.
A

b. ulcerative colitis.

64
Q
  1. How may a fistula form with Crohn’s disease?
    a. Lack of peristalsis, leading to dilated areas of intestine
    b. Fibrosis and thickening of the wall, causing obstruction
    c. Erosion of the mucosa, causing bleeding
    d. Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal
    loops
A

d. Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis, forming a connection between intestinal
loops

65
Q
  1. How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
    a. Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
    b. Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
    c. Chronic blood loss in stools
    d. Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron
    absorption
A

c. Chronic blood loss in stools

66
Q
  1. What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
    a. Physical and emotional stress
    b. An autoimmune reaction
    c. A combination of recessive
    genes
    d. Idiopathic
A

d. Idiopathic

67
Q
  1. What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

a. Lower left quadrant

A

a. Lower left quadrant

68
Q
  1. What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
    a. Infection in the appendix
    b. An episode of severe diarrhea
    c. Obstruction of the lumen of the
    appendix
    d. Eating a low-fiber diet
A

c. Obstruction of the lumen of the

appendix

69
Q
  1. With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:
    a. increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon.
    b. inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal
    wall.
    c. increased gas and fluid inside the appendix.
    d. local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum.
A

d. local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum.

70
Q
  1. How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?
    a. The omentum walls off the inflamed area.
    b. Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal
    wall.
    c. The obstructing object inside the appendix causes edema.
    d. Bacteria escape into the circulating blood.
A

b. Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal
wall.

71
Q
  1. What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?
    a. Change in shape of the stool
    b. Incomplete emptying
    c. Mild but persistent pain in the lower left
    quadrant
    d. Occult blood in the stool
A

d. Occult blood in the stool

72
Q
  1. To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
    a. Lungs
    b. Stomach
    c. Liver
    d. Spleen
A

c. Liver

73
Q
  1. How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?
    a. Hypotension and shock cause ischemia.
    b. The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.
    c. A section of intestine herniates between the muscles of the abdominal wall.
    d. The distention of the intestinal wall causes increased permeability of the
    tissue.
A

b. The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine.

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?
    a. Excessive audible bowel
    sounds
    b. Intermittent colicky pain
    c. Severe steady abdominal pain
    d. Visible peristalsis
A

c. Severe steady abdominal pain

75
Q
  1. A congenital condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the colon,impairing motility is referred to as:
    a. diverticulitis.
    b. Crohn’s disease.
    c. irritable bowel syndrome.
    d. Hirschsprung’s disease.
A

d. Hirschsprung’s disease.

76
Q
  1. What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?
    a. Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the
    intestine
    b. Hemorrhage into the intestine
    c. Rupture of the intestinal wall
    d. Repeated bouts of severe diarrhea
A

a. Continued vomiting and fluid shift into the

intestine

77
Q
  1. What causes the characteristic rigid abdomen found in the patient with peritonitis?
    a. Increased fluid and gas, causing abdominal distention
    b. Inflammation of the peritoneum and organs, causing a firm mass in the
    abdomen
    c. Inflamed peritoneum, resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm
    d. Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles as a protective mechanism
A

c. Inflamed peritoneum, resulting in reflex abdominal muscle spasm

78
Q
  1. What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gallbladder?
    a. Leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal
    cavity
    b. Massive hemorrhage and shock
    c. Breakdown of the gallstones
    d. Increasing peristalsis with intermittent painful spasms
A

a. Leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal
cavity

79
Q
  1. How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?
    a. Chemical irritation by excessive ovarian and uterine secretions causes
    inflammation.
    b. Ulceration and perforation of the uterus allow the bacteria to spread.
    c. Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.
    d. Gangrene in the uterine wall spreads through into the pelvic cavity.
A

c. Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.

80
Q
  1. Choose the significant change in arterial blood gases expected with prolonged severe vomiting:
    a. Increased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.4
    b. Decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH
  2. 35
    c. Increased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH 7.35
    d. Decreased bicarbonate ion, increased PCO2, serum pH 7.45
A

b. Decreased bicarbonate ion, decreased PCO2, serum pH

7. 35

81
Q
  1. When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what
    significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?
    a. Serum pH would rise above 7.45.
    b. Serum bicarbonate levels would increase, and serum pH would remain in normal
    range.
    c. Serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, and serum pH would drop below 7.35.
    d. Serum PCO2 would rise, and serum pH would be around 7.4.
A

c. Serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, and serum pH would drop below 7.35.

82
Q
  1. Bile pigment gallstones are more common in individuals dealing with:
    a. obesity.
    b. high cholesterol levels.
    c. alcoholic cirrhosis.
A

c. alcoholic cirrhosis.

83
Q
  1. Dehydration limits compensation available for an acid-base imbalance resulting from prolonged vomiting
    and diarrhea because:
    a. hypovolemia limits renal function.
    b. increased respirations cannot remove more
    H+.
    c. increased ADH blocks secretion of H+.
    d. more sodium and potassium ions are retained.
A

a. hypovolemia limits renal function.

84
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?
    a. Lower esophagus
    b. Antrum of the
    stomach
    c. Proximal duodenum
    d. Distal duodenum
A

c. Proximal duodenum

85
Q
  1. In peptic ulcer disease, which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?
    a. Prolonged vasoconstriction
    b. Excessive glucocorticoid intake
    c. Proteases and cytotoxins from H.
    pylori
    d. Decreased vagal stimulation
A

d. Decreased vagal stimulation

86
Q
  1. An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?
    a. Perforation
    b. Obstruction
    c. Erosion of a large blood
    vessel
    d. Development of malignancy
A

c. Erosion of a large blood

vessel

87
Q
  1. What does the term melena mean?
    a. Blood in a dark-colored stool
    b. Occult blood in the stool
    c. Blood in the sputum
    d. Blood in vomitus
A

a. Blood in a dark-colored stool

88
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?
    a. Ingestion of smoked foods
    b. Genetic factors
    c. Ingestion of foods preserved with nitrates
    d. Anti-inflammatory medications such as
    ASA
A

d. Anti-inflammatory medications such as

ASA

89
Q
  1. Which of the following frequently occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals in post-gastrectomy patients?
    a. Hypoglycemia
    b. Hypovolemia
    c. Abdominal cramps and
    distention
    d. Increased peristalsis and diarrhea
A

a. Hypoglycemia

90
Q
  1. Which term refers to an inflammation usually related to infection of the bile ducts?
    a. Cholelithiasis
    b. Cholecystitis
    c. Cholangitis
    d. Choledocholithiasis
A

c. Cholangitis

91
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
    a. Hepatomegaly
    b. Elevated serum liver
    enzymes
    c. Esophageal varices
    d. Lighter-colored stools
A

c. Esophageal varices

92
Q
  1. Which of the following statement(s) about jaundice is/are true?
  2. It is often the first manifestation of hepatitis.
  3. Jaundice indicates permanent liver damage.
  4. Individuals with hepatitis are always jaundiced.
  5. Jaundice usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.
    a. 1 only
    b. 4 only
    c. 1, 3
    d. 2, 4
A

b. 4 only

93
Q
  1. Which type(s) of hepatitis increase(s) the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
    a. HBV
    b. HCV
    c. HBV and HCV
    d. Neither HBV nor HCV
A

c. HBV and HCV

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
    a. Pruritic skin and light-colored stools
    b. Dark-colored stools and urine
    c. Increased serum levels of unconjugated
    bilirubin
    d. Loss of all metabolic functions
A

a. Pruritic skin and light-colored stools

95
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?
    a. The liver is inflamed and enlarged.
    b. Blood clotting delays are apparent at onset.
    c. Hepatocytes cannot regenerate when the virus is
    present.
    d. Infection is self-limiting.
A

a. The liver is inflamed and enlarged.

96
Q
  1. Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.
    a. A vaccine is not available.
    b. The incubation period is too short to track contacts.
    c. Infection is often asymptomatic.
    d. Antibodies are not produced.
A

c. Infection is often asymptomatic.

97
Q
  1. What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?
    a. Formation of nodules with shrinkage of the liver
    b. Inflammation with necrosis
    c. Development of fibrous bands of tissue
    d. Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with
    hepatomegaly
A

d. Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with

hepatomegaly

98
Q
  1. How does serum bilirubin change with cirrhosis?
    a. Increased unconjugated bilirubin
    b. Increased conjugated bilirubin
    c. Increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
    d. Decreased conjugated and unconjugated
    bilirubin
A

c. Increased conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin

99
Q
  1. Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?
    a. HAV
    b. HCV
    c. HDV
    d. HEV
A

c. HDV

100
Q
  1. At what stage of alcoholic liver disease can the damage be reversed?
    a. It can never be reversed
    b. Initial stage
    c. Alcoholic hepatitis
    stage
    d. End-stage cirrhosis
A

b. Initial stage

101
Q
  1. Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:
    a. obesity and smoking.
    b. high-fat diet and hypertension.
    c. congenital defects and drug
    abuse.
    d. gallstones and alcohol abuse.
A

d. gallstones and alcohol abuse.

102
Q
  1. Which factor(s) appear(s) to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?
    a. Dietary factors
    b. Environmental toxins
    c. Genetic and immunological
    factors
    d. Chronic alcoholism
A

c. Genetic and immunological

factors

103
Q
  1. Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:
    a. periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus.
    b. constant flow of intestinal and gastric contents into the
    esophagus.
    c. spasmodic and violent vomiting of gastric contents.
    d. violent spasming of the esophagus, causing choking.
A

a. periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus.

104
Q 
104. When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this
is called a:
a. dysphagia.
b. rolling hernia.
c. sliding hernia.
d. pyloric stenosis.
A

c. sliding hernia.

105
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?
    a. It usually appears as polyp or protruding mass.
    b. Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.
    c. Genetics or geographical area does not affect the incidence.
A

b. Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.

106
Q 
106. Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the
tumor is located:
a. at the head of the pancreas.
b. in the body of the pancreas.
c. in the tail of the pancreas.
d. in the endocrine glands of the
pancreas.
A

a. at the head of the pancreas.

107
Q
  1. “A gluten-free diet as required” for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:
    a. products containing lactose.
    b. any trans-fat.
    c. certain grains.
    d. proteins containing certain amino
    acids.
A

c. certain grains.

108
Q
  1. The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:
    a. volvulus.
    b. hernia.
    c. adhesion.
    d. intussusceptions.
A

d. intussusceptions.

109
Q
  1. A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:
    a. tonsillitis.
    b. mumps.
A

b. mumps.

Test 4 (5 decks)

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