Chapter 19: Genetic Technology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is genetic engineering?

A

It is the removal of a gene (or genes) from one organism and the transfer into another so that the gene is expressed in its new host. The DNA that has been altered by this process and which now contains lengths of nucleotides from two different organisms

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2
Q

What is recombinant DNA?

A

Recombinant DNA is DNA made by joining pieces from two or more different sources.

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3
Q

What is a transgenic organism?

A

The organism which now expresses the new gene or genes is known as a transgenic organism or a genetically modified organism (GMO).

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4
Q

What is an outline of the steps required to produce a GMO?

A

1 The gene that is required is identified. It may be cut
from a chromosome, made from mRNA by reverse
transcription or synthesised from nucleotides.
2 Multiple copies of the gene are made using the technique known as the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
3 The gene is inserted into a vector which delivers the gene to the cells of the organism. Examples of vectors are plasmids, viruses and liposomes.
4 The vector takes the gene into the cells.
5 The cells that have the new gene are identified
and cloned.

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5
Q

What three substances are required for genetic engineering?

A

Enzymes, vectors and genes coding for easily identifiable substances that can be used as markers.

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6
Q

What is an restriction endonuclease and what does it do?

A

Restriction endonucleases are a class of enzymes from bacteria which recognise and break down the DNA of invading viruses known as bacteriophages (phages for short). Bacteria make enzymes that cut phage DNA into smaller pieces. These enzymes cut the sugar–phosphate backbone of DNA at specific places within the molecule. This is why they are known as endonucleases. Their role in bacteria is to restrict a viral infection, hence the name restriction endonuclease or restriction enzyme.

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7
Q

How is bacterial DNA protected from the restriction enzymes?

A

Bacterial DNA is protected from such an attack either by chemical markers or by not having the target sites.

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8
Q

What is the function of a restriction enzyme?

A

A restriction enzyme binds to a specific target site

on DNA and cuts at that site.

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9
Q

What is the target site?

A

The target sites, or restriction sites, are specific sequences of bases

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10
Q

How do restriction enzymes cut the DNA?

A

Restriction enzymes either cut straight across the sugar-phosphate backbone to give blunt ends or they cut in a staggered fashion to give sticky ends.
Sticky ends are short unpaired, staggered ends that
can easily form H bonds with complementary bases
cut using same restriction enzyme.

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11
Q

How can DNA be synthesised from nucleotides?

A

The sequence of nucleotides is held in a computer that directs the synthesis of short fragments of DNA. The fragments are then joined to make longer nucleotides that can be inserted into plasmids.

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12
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

They are small, circular pieces of double stranded DNA. They occur naturally in bacteria and often contain genes for antibiotic resistance. They can be exchanged between bacteria(even different species of bacteria).

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13
Q

How are plasmids obtained?

A

To get the plasmids, the bacteria containing them are
treated with enzymes to break down their cell walls. The ‘naked’ bacteria are then spun at high speed in a centrifuge, so that the relatively large bacterial chromosomes are separated from the much smaller plasmids.

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14
Q

How is a gene inserted into a plasmid vector?

A

The circular DNA of the plasmid is cut open using a
restriction enzyme. The same enzyme as the one used to cut out the gene should be used, so that the sticky ends are complementary. If a restriction enzyme is used that gives blunt ends, then sticky ends need to be attached to both the gene and the plasmid DNA. The opened plasmids and the lengths of DNA are mixed together. Some of the plasmid sticky ends pair up with the sticky ends on the new gene. The enzyme DNA ligase is used to link together the sugar–phosphate backbones of the DNA molecule and the plasmid, producing a closed circle of double-stranded DNA containing the new gene. This is now recombinant DNA.

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15
Q

What are some properties of a plasmid that make them good vectors? (6)

A
  1. Low molecular mass: can be taken up by bacteria easily
  2. Polylinker: a short length of DNA containing several target sites for different restriction enzymes
  3. Has one or more marker genes, allowing cells that take up recombinant plasmid to be identified, making it easy to screen.
  4. An origin of replication so that they can be copied
  5. Resistant to shearing
  6. Easy to isolate in large quantities
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16
Q

How are plasmids taken up by bacteria?

A

The bacteria are treated by putting them into a solution with a high concentration of calcium ions, then cooled and given a heat shock to increase the chances of plasmids passing through the cell surface membrane.
A small proportion of the bacteria, perhaps 1%, take up plasmids with the gene, and are said to be transformed. The rest either take up plasmids that have closed without incorporating a gene or do not take up any plasmids at all.

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17
Q

How can insulin genes be made?

A

Pancreatic β cells contain large quantities of mRNA for insulin as they are its only source in the body. The mRNA is then incubated with the enzyme reverse transcriptase which comes from the group of viruses called retroviruses. This enzyme reverses transcription, using mRNA as a template to make single stranded DNA. These single-stranded DNA molecules are then converted to double-stranded DNA molecules using DNA polymerase to assemble nucleotides to make the complementary strand.

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18
Q

What is the advantage of make insulin genes through the use of the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

A

The main advantage of this form of insulin is that there is now a reliable supply available to meet the increasing demand.

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19
Q

What are two examples of genetic markers that can be used?

A
  1. Enzymes obtained from jellyfish make a protein called GFP (green fluorescent protein) that fluoresces bright green in ultraviolet light. The gene for the enzyme is inserted into the plasmids. So all that needs to be done to identify the bacteria that have taken up the plasmid is to shine ultraviolet light onto them. The ones that glow green are the genetically modified ones.
  2. Another marker is the enzyme β-glucuronidase
    (known as GUS for short), which originates from E. coli. Any transformed cell that contains this enzyme, when incubated with some specific colourless or non-fluorescent substrates, can transform them into coloured or fluorescent products.
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20
Q

What do promoters do?

A

The promoter controls the expression of genes. It is the region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds as it starts transcription.

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21
Q

How does a promoter play a role in gene expression in recombinant plasmid DNA?

A

If we want the gene that we are going to insert into a

bacterium to be expressed, then we also have to insert an appropriate promoter.

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22
Q

What is gel electrophoresis?

A

Gel electrophoresis is a technique that is used to separate different molecules. It is used extensively in the analysis of proteins, alleles and DNA. This technique involves placing a mixture of molecules into wells cut into agarose gel and applying an electric field.

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23
Q

What does the movement of charged particles in gel electrophoresis depend on?

A

■ net (overall) charge – negatively charged molecules move towards the anode (+) and positively charged molecules move towards the cathode (–); highly charged molecules move faster than those with less overall charge
■ size – smaller molecules move through the gel faster than larger molecules
■ composition of the gel – common gels are
polyacrylamide for proteins and agarose for DNA; the size of the ‘pores’ within the gel determines the speed with which proteins and fragments of DNA move.

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24
Q

What happens in the electrophoresis of proteins?

A

The charge on proteins is dependent on the ionisation of the R groups on the amino acid residues.
Whether these R groups are charged or not depends on the pH. When proteins are separated by electrophoresis, the procedure is carried out at a constant pH using a buffer solution. Usually proteins have a net negative charge.
Gel electrophoresis has been used to separate the
polypeptides produced by different alleles of many genes. For example, allozymes are variant forms of enzymes produced by different alleles of the same gene.
There are also many variants of haemoglobin.
Adult haemoglobin is composed of four polypeptides: 2 α-globins and 2 β-globins. In sickle cell anaemia, a variant of β-globin has an amino acid with a non-polar R group instead of one with an R group that is charged. These two variants of the β-globin can be separated by electrophoresis because they have different net charges. This means that haemoglobin molecules in people who have sickle cell anaemia have a slightly lower negative charge than normal haemoglobin and so the molecules do not move as far through the gel as molecules of normal haemoglobin. The test to find out whether someone carries the sickle cell allele makes use of this difference.

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25
Q

Where do the DNA fragments move in gel electrophoresis?

A

`To the anode due to carrying a small charge thanks to the negatively charged phosphate groups.

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26
Q

What are VNTRs?

A

A region of DNA that is known to vary between
different people is chosen. These regions often contain variable numbers of repeated DNA sequences and are known as variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs).

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27
Q

What is genetic profiling?

A

It is sequencing a length of DNA of one organism and comparing it to another by looking at the ‘variable number tandem repeats’ (VNTRs)

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28
Q

How is gel electrophoresis of DNA carried out?

A

DNA is extracted from anything that contains cells such as root of hair, blood splatter, saliva and so on. Usually the quantity of DNA is increased by using the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), which makes many copies of the DNA that has been found. The DNA is then chopped into pieces using restriction enzymes known to cleave it close to the VNTR regions. Now the DNA is ready for electrophoresis.
The DNA is placed on agarose gel and current is applied. Fragments travel towards anode, shorter fragments traveling further/faster, than longer ones.
When the current is turned off, the gel contains DNA fragments that have ended up in different places. These fragments are not visible straight away.
To make the fragments visible, they are carefully
transferred onto absorbent paper, which is placed on top of the gel. The paper is then heated just enough to make the two strands in each DNA molecule separate from one another. Short sequences of single-stranded DNA called probes are added; they have base sequences complementary to the VNTR regions. The probes also contain a radioactive phosphorus isotope so when the paper is placed on an X-ray film, the radiation emitted by the probes (which are stuck to the DNA fragments) make the film go dark. So, we end up with a pattern of dark stripes on the film matching the positions that the DNA fragments reached on the agarose gel. Alternatively, the probes may be labelled with a fluorescent stain that shows up when ultraviolet light is shone onto them.

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29
Q

How is the polymerase chain reaction carried out?

A
  1. First, the DNA is denatured by heating it to around 95 °C to separate the DNA molecule into its two strands, leaving bases exposed.
  2. Annealing- A primer(short length of DNA that has a base sequence complementary to the start of the part of the DNA strand that is to be copied) attaches to the start of the DNA strand. This requires a temperature of about 65°C.
  3. Elongation- Building up complete new DNA strands using DNA polymerase requires a temperature of around 72 °C.
    Once the DNA has been copied, the mixture is heated again, which once more separates the two strands in each DNA molecule, leaving them available for copying again. Once more, the primers fix themselves to the start of each strand of unpaired nucleotides, and DNA polymerase makes complementary copies of them.
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30
Q

What does the PCR machine consist of and what does it look like?

A

The tubes are very small (they hold about 0.05 cm3) and have very thin walls, so when the temperature in
the machine changes, the temperature inside the tubes changes very quickly.
The DNA sample is placed into a tube together with the primers, free nucleotides, a buffer solution and the DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerases used for this process come from microorganisms that have evolved to live in hot environments.

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31
Q

What are some advantages of Taq polymerase?

A

o It is not easily destroyed by denaturing so doesn’t
have to be replaced every cycle
o High optimum temperature: so temperature for the elongation step does not have to be dropped below that of the annealing process, so efficiency is maximised.

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32
Q

What is a microarray?

A

It is a collection of genes, each in placed in
depressions on a small chip/ slide that is used to identify the genes present in an organism’s genome, which genes are being expressed and the level of activity.

33
Q

How can microarrays be used to compare genes between two different species?

A

DNA is collected from each species and cut up into fragments and denatured to give lengths of single-stranded DNA. The DNA is labelled with fluorescent tags so that – for example – DNA from one species may be labelled with green tags and DNA from the other species labelled with red tags. The labelled DNA samples are mixed together and allowed to hybridise with the probes on the microarray. Any DNA that does not bind to probes on the microarray is washed off. The microarray is then inspected using ultraviolet light, which causes the tags to fluoresce. Where this happens, we know that hybridisation has taken place because the DNA fragments are complementary to the probes. Green and red fluorescent spots indicate where DNA from one species only has hybridised with the probes. Where DNA from both species hybridise with a probe, a yellow colour is seen. Yellow spots indicate that the two species have DNA with exactly the same base sequence. This suggests that they have the same genes. If there is no colour, for a particular position on the microarray it means that no DNA has hybridised with the probe and that a particular gene is not present in either species.
The microarray is then scanned so that the data can be read by a computer. Data stored by the computer indicate which genes are present in both species, which genes are only found in one of the species and which genes are not present in either species.

34
Q

How can a microarray be used to see which genes are expressed?

A

The mRNA from the two types of cell is collected and reverse transcriptase is used to convert mRNA to cDNA.
As the quantity of mRNA in a cell at one time is quite small, the quantity of cDNA may need to be increased by PCR. The cDNA is labelled with fluorescent tags, denatured to give single-stranded DNA and allowed to hybridise with probes on the microarray.
Spots on the microarray that fluoresce indicate the genes that were being transcribed in the cell. The intensity of light emitted by each spot indicates the level of activity of each gene. A high intensity indicates that many mRNA molecules were present in the sample, while a low intensity indicates that there were very few. The results therefore not only show which genes are active, but also their level of activity.

35
Q

What is bioinformatics and what does it do?

A

Bioinformatics is the collection, processing and
analysis of biological information and data using
computer software.
Bioinformatics combines biological data with computer technology and makes links

36
Q

What are some advantages of bioinformatics? |(4)

A
  1. The databases hold gene sequences, complete genomes, amino acid sequences and protein structures.
  2. Researchers can use these databases to find similarities between the sequence of what they are studying and of saved sequences in the databases.
  3. Sequences(e.g. amino acid, genome) can be matched and degree of similarity calculated, this can show if there is common ancestry.
  4. Information stored in database about plasmodium
    allows us to find new methods to control it eg providing valuable information in the development of vaccines
37
Q

What are the advantages of producing proteins by genetic engineering? (5)

A
  1. Simple nutritional requirement
  2. Large volume of product produced
  3. Production facilities do not require much space and so can take place all around the world
  4. No risk of infection e.g. HIV from blood donation
  5. Less ethical issues as blood need not be extracted
    from animals or donors
38
Q

What is a disadvantage of producing proteins by GM bacteria?

A

Bacteria don’t modify their proteins the same way eukaryotes do since Golgi bodies are absent.

39
Q

What is factor viii?

A

This is a protein essential for blood clotting, and people who cannot make it are said to have haemophilia.

40
Q

How is factor viii produced?

A

Genetically modified hamster cells are used by several companies to produce factor VIII.
The human gene for making factor VIII has been inserted into hamster kidney and ovary cells which are then cultured in fermenters. The cells constantly produce factor VIII which is extracted and purified before being used to treat people with haemophilia. These people need regular injections of factor VIII.
Before the availability of recombinant factor VIII, factor viii came from donated blood and caused risks of infection.

41
Q

What is genetic screening and when can it be done?

A

Genetic screening is the analysis of a person’s DNA to check for the presence of a particular allele(e.g. Breast cancer, Huntington’s). This can be done in adults, in a fetus or embryo in the uterus, or in a newly formed embryo produced by in vitro fertilisation.

42
Q

How can the possibility of breast cancer be tested?

A

Adult woman can screen for faulty alleles of the genes BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 which increases chances of breast cancer.

43
Q

What is PGD and how is it carried out?

A

This technique involves the mixing of the father’s sperm with the mother’s eggs. At the eight-cell stage of IVF, one of the cells from the tiny embryo is removed. The DNA in the cell is analysed and used to predict whether or not the embryo would have a genetic disease. An embryo that was not carrying the allele that would cause the disease was chosen for implantation, and embryos that did have this allele were discarded. This procedure is known as pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.

44
Q

What is amniocentesis?

A

It is performed at 15-16 weeks and is used to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid and the cells are checked for any genetic abnormalities. This procedure is monitored by ultrasound scanning.

45
Q

What is chorionic villus sampling and how is it carried out?

A

Chorionic villus sampling can be carried out between
10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy, so it allows parents to get an earlier warning of any genetic abnormalities in the fetus than is possible with amniocentesis. A small sample of part of the placenta called the chorion is removed by a needle. The procedure is monitored by ultrasound scanning.

46
Q

What is a disadvantage of both chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis?

A

There is a small increased risk of miscarriage.

47
Q

What is therapeutic abortion?

A

Therapeutic abortion is terminating pregnancies for

medical reasons and having advice from professionals.

48
Q

What are some disadvantages of genetic screening? (4)

A
  1. Parents decide to have abortions even if the defect is minor and the child could be expected to have normal life.
  2. Parents also abort due to the sex of their child, and use PGD to select the sex of the embryo. This preselection is considered unethical.
  3. People that are diagnosed with the disease may never develop it but would have to live with the fear of knowing it may start at any time (eg Huntington’s).
  4. Could lead to the birth of designer babies where parents select other aesthetically pleasing traits, also unethical.
49
Q

What are some types of viruses that can be used as vectors?

A

Retroviruses and lentiviruses

50
Q

What are some examples of a vector?

A

Viruses, liposomes(small spheres of phospholipid) and naked DNA

51
Q

What is SCID?

A

The defect in severe combined immunodeficiency disease involves the inability to make an enzyme, adenosine deaminase (ADA) which is vital for the functioning of the immune system. Children are often isolated inside plastic bubbles to protect them from infections.

52
Q

What is a temporary fix of SCID?

A

High yields of the enzyme, adenosine deaminase(ADA) which is used to treat SCID are made by genetically modified insect larva.
Gene therapy can be used in this case. Some of the child’s T-lymphocytes were removed and normal alleles of the ADA gene were introduced into them, using a virus as a vector. The cells were then replaced. This was not a permanent cure. Regular transfusions (every three to five months) were necessary to keep the immune system functioning.

53
Q

How do retroviruses work and what is their disadvantage?

A

Retroviruses insert their genes into host randomly, so they may insert it within a gene, or even worse into the regulatory gene and so can cause cancer.

54
Q

How do lentiviruses work?

A

Lentiviruses also insert genes randomly, however, they can be modified to inactivate replication.

55
Q

What is gene therapy?

A

It is the altering of genes by inserting ‘normal’ alleles of these genes into the cells using a vector.

56
Q

What is inherited eye disease?

A

This is a form of hereditary blindness in which retinal cells die off gradually from an early age

57
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele of the gene that codes for a transporter protein called CFTR. This protein is present in cell membranes of cells in the alveoli and allows chloride ions to pass out of cells. The recessive allele codes for a faulty version of this protein that does not act properly as a chloride ion transporter.

58
Q

What is the difference between people with cystic fibrosis and normal people?

A

Normally, the cells lining the airways and in the lungs pump out chloride ions (Cl−) through the channel in the cell surface membrane formed by CFTR. This results in a relatively high concentration of chloride ions outside the cells. This reduces the water potential below that of the cytoplasm of the cells. So water moves out of the cells by osmosis, down the water potential gradient. It mixes with the mucus there, making it thin enough for easy removal by the sweeping movements of cilia.
However, in someone with cystic fibrosis, much less water moves out of the cells, so the mucus on their surfaces stays thick and sticky. The cilia, or even coughing, can’t remove it all.

59
Q

What effects can the CTFR gene have on the body?

A
  1. Due to mucus not moving effectively by cilia, bacteria and dust accumulate, causing infections.
  2. Reduces gaseous exchange, by making it a longer
    diffusion pathway
  3. Causes difficulty in breathing
  4. Lungs may be scarred
  5. The pancreatic duct may become blocked, and people with cystic fibrosis often take pancreatic enzymes by mouth to help with digestion.
  6. Many men with cystic fibrosis are sterile, because thick secretions block ducts in the reproductive system.
60
Q

What are the vectors that have been used for people with cystic fibrosis?

A

o Liposomes in aerosol sprays
o Viral delivery by retrovirus/ adenovirus
o Naked DNA for direct delivery

61
Q

To be used as a treatment, what needs to be done for people with cystic fibrosis?

A

To be used as a treatment, the allele really needs to get into many cells throughout the respiratory system, including the ones that divide to form new surface cells.

62
Q

What are some problems that occur when trying to treat people with cystic fibrosis?

A
  1. Allele needs to get into as many cells throughout
    respiratory system, including cells that divide.
  2. Short natural lifespan; effects only last for a few days
  3. Low uptake by target cells
  4. Only target lung cells at this time
  5. Side effects such as infections caused by the virus
63
Q

Where is CTFR gene found?

A

Chromosome 7

64
Q

What is the most common type of defect in the CTFR gene?

A

It is the deletion of three bases. The CTFR protein made using the code on this allele is therefore missing one amino acid. The machinery in the cell recognises that this is not the right protein and does not place it in the cell surface membrane.

65
Q

What is an advantage of using naked DNA as a vector for gene therapy?

A

It removes the problems associated with using vectors.

66
Q

What is an alternative to placing the new allele in somatic cells in gene therapy? What is a problem that is created?

A

Inserting the allele into germ cells, that is, cells that are involved in sexual reproduction. The problem with this is that it creates a ‘germ line’ where the allele is passed on from generation to generation.

67
Q

What is an advantage of a herbicide-resistant crop?

A

Growing a herbicide-resistant crop allows fields to be sprayed with herbicide after the crop has germinated, killing any weeds that would otherwise compete with the crop for space, light, water or ions. This increases the yield of the crop.

68
Q

What are some disadvantages of herbicide-resistant crops?

A
  1. the genetically modified plant will become an agricultural weed
  2. pollen will transfer the gene to wild relatives, producing hybrid offspring that are invasive weeds
  3. herbicide-resistant weeds will evolve because so much of the same herbicide is used.
69
Q

What are some disadvantages of insect-resistant crops?

A
  1. the evolution of resistance by the insect pests
  2. a damaging effect on other species of insects
  3. the transfer of the added gene to other species of plant.
70
Q

Describe herbicide resistant oil seed rape.

A

Oil seed rape that is resistant to the herbicide glyphosate, which would otherwise kill the plant. The gene was transferred into the crop came from a strain of the bacterium Agrobacterium. This gene allows an enzyme in the crop to continue to synthesise the three amino acids, that would otherwise stop being synthesised due to the effect of the herbicide.
The herbicide glyphosate inhibits the enzyme in plants without the resistant gene. Without the proteins being synthesised the plants die.

71
Q

How has tobacco been made resistant to herbicides?

A

Genes were taken from other species of plants.

72
Q

How have maize and cotton become resistant to insects?

A

Maize and cotton have been genetically modified with a gene for Bt toxin which allows the plants to produce their own insecticide. The insects are killed after they ingest plant parts.

73
Q

What are some advantages of Bt toxin?

A

The productivity of the genetically engineered insect-resistant maize and cotton plants increases resulting in an increase in yield (although insects have developed resistance to the Bt toxin genes).
Another advantage of growing Bt maize and cotton is that less pesticides are used which could have ecological benefits (eg. non-targeted invertebrates not harmed) and could mean less risk for humans from spray drift and / or from pesticide residue on foods consumed

74
Q

Why is golden rice healthier than white rice?

A

Golden rice is meant to be healthier than white rice due to increased Vitamin A content, as its deficiency can cause blindness and the immune deficiency syndrome that in turn causes a high level of mortality in children in developing countries.

75
Q

How is golden rice made?

A

Genes for the production of carotene were extracted from maize and the bacterium. These genes, together with promoters, were inserted into plasmids. The plasmids were inserted into bacteria called Agrobacterium tumefaciens. The rice embryos, now containing the carotene genes, were grown into adult plants. They produced seeds containing carotene in their endosperm. These bacteria naturally infect plants and so could introduce the genetically modified plasmid into rice cells. They were mixed with rice embryos in Petri dishes, some of which were infected by the bacteria carrying the carotene genes.

76
Q

What are some disadvantages of golden rice?

A
  1. GM seed could be difficult for farmers in developing countries to obtain, as it cannot be replanted
  2. High cost of buying GM seed, so also expensive for people to buy
  3. May not grow well in all conditions
  4. Might reduce efforts to relieve poverty
77
Q

How is GM salmon made?

A

Scientists combined a growth hormone gene from a chinook salmon with the promoter gene from an ocean pout, a cold-water fish. The ocean pout fish can grow in near-freezing waters, thus the promoter gene ensured the growth hormone was continually being expressed, allowing it to grow more rapidly than non-GM salmon.

78
Q

How is GM salmon prevented from reproducing in the wild?

A

To prevent the GM salmon from reproducing in the wild, all the salmon are female and sterile

79
Q

What are some concerns about GMO crops?

A
  1. The GM crops may become weeds or invade the natural habitats bordering the farmland
  2. The development of resistance for the introduced genes in the wild relative populations
  3. Cost to farmers (new seed needs to purchase each year)
  4. Could cause allergic reactions
  5. Reduction in biodiversity which could affect food webs
  6. The herbicides that are used on the GM crops could leave toxic residues.
  7. They are expensive and their cost may remove any advantage of growing a resistant crop.