Chapter 19, 23, & 25 Flashcards
1
Q
Are the following rules the correct puncture procedure for collecting capillary blood:
- Puncture away from midline of the finger or heel.
- Do not puncture parallel to the groves or lines of the fingertip.
- Make a quick stab with the lancet no greater than 2 mm deep on the side of the finger (off-center).
True or False?
A
TRUE
2
Q
Fungi that appear refractile, or reflective, fragments of fungal elements are found on what part of the body?
A
Skin and nails
3
Q
How would you move or transport microscopes?
A
Holding the arm and base of the microscope
4
Q
When should specimens be labeled?
A
Before leaving the patient
5
Q
Gram positive bacteria stain what color?
A
Deep blue or purple
6
Q
When using the ocular lenses, how would you calculate the total magnification of a specimen?
A
Multiply ocular magnification power times objective magnification power
7
Q
When using the coarse adjustment knob, how many inches is objective lens away from the object?
A
1/4 inch
8
Q
The addition of one drop of 2% acetic acid to urine sediment will disintegrate what urine sediment cell?
A
Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
9
Q
What method are prepared from clinical specimens or from culture media spread across a glass slide for microscopic examination?
A
Smear
10
Q
As hyphae continue to grow and branch, they develop into a mat of growth called?
A
Mycelium (pl. mycelia)
11
Q
Which leukocyte is associated with inflammatory disorders and certain leukemias?
A
Basophil
12
Q
What takes place when antibodies bind with specific antigens depending on a close three-dimensional fit?
A
Antigen-antibody reaction
13
Q
What anticoagulant does the green top use for chemistry?
A
Heparin
14
Q
What type of urinalysis includes the examination of physical characteristics, chemical characteristics, and microscopic structures in the sediment?
A
Routine urinalysis
15
Q
What does dark orange urine indicate the presence of?
A
Pyridium
16
Q
When performing a finger or heel puncture, the first drop should be wiped away to avoid what?
A
Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids.
17
Q
What test is an accurate, 2-minute disposable test designed to detect the presence of infectious mononucleosis antibodies in serum, plasma, or whole blood?
A
Monospot test
18
Q
What Standard Form is the “Laboratory Report Display”?
A
SF 545
19
Q
What is defined as the density of a solution compared to an equal volume of distilled water?
A
Specific gravity
20
Q
What is the term used for the volume of erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample?
A
Hematocrit
21
Q
Where are most capillary blood collected from an adult?
A
Middle or ring finger
22
Q
What is the term used for organisms that do not reproduce in the presence of oxygen?
A
Anaerobes
23
Q
Reactive specimens for Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) tests look like? Non-reactive?
A
Reactive = black clumps against white backgroundNon-reactive = even, light gray color
24
Q
In manual method for determining hemoglobin, blood is mixed with ______________. This process hemolyzes, or destroys red cells (erythrocytes), disrupting the integrity of erythrocytes membranes and causing the release of hemoglobin, which is converted to a brownish-colored solution.
A
Cyanomethoglobin
25
What part of the compound microscope illumination system is located on the condenser to control the amount and angle of light rays that will pass to the specimen and lens, which affects the overall resolution, or ability to observe and interpret a sample?
Iris Diaphragm
26
Which study within the CBC often provides the most helpful information in determining the severity and type of infection?
White Blood Cell (WBC) Differential Count
27
What is the approximate magnification for high-power objective lens?
40x
28
What sample medical conditions are determined for (a) below and (b) above hematocrit determinations?
(a) below = anemia (b) above = dehydration
29
Where are capillary blood collected from a newborn?
Heel or great toe
30
What is widely used to detect and measure the presence of antigen-antibody reactions?
Agglutination tests
31
The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) kit a specific test to diagnose what?
Syphilis
32
If any arm veins cannot be used due to interference such as IV fluid or mastectomy, who must be consulted to use hand or foot veins?
Supervisor
33
Do you let the alcohol pad or povidone-iodine solution dry after cleansing the fingertip?
Yes
34
Which type of toxin is produced by bacteria, found outside the cell wall, and is considered highly poisonous and associated with septic shock?
Exotoxin
35
What bacilli bacteria causes Gas gangrene, Tetanus, and Botulism in a Gram-positive stain?
Clostridium tetani
36
What test consists of specially prepared, stable sheep or horse erythrocyte antigen (dyed) and guinea pig antigen on a disposable slide?
Monospot Test
37
What is the term used for organisms that reproduces in the presence of oxygen?
Aerobes
38
Hat is the term used for specific defensive proteins produced by the host in response to the presence of an antigen and its primary function is to combine with antigens in body defenses?
Antibodies
39
In Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) Card test method of syphilis detection, what specific antigen detects "Reagin", a substance present in the serum of persons who are infected with syphilis or suffering from similar tissue damage?
Carbon-particle cardiolipin
40
What is the function of hemoglobin in the body?
Delivers and releases oxygen to the tissues and facilitate carbon dioxide excretion
41
Freshly passed urine is usually clear or transparent. True or False?
TRUE
42
What anticoagulant does the light blue top use for coagulation studies?
Sodium citrate
43
It is important to obtain a focus with the low-power first, then change to the higher objective. Tue or False?
TRUE
44
When performing a WBC Differential, which cell has a lilac-colored cytoplasm and a dark or reddish purple nucleus that may be oval, horseshoe or "S"-shaped, or segmented (lobulated)?
Neutrophil
45
What are the normal hemoglobin determination values for (a) women and (b) men?
(a) women = 12-16 (b) men = 14-18 grams per 100 ml blood
46
Which temperature requirement category are bacteria that reproduces best at body temperature (35 degrees C) and are the primary pathogens to man?
Mesophilic
47
Which part of the compound microscope framework is the structure on which the microscope rests?
Base
48
What method of blood collection is performed when a small quantity of blood is needed for testing as in the case of some pediatric blood draws and when access are limited on a severely burned patient or ICU patient?
Capillary Blood Collection Method
49
What urine sediment cell are derived from the linings of the genitourinary system?
Epithelial cells
50
Large numbers of casts in the urine is almost sure to be positive for?
Albumin
51
What are chlorophyll-free, heterotrophic (not self nourishing) of the same family of plants as algae and lichens; reproduced by spores that germinate into long filaments called hyphae?
Fungi
52
What is the specific concern that is enacted by Congress and is enforced via the Departments of Health and Human Services (HHS) detailing how protected health information (PHI) may be transmitted and released?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
53
What does olive green to brown-black urine indicate the presence of?
Phenols
54
What is the condition referred to when WBC rises above normal values and occurs when systemic or local infections are present?
Leukocytosis
55
Which leukocyte helps respond by ingesting invading bacteria?
Neutrophil
56
Which neutrophil sub-classification is an older or intermediate neutrophil that started to elongate and has curved itself into a horseshoe, C or U-shaped and it's sometimes called "stab" cell?
Neutrophilic Band
57
Which type of lens is responsible for the magnification and resolution of detail in a specimen, has a set of three lenses, and it is the lens nearest the specimen?
Objective lens
58
What is also known as the vacutainer method that is defined as the puncture of a vein for drawing blood in which the arm is considered the best site for obtaining blood?
Venipuncture
59
Which leukocyte is generally round, oval, or slightly indented, and the chromatin (a network of fibers within the nucleus) is lumpy and condensed at the periphery?
Lymphocyte
60
What is the normal color of urine?
Varies from straw to amber
61
What are the three categories for bacteria temperature requirements?
Psychrophilic, Mesophilic, and Thermophilic.
62
Which control knob is the smaller outer knob that when rotated, renders the image clear and well-defined?
Fine Control Knob
63
What type of strips consist of chemical impregnated absorbent pads attached to a plastic strip?
Urinalysis Reagent Strips
64
What are the four parts of the compound microscope framework?
Arm, stage, mechanical (movable) stage, and base.
65
Specimens that have been refrigerated must be allowed to return to room temperature prior to reagent testing, since some enzymatic reactions on the strips are temperature dependent. True or False?
TRUE
66
The following are ways bacteria is classified: Disease-producing ability; growth requirements; morphologic characteristic; toxins produced; and gram's stain reaction. True or False?
TRUE
67
Which urine specimen is the most commonly (routine) used because of the ease of collection and convenience for the patient and considered the least valid specimen?
Random Urine Specimen
68
What are the normal values of hematocrit for a normal, healthy (a) female and (b) male?
(a) female = 37-47% (b) male = 42-52% of blood volume
69
What are the 5 items collected and documented upon creation of a treatment record at the point of accession?
G6PD, Sickle Cell, ABO/Rh (Blood Type), DNA, and current HIV.
70
What cocci bacteria causes Pneumonia in a Gram-positive stain?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
71
What is the term used for a substance that, when introduced into an individual's body, is recognized as foreign to the body, and causes a detectable reaction?
Antigen
72
What are the four growth requirements for bacteria?
Temperature, oxygen, nutrition, and moisture.
73
What percent of Potassium hydroxide (KOH) is used to test for fungi?
10%
74
What part of the compound microscope contains openings into which objective lenses are fitted, and revolves objectives into desired position?
Revolving Nosepiece
75
What part of the compound microscope illumination system is located in the base providing a precise and steady source of light into the microscope?
Internal light source
76
What two methods of preservation are used to delay the decomposition of urine?
Refrigeration and preservatives (hydrochloric acid)
77
What part of the compound microscope is a tube that permits light to travel from the objective to the ocular lens?
Body Tube
78
What does red or red-brown urine indicate the presence of?
Blood
79
What is the term used to define bacteria that are spherical or round in shape?
Coccus (pl. cocci)
80
For most of the clinical laboratory examinations, what is considered the preferred method of obtaining blood specimens?
Venipuncture
81
Which color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry test?
Red top
82
How often would the phlebotomy work site equipment and furniture be disinfected?
Daily or as needed after patient care
83
What is the term used to define bacteria that is helical, spiral, or crockscrew-shaped?
Spirochetes (pl. spirilla)
84
What would you want to do with the urine during the 24-Hour urine collection?
Refrigerate
85
In some difficult draw situations, the tourniquet is sometimes left on until the last tube is filled. How long would you leave the tourniquet on?
No more than one minute
86
What is the normal daily urine volume for an adult?
600-2,000 ml
87
Which type of lens, also known as "eyepiece" is located on top of the body tube and has a magnification power of 10x?
Ocular Lenses
88
What is the function of leukocytes (White Blood Cells)?
To control various disease conditions
89
What are the two ways to perform a Complete Blood Count (CBC)?
Manually or automated hematology analyzers
90
What study consists of an examination of blood to determine the presence and the number of different types of white blood cells usually expressed in a percentage?
White Blood Cell Differential Count
91
This test consists of procedures by which antigens and reacting serum globulin antibodies may be measured qualitatively and quantitatively based on agglutination reactions between an antigen and a specific antibody?
Serology
92
How would you remove (a) dust and (b) oil from compound microscopes?
(a) Lint-free lens tissue (b) lens cleaning solution with lens tissue
93
Hemoglobin concentration below 7 indicates severe anemia and may require?
Blood transfusion
94
Which part of the compound microscope framework supports the magnification and focusing system and is the handle by which the microscope is carried?
Arm
95
What cocci bacteria causes Meningitis in a Gram-negative stain?
Neisseria meningitis
96
What cocci bacteria causes Gonorrhea in a Gram-negative stain?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
97
Gram negative bacteria stain what color?
Deep pink
98
What is term used to define bacteria that are rod-shaped?
Bacillus (pl. bacilli)
99
What bacilli bacteria causes the Bubonic plague in a Gram-negative stain?
Yersinia (Pasteurella) pestis
100
What are some common superficial infections of the skin caused by fungi?
Athlete's foot and ringworm of the scalp
101
What are the five types of White Blood Cells (WBCs) normally found in the circulating blood?
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes, and Monocytes.
102
What urine sediment cell is not normally found in urine?
Red Blood Cells (Erythrocytes)
103
What is the normal number of leukocytes per high-power filed seen on a microscopic examination?
0-3 leukocytes per high-power field
104
Which urine specimen is the first urine voided upon rising is considered the most ideal screening because it is usually concentrated?
First Morning Urine Specimen
105
What type of leukocyte compromises the largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood?
Neutrophil
106
The best urine specimen for screening purposes is that taken as?
First morning
107
Which leukocyte is associated with immune response and the body's defense against viral infection?
Lymphocyte
108
In Gram's stain, what color is the primary stain?
Crystal violet
109
White Blood Cell (WBC) count above 50,000 indicate?
Acute infection
110
What is the minimum file percentage of certain ship's company is required to be enrolled in the Walking Blood Bank?
10%
111
What anticoagulant does the lavender top use for Complete Blood Count (CBC)?
EDTA
112
Which leukocyte is the largest of the normal White Blood Cells (WBC), controls microbial and fungal infections, and removes damaged cells from the body?
Monocyte
113
The illumination system of the compound microscope evenly distributes light and contains what three parts?
Internal light source, condenser, and an iris diaphragm.
114
What must never be used to clean the microscope because it damages the lens assembly?
Alcohol
115
What bacilli bacteria causes Whopping cough in a Gram-negative stain?
Bordetella pertussis
116
A report of transparency is of value only if the specimen is?
Fresh
117
What is the normal ranges of specific gravity?
1.015-1.030
118
What are the normal range of White Blood Cell (WBC) values in adults?
4.8-10.8 X 10*6/ml (per cubic millimeter)
119
What objective lens should be used for a detailed study of stained blood and bacterial smears?
Oil-immersion
120
Which temperature requirement category are "cold loving" bacteria that reproduces best at low temperatures (4 degrees C)?
Psychrophilic
121
When performing a WBC Differential, which cell has the large, scattered deep bluish-purple granules that are darker than the nucleus and may overlay the nucleus as well as the cytoplasm?
Basophil
122
Which type of toxin compromises part of the cell wall and is released as the bacterial cell is destroyed and this type is considered to be less potent, but may effect the patient during antibiotic therapy?
Endotoxin
123
The following physiology conditions can cause what condition: shortly after birth; pregnancy; appendicitis; ulcers; emotional stress; anxiety; and strenuous activity?
Leukocytosis
124
What is the approximate magnification of low-power objective lens?
10x
125
Hemoglobin determination, also known as hemoglobinometry is the measurement of what within the patient's red blood cells?
Concentration of hemoglobin
126
What is the chemical preparations frequently used to detect fungi?
Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
127
What bacilli bacteria causes Diphtheria in a Gram-positive stain?
Corynebacterium diphtheria
128
Glucose and ketones both positive on the urine reagent strip may indicate?
Uncontrolled diabetes
129
Which part of the compound microscope framework is the platform on which a specimen is placed for examination and at the center is an aperture or hole that allows the passage of light from the condenser?
Stage
130
What contains a system of lenses with sufficient magnification and resolving power allowing small elements close together in a specimen to appear larger and distinctly separated?
Compound microscope
131
What manual method is used when blood is centrifuged to determine the hematocrit?
Microhematocrit method
132
What is the condition referred to when the WBC is abnormally low?
Leukopenia
133
Which temperature requirement category are bacteria that reproduces best at higher temperatures (42 degrees C)?
Thermophilic
134
Which leukocyte destroys parasites and respond immediately to allergic reactions; the cytoplasm contains numerous large reddish-orange granules?
Eosinophil
135
A tourniquet is normally applied before to aid in the process of venipuncture. At what point in the venipuncture procedure should the tourniquet be removed?
Once blood flows freely into tubes
136
Upon what activity do all urine specimens will develop a faint cloud composed of mucus, leukocytes, and epithelial cells?
Standing and cooling
137
What is the method used in the laboratory to identify bacteria and that can be performed in isolated duty locations or onboard Naval vessels?
Smear method
138
What is defined as a red cell (erythrocytes) count below normal values?
Anemia
139
What anticoagulant does the grey top use for chemistry (plasma samples)?
Sodium Flouride
140
What are the three types of urine specimens?
Random, first morning, and 24-hour
141
What are the urinary sediment that are formed by coagulation of albuminous material in the kidney tubules; they are cylindrical and vary in diameter, sides are parallel, and the ends are rounded?
Casts
142
What operational program may be used on some operational platforms to treat critical patients in a mass casualty situation when delay of blood products would cause a critical delay?
Walking Blood Bank (WBB)
143
What are the three physical characteristics when routine urinalysis is being evaluated?
Color, appearance, and specific gravity
144
Which part of the compound microscope framework holds the specimen in place and is the means by which the specimen may be moved about on the stage to view the sample?
Mechanical (movable) Stage
145
How far below should you "Anchor" the vein using your thumb of the free hand and slightly to the side of the intended venipuncture site, and pull the skin towards your wrist?
1-2 inches
146
Under what concept outlined by Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) are all human blood and certain other human body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious?
Universal Bloodborne Pathogen Precautions
147
How far above the intended phlebotomy site should the tourniquet be placed?
3-4 inches above the site
148
What is the magnification of microscopic examination of urine sediment that is fresh as possible in addition to routine chemical procedures?
40x
149
Fungi that appear as dense clouds are found in what part of the body or Linear rows?
Hair
150
Which control knob is the larger inner knob that when rotated, allows the image to appear in approximate focus?
Coarse Control Knob
151
What are the two principal method of obtaining blood specimens?
Capillary and venipuncture method
152
What is the desired urine sample volume for routine testing?
12 ml
153
What equipment is used to measure specific gravity?
Index refractometer
154
Which neutrophil sub-classification is a mature neutrophil which the nucleus is separated into two, three, four, or five lobes?
Segmented Neutrophil
155
The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test to screen for syphilis is best used with what type of specimen?
Serum
156
The following conditions may cause what: severe or advance bacterial infections (typhoid, paratyphoid, and tularemia); infections caused by virus and rickettsiae (measles, rubella, smallpox, hepatitis, psittacosis, dengue fever, and influenza); anaphylactic shock; and radiation?
Leukopenia
157
What type of microscope is most often used in the laboratory?
Compound microscope
158
What bacilli bacteria causes Brucellosis in a Gram-negative stain?
Brucella abortus
159
What are the two types of toxins produced as waste products of metabolism in bacterial cell?
Endotoxin and Exotoxin
160
Which leukocyte have cytoplasms that is clear sky blue, scanty, with few unevenly distributed, blue granules with a halo around them?
Lymphocyte
161
The following steps are for what urine specimen: (1) have the patient empty bladder and discard urine; (2) collect urine for 24 hours; (3) instruct patient to empty bladder at 0800 the following day and add the urine to the collection?
24-Hour Urine Specimen
162
Formed elements such as red and white blood cells sink to the bottom of the specimen and will be undetected by the reagent strips unless?
Urine is mixed
163
What does yellow or brown urine indicate the presence of?
Bile
164
How many weeks does Reagin usually develop after the appearance of a primary chancre?
1-4 weeks
165
What is the term used for bacteria that cause disease?
Pathogen
166
What factors affect the hemoglobin determination values?
Age, sex, disease, and altitude
167
The correct needle position for venipuncture is (a) what degree angle and (b) with the bevel in what position?
(a) 15-30. (b) up
168
What are the two lens systems on the compound microscope magnification system?
Objective and ocular lenses
169
What are the two parts of the compound microscope that comprise of the focusing system?
Coarse and Fine Control Knob
170
Casts in the urine always indicate some form of what type of disorder?
Kidney disorder
171
More than 3 leukocyte cells per high-power field may indicate disease where?
Urinary tract
172
Which color tube is the best choice for Complete Blood Count (CBC)?
Lavender top
173
What consists of the following tests: total Red Blood Cell (RBC) count, Hemoglobin determination (Hgb), Hematocrit (Hct), total White Blood Cell (WBC) count, and White Blood Cell Differential count?
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
174
The formation of hemoglobin takes place during the development of red cells (erythrocytes) located where?
Bone marrow
175
Who is responsible for coordinating a well-planned transfusion program?
Senior Medical Department Representative (SMDR) and embarked laboratory personnel
176
What is the approximate magnification for oil-immersion objective lens?
100x
177
What part of the compound microscope illumination system is composed of a compact lens system, located below the stage, and concentrates and focuses light from the light source on the specimen?
Condenser
178
Which leukocyte has an indented nucleus and abundant pale bluish-gray cytoplasm?
Monocyte
179
What cocci bacteria causes strep throat in a Gram-positive stain?
Streptococcus pyogenes
180
How is the strip held to ensure against run-over, when comparing it with the color chart?
Horizontal from the color chart
181
What is the primary cause of death from a Blister agent?
Massive edema or mechanical pulmonary obstruction
182
Which autoinjector kit is a single autoinjector that has two chambers that deliver 2.1mg of Atropine and 600mg of 2-PAM CL in a single injection?
Autoinjector Treatment Nerve Agent Antidote (ATNAA)
183
Which of the three types of Plague has death results from respiratory failure, circulatory collapse, and shock; and if treatment is not started within 24 hours of onset of symptoms, the disease is 100% fatal?
Pneumonic plague
184
Which radiation measurement device is a multi-range Radiac device that detects beta and gamma radiation and uses a Gieger Mueller ionization chamber and has two ranges for radiation levels, mR/hr and R/hr?
Radiac Set AN/PDQ-1
185
What are the isolation and decontamination treatment for Plague?
Respiratory isolation; get rid of patients and their clothing of fleas; cleanse patients with soap and water; use 1% bleach solution for decontamination
186
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is a disease caused by the bacteria Bacillus anthracis and is a gram-positive, encapsulated, spore forming, non-motile rod; in which spore can survive in the environment for years or decade, awaiting patient by next host?
Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
187
Which type of chemical agents is odorless, colorless liquids or vapors?
Nerve Agents
188
Which radiation measurement device is used to perform ground radiological surveys in vehicles or in dismounted mode by individual personnel as a handheld instrument?
Radiac Set AN/VDR-2
189
Which nerve agent treatment removes the agent from the enzyme acetylcholinesterase within the synaptic cleft (the space between the nerve cells) of the nervous system?
Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CL)
190
M9 Chemical Agent Detection Paper turns what color if a nerve agent or a blister agent is present?
Pink red, reddish brown, or purple color
191
What are the first line antibiotic treatments for Anthrax?
Ciprofloxacin (500mg BID or 400mg Q12H IV) or Doxycycline (100mg Q12H orally or IV)
192
Which type of Radiation is a light, short-range particle and is actually an ejected electron? This may travel several feet in the air and can penetrate human skin to the "germinal layer", where new skin is produced.
Beta
193
Which type of Tularemia has a skin ulcer that appears at the site where the organism entered the body and the ulcer is usually accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy in the armpit or groin?
Ulceroglandular
194
What is the incubation period for Tularemia?
3-5 days
195
Which Blister agent smells like "Horseradish"?
Mustard (H)
196
Which of the three type of Anthrax has a primary lesion being ulcerative, emesis is blood-tinged or looks like coffee grounds, and stool may be blood-tinged or melenic (dark)?
Gastrointestinal Anthrax
197
Which chemical agent interferes with normal transmission of nerve impulses in the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system, pharmacologically cholinesterase inhibitors and their reaction with cholinesterase tends to be irreversible?
Nerve Agents
198
What are the four families of Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (VHFs)?
Arenaviruses, Filoviruses, Bunyaviruses and Flaviviruses
199
Which type of Radiation Dermatitis is a result from of long term exposure to low levels of radiation?
Chronic Radiation Dermatitis
200
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis found in rodents and their fleas; affects animals and humans; a gram-negative rod that is non-motile, and non-sporulating; and is easily destroyed by sunlight and drying?
Plague (Yersinia Pestis)
201
Which chemical agent that disrupts oxygen utilization at the cellular level rapidly causing cellular suffocation and is also known as cyanides?
Blood Agents
202
What is a the medical condition caused by long term exposure to dose radiation?
Chronic Radiation Syndrome (CRS)
203
What are the primary antibiotic treatments for Plagues?
Streptomycin (1g Q12H IV) or GentamicinAlternative Antibiotics: Doxycycline, Ciprofloxacin, or Chloramphenicol
204
Which of the three types of Plague usually follows Bubonic plagues and the patient develops prostration, circulatory collapse, septic shock, organ failure, hemorrhage, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and necrosis of extremities can be seen?
Septicemic plague
205
What are the two classes of Riot-Control/Harassment Agetns?
Lacrimation and Vomiting Agents
206
A first-line presumptive test is the ____-____ Assay Panel that can make an indication of the presence of several biological agents within 15 minutes.
Hand-Held Assay Panel
207
Transmission of Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) disease is through contact with contaminated material. True or False?
TRUE
208
Which type of Smallpox is the severe and most common form of smallpox, with a more extensive rash and higher fever? Has four types: ordinary, modified, flat and hemorrhagic.
Variola Major
209
what is the treatment for Ricin?
No known antidote. Provide supportive care.
210
Which Pulmonary Agent is a colorless gas that smells like new-mown hay or freshly cut grass?
Phosgene (CG)
211
Which common detection method is a portable kit (package of M8 paper, detailed instructions, and vapor sampler) that detects nerve gas, mustard gas, and cyanide; and the reactions typically take 15 minutes to occur?
M256A1 Chemical Agent Detector Kit
212
What are the two types of Radiation Dermatitis?
Acute and Chronic
213
Biological outbreaks that occur in multiple geographical locations are classified as?
Natural Occurrence and Intentional Release
214
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever are vectore-borne and transmission occurs via an arthropod vector (mosquitos, tick, or sandfly)? Crimean Congo, Rift Valley and Hantaan are examples of this.
Bunyaviruses
215
What is the incubation period for immunized plague? Primary plague pneumonia?
Immunized = 1-7 daysPrimary plague pneumonia = 1-4 days
216
What are the three types of Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) in humans?
Cutaneous, Pulmonary (Inhalation), and Gastrointestinal Anthrax
217
Which Blood agent has a bitter almonds smell?
Hydrogen Cyanide (AC)
218
How would you decontaminate vapor and liquid Pulmonary Agents?
#NAME?
219
Smallpox, Hemorrhagic fevers, Marburg, and Ebola are examples of what Biological Agent?
Viruses
220
What is the new autoinjector that will be replacing the MARK 1antidote kit?
Autoinjector Treatment Nerve Agent Antidote (ATNAA)
221
How would you decontaminate Riot-Control/Harassment Agents?
Change clothes, wash heavily contaminated patient with soap and water
222
The order of nerve agent decontamination is as follows:
1. Face
2. Neck area
3. Chest area
4. Abdomen
5. Arms and hands
6. Other exposed skin areas
True or False?
TRUE
223
What treatments are used to treat nerve agent exposure?
Atropine (3 syringes of 2 mg), 2-PAM CL (3 syringes of 600 mg), Diazepam or Convulsive Antidote Nerve Agent (CANA) (10 mg auto injector)
224
Plague is endemic in many countries in Africa, in the former Soviet Union, the Americas and Asia. Which of the countries listed was plague produced and weaponized in large quantities as a biological weapon?
Soviet Union
225
Which chemical agent is used to describe a collection of chemical compounds, all having similar characteristics which produce an immediate but temporary effect in very low concentrations; to harass enemy personnel or discourage riot actions causing people to become unable to perform their job due to discomfort?
Riot-Control/Harassment Agents
226
What are the second line antibiotic treatments for Anthrax?
Amoxicillin (500mg TID orally) or Penicillin G (2 mU Q4H IV)
227
Which chemical agent exert their primary action on the skin and produces large and painful blisters that are incapacitating and this agent is also known as a vesicant?
Blister Agent
228
What is the maximum dose Convulsion Antidote Nerve Agents (CANA) or Diazepam may be given at a 5-10 minute interval?
3
229
The International System of Units (SI) is replacing common American terminology; the new absorbed dose unit for ration is what?
Gray (Gy)
230
What type of Biological Agent is a serious, contagious, and sometimes fatal infectious disease that is caused by the VARIOLA virus and spread rapidly through aerosols or mucous membranes?
Smallpox
231
What items are used for decontamination of nerve agents?
Soap and water, 0.5% hypochlorite solution and M291 Kit
232
Which Riot-Control/Harassment Agent can be removed by washing with baby shampoo, milk, or vegetable oil to break up the resin and neutralize the agent?
Oleoresin Capsicum (OC)
233
Which kind of Botulism occurs when Clostridium botulinum in aerosol form is inhaled and is feasible for terrorist groups or another country to use as a weapon?
Inhalational Botulism
234
What is an acute illness caused by irradiation of the body by a high dose of penetrating radiation in a very short period of time, usually a matter of minutes (cell death in specific tissues)? Also known as radiation toxicity or radiation sickness. Has three Phases for signs/symptoms: Prodromal, Latent, and Manifested.
Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)
235
A chemical agent on the skin can be removed effectively by using what decontamination kit?
M291 skin decontamination kit
236
Which nerve agent treatment is an acetylcholine blocker and is the drug of choice to treat nerve agent poisoning?
Atropine
237
How many levels of Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) are there?
5
238
Each ship has a minimum of how many decontamination stations?
Clean and contaminated
239
Which type of Tularemia is the most common form that usually occurs following a tick or deerfly bite, or after handling of an infected animal?
Ulceroglandular
240
What is the initial management of a casualty contaminated by chemical agents?
Removal of Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) gear and decontamination with 0.5% hypochlorite solution before treatment
241
Which of the three types of Plague is the most common form and is spread when infected fleas or rodents bites a person or when material contaminated with Yersinia pestis enters through a break in a person's skin?
Bubonic plague
242
Atropine can be injected at ___ to ___ minute interval and until there is a reduction of both secretions and breathing difficulty.
5-10 minutes
243
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with blister agents?
Red or purple
244
Ricin and Botulism are examples of what Biological Agent?
Toxins
245
How many days does the signs and symptoms (flu-like) of smallpox usually appear?
10-12 days
246
What does the acronym MOPP stand for?
Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
247
How long are autoinjectors held firmly in place for?
10 seconds
248
Within how many hours will the symptoms of a Blister agent take effect?
Several hours after exposure
249
What are the three types of Plague (Yersinia pestis)?
Pneumonic, Bubonic, and Septicemic Plague
250
When handling contaminated casualties, what must me placed in designated dump areas and, whenever practically possible, kept in metal cans with tightly fitting covers?
Contaminated clothing and gear
251
Cyanogen CL (AC) and Hydrocyanic acid (CK) are examples of what chemical agent?
Blood Agents
252
British Anti-Lewisite (BAL) must not be used on patients allergic to?
Peanuts
253
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 3?
Mask/Hood = WornOver Garment = WornOver Boot = WornGloves = CarriedDecon/Antidote Kit = Carried
254
Chlorine (CL), Phosgene (CG), and Diphosgene (DP) are examples of what chemical agent?
Pulmonary Agents
255
How many subspecies does Tularemia have?
Jellison type A and B
256
Which kind of Botulism occurs when a person ingest pre-formed toxin that leads to illness within a few hours to days?
Food-Bourne Botulism
257
Which type of Radiation are emitted from the nucleus of some radioactive elements? They are heavy, very short range particles that are not able to penetrate clothing or human skin.
Alpha
258
What is the treatment for Pulmonary Agents?
Remove patient from the source, rest, and perform assisted respirations and/or oxygen.
259
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever are transmitted by the bite from an infected arthropod (mosquito or tick)? Dengue and Yellow Fever are examples of this.
Flavivirus
260
A MARK 1 Kit consists of?
Both the Atropine (2mg) and 2-PAM CL (600mg) autoinjector
261
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is produced by Clostridium botulinum, an encapsulated, anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium; it is a neuroparalytic (muscle-paralyzing) disease blocking acetylcholine release from peripheral nerves; highly lethal and the toxin is the most toxic substance known?
Botulinum Toxin
262
Which kind of Botulism occurs when wounds are infected with Clostridium botulinum that secretes toxin?
Wound Botulism
263
Post exposure antibiotics should begin within how many hours of exposure and for how many days?
24 hours of exposure and continue for 14 days
264
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 1?
Mask/Hood = CarriedOver Garment = WornOver Boot = CarriedGloves = CarriedDecon/Antidote Kit = Carried
265
Which common detection method tests for the presence of liquid chemical agents that when a liquid agent touches it, the paper changes color?
M8 Chemical Agent Detector Paper
266
Of the subspecies of Tularemia, which is the most virulent?
Jellison Type B
267
If severe symptoms still persist after one hour of giving the three MARK 1Kits, three additional autoinjectors of 2-PAM CL 600mg should be given. No more than ___ doses should be given of 2-PAM CL . Discontinue use after respiratory distress has decreased.
6
268
Laboratory confirmation can be obtained by a bioassay of the patient's blood _______.
Serum
269
What are the treatments for Blood Agents?
-2 Amyl Nitrite ampules crushed and inhaled (every few minutes until eight is used) -IV Sodium Thiosulfate 12.5g (1-2 doses given)-IV Sodium Nitrate 300mg
270
Which type of Smallpox is the less common presentation of smallpox and has a death rate of 1% or less?
Variola Minor
271
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with "G" class nerve agents?
Gold/Yellow
272
What is the prophylaxis for Botulinum Toxin?
Pentavalent toxiod
273
Incubation period of the Smallpox is from 7-19 days, usually 10-14 days to the onset of illness and 2-4 additional days before the onset of a rash. True or False?
TRUE
274
Which class of Riot-Control/Harassment Agent that causes nausea and vomiting?
Vomiting Agents
275
Neurological symptoms of Botulinum Toxin, usually appear within how many hours?
12-36 hours
276
Which type of Tularemia is caused following an intentional aerosol release of the agent?
Pneumonic and Typhoidal
277
Which of the three type of anthrax is where skin infection begins as a raised itchy bump that resembles an insect bite, but within 1-2 days develops into a vesicle and then a painless ulcer, usually 1-3 cm in diameter, with a characteristic black necrotic areas the center?
Cutaneous Anthrax
278
What are the FDA approved prophylaxis for Anthrax?
Vaccination series of six 0.5 ml SubQ doses at 0, 2, and 4 weeks; then 6, 12, and 18 months followed by a annual booster
279
Which class of Riot-Control/Harassment Agent is also known as "TEAR GAS" and are essentially local irritants that act primarily on the eyes?
Lacrimators
280
Which of the three types of Plague is characterized by swollen painful lymph nodes called buboes (1-10 cm in diameter), high fever, chills, headache, and malaise; buboes usually develops in the groin and may also appear in the armpit or neck; and may progress to either Septicemic or Pneumonic plague?
Bubonic plague
281
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 4?
Mask/Hood = WornOver Garment = WornOver Boot = WornGloves = WornDecon/Antidote Kit = Carried
282
Which of the three anthrax is contracted from eating contaminated food, primarily meat from an animal that died of the disease and occurs 2-5 days after consumption of meat?
Gastrointestinal Anthrax
283
What the two modes of radiation action within a cell?
Direct and Indirect action
284
There are seven antigen types (A-G) of the Botulinum Toxin (Clostridium botulinum) exist. Which types are known to cause illness in humans?
A, B, E and F
285
Mustard (H), Distilled Mustard (HD), Nitrogen Mustard (HN), and Lewisite (L) are examples of what chemical agent?
Blister Agent
286
What are the third line antibiotic treatments for Anthrax?
Rifampin, Clindamycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, Vancomycin, and Imipenem.
287
Which Blister agent is an arsenical?
Lewisite (L)
288
Which of the three anthrax has viral-like symptoms, the x-ray is the most sensitive test, usually fatal?
Pulmonary (Inhalation) Anthrax
289
What becomes a health concern because it may damage certain critical molecules or structure in a cell?
Ionization
290
What is the incubation period for Ricin?
18-24 hours by inhalation and lethal dose is death in several days.
291
Anthrax contaminated materials should be bagged and incinerated or autoclaved (121+1 degree C core temperature for 30 minutes). Spores are sensitive to what percentage of bleach solutions with a minimum of 10 minutes contact time?
5-10% bleach solution
292
Which Blister agent smells like "Geraniums"?
Lewisite (L)
293
What are the treatments for Botulinum Toxin?
Trivalent and Heptavalent antitoxin.
294
Which part of the body does Blister agents attack?
Eyes and respiratory tract as well as the skin
295
Which type of Bacterial Biological Agent is also known as"RABBIT FEVER"; caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis typically found in animals, especially rodents, rabbits, hares, and ticks; and is a gram-positive, non-motile coccobacillus?
Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)
296
An _____________ investigation of a disease outbreak will assist medical personnel in identifying the pathogen and use of proper medical intervention.
Epidemiological
297
How can the the bacterium Yersinia pestis can be inactivated?
Heat (55-72 degrees C greater than 15 minutes) or direct sunlight (more than 2 hours)
298
What are the 3 devices use to measure fiel radiation levels?
AN/VDR-2, AN-UDR-13, and AN/PDQ-1
299
What uses chemistry technology, in which ampules containing different substrates are crushed so that liquids interact with strips of filter paper, chromatographic, and glass fiber filter?
Vapor sampler
300
What is the most effective shielding material?
Lead
301
How many kinds of Botulism?
Food-borne, Infant, Wound, and Inhalational botulism (4)
302
Which kind of Botulism occurs in a small number of susceptible infants each year who harbor Clostridium botulinum in their intestinal tract?
Infant Botulism
303
What are the preferred prophylaxis for Tularemia?
Doxycycline (100mg BID orally) or Ciprofloxacin (500mg BID orally)
304
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever is associated with rodent-transmitted disease in humans via rodent urine and excrement?
Arenaviruses
305
Which chemical agents damage the membranes in the lungs that separate the alveolar tissue resulting in plasma to leak into the alveoli causing hypoxia resulting in PULMONARY EDEMA?
Pulmonary Agents
306
The rashes for smallpox starts with ________ and quickly progress to ________. After a few days, the lesions become pustular vesicles and begin to crust early in the second week. scabs develop and then seperate and fall off about 3 weeks.
Macules; Papules
307
Which of the three types of Plague infects the lungs and can be spread from person to person through the air or breathing in the respiratory droplets from an infected animal?
Pneumonic plague
308
The PPE for Biological Agents consist of Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST), Field M-40 Chemical-Biological Mask, protective gloves, and boots. True or False?
TRUE
309
When Plague is released into the air, how many hours does the bacterium (Yersinia pestis) have to survive?
An hour
310
What are the three of the common detection methods of chemical agents?
M9, M8, and M256A1 Chemical Agent Detector
311
Which Blood agent has an irritating odor?
Hydrocyanic Acid (CK)
312
What is the treatment for smallpox?
No treatment. IV and medicine to control fevers and smallpox vaccine lessens the severity within 4 days after exposure.
313
What chemical agents were used during the Iran-Iraq war in 1983?
Mustard gas and nerve agent (tabun)
314
What is used for decontamination of Blister agents?
M291 Kit, soap and water, and 0.5% hypochlorite solution
315
What are the patients considered from the onset of the rash until all scabs seperate? They should be isolated using airborne and droplet precautions during this period.
CONTAGIOUS
316
What portion of the body are the autoinjectors administered in?
Lateral thigh muscle and buttocks
317
These labs utilized a rapid field detection method incorporating real-time Polymerase Chain Reaction (rt-PCR) based diagnostic for field confirmatory testing are extremely accurate. True or False?
TRUE
318
What is the average incubation period of Anthrax?
1-7 days
319
Which nerve agent treatment is used to control convulsions in patients?
Diazepam or Convulsion Antidote Nerve Agent (CANA)
320
Which Blister agent has a smells like fish?
Nitrogen Mustard (HN)
321
Which type of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever can cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans and nonhumab primates? Marburg and Ebola Virus are examples of this.
Filoviruses
322
In Japan, Aum Shinrikyo, what did the terrorist groups use and produce in a Tokyo subway?
Sarin gas
323
What are the priority for first aid from the most important to the least important for a chemical agent patient is?
1. Control massive hemorrhage
2. First aid for life threatening shock and wounds
3. Decontamination of exposed skin and eyes
4. Removal of decontaminated clothing and decontamination of body surfaces
5. Adjustment of patient's mask
6. First aid for less severe shock and wounds
324
How many MARK 1 Kits can a non-medical person give?
3
325
Which of the three types of Plague occurs when the bacterium Yersinia pestis multiplies in the blood and is a complication of pneumonic or bubonic plague?
Septicemic plague
326
The production of chemical weapons on a small scale is not __________. The space required to set-up a chemical agent lab is no longer than that of a narcotics drug lab. The equipment necessary to produce chemical agents is available on the open market.
Difficult
327
Which Biological Agent is a harmful substance that is produced by a variety of living organisms, like bacteria, plants, and animals and are not man made?
Toxins
328
What is the treatment for Blister agents? Lewisite?
Pain and itching relief, control of infection and British Anti-Lewisite (BAL) for Lewisite
329
What are the three factors that guide actions to avoid exposure?
Time, Distance and Shielding
330
Which type of Biological Agent is a single called organism (living cells) that carry any complex metabolism functions and cause disease in animals, plants and human beings by one of two mechanisms: invading host tissues and producing toxins?
Bacteria
331
For severe nerve agent symptoms (gastrointestinal or respiratory), how many MARK 1 Kits should be given in a row?
3
332
What type of Biological agent is a potent toxin derived from the beans of the castor plant, that has potential to be used as an agent of biological warefare and as a weapon of mass destruction (WMD)? It blocks the protein synthesis at the cellular level leading to cell death and tissue damage. This toxin is easy to produced and can be delivered by aerolization, injection or ingestion. Can be in the form of powder, mist, pellet, or dissolved in water or weak acid.
Ricin
333
Neither M8 nor M9 paper can detect chemical warfare agent vapor. True or False?
TRUE
334
What are the decontamination procedures for Botulinum Toxin?
Inactivated by sunlight (1 to 3 hours) or heat (80 degrees C for 30 minutes, 100 degreess C for several minutes).
335
Which Blister agent is less volatile and more persistent than Distilled Mustard (HD) but has the same blistering qualities?
Nitrogen Mustard (HN)
336
What are the decontamination procedures for Tularemia?
Heat (55 degrees C for 10 minutes) and 1% bleach solution followed by 70% alcohol solution and standard water chlorination
337
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 0?
Mask/Hood = CarriedOver Garment = AvailableOver Boot = AvailableGloves = AvailableDecon/Antidote Kit = Available
338
1. Disease that have been eradicated2. A disease with a low probability of occurrence3. Large scale outbreak occurring in a limited geographical area4. Dead animals of multiple species are sentinels5. Absence of competent natural vector 6. Restricted geographical distributionThe list from above are examples of what?
Indicators of Biological Agent release
339
How is Tularemia diagnosed?
Serological testing
340
Watt are the prophylaxis for Plague?
Doxycycline (100mg BID orally)
341
What are ways nerve agents can enter the body?
Eyes, respiratory tract (fast action), and skin (slow action).
342
M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with VX?
Olive or Verdana Green
343
Most people who do not recover from Acute Radiation syndrome (ARS) will die in several months of exposure, which is caused by the destruction of the person's what resulting in ifections and internal bleeding?
Bone Marrow
344
Plagues can be confirmed by a positive culture and laboratory testing. What can be seen on a smear taken from affected tissues of sputum sample, cerebral spinal fluid, or aspiration from a bubo?
Small gram-negative and/or bipolar staining coccibacilli
345
What are the three types of Biological Agents?
Bacteria, Viruses, and Toxins
346
What are the treatments for Anthrax?
Antibiotics (primarily), supportive care, and adjunctive care
347
What are the primary antibiotic treatments for Tularemia?
Streptomycin (1g Q12H IM) or Gentamicin (5mg/kg IV or IM daily)Alternative: Doxycycline, Ciprofloxacin, and Chloramphenicol
348
What are the areas within the body that will be affected the most with Blister agent?
Warm, sweaty areas of the body (armpits, groin, face and neck)
349
Which type of Tularemia include cough, chest pain, and difficulty breathing and it develops if other forms of Tularemia are left untreated, the bacteria spreads through the blood stream to the lungs?
Pneumonic and Typhoidal
350
What illness id refered to a group of illness that are caused by 4 distinct families of viruses and the overall vascular system is damaged and the body's ability to regulate itself is impaired?
Viral Hemorrhagic Fever (VHF)
351
What is used to measure a quantity of absorbed dose of radiatio?
Radiation absorbed dose (rad)
352
What is the treatment for Riot-Control/Harassment Agents?
Take patient out of the environment, exposure them to fresh air and letting the wind blow or flush with water/saline into wide-open eyes, or talking (CS).
353
Which of the three Anthrax is from breathing in airborne anthrax spores and onset occurs in two stages, usually beginning within 10 days?
Pulmonary (Inhalation) Anthrax
354
After exposure to _________ agents, the victims will take a few deep breathes, begin convulsions after 20-30 seconds, and die after a few minutes.
Blood Agents
355
VX, Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), Soman (GD), and Cyclosarin (GF) are examples of what chemical agent?
Nerve Agents
356
The following signs and symptoms are for what chemical agent: salivation, lacrimation, urination, gastrointestinal disturbance, and general excretions?
Nerve Agents
357
Which type of Biological Agent are smaller than bacteria; they are intercellular parasites that lack a system for their own metabolism, meaning, they require living cells such as humans, animals, plants, and bacteria in order to multiply; can cause changes in the host cell that eventually leads to cell death; the best way to control this infection is through vaccines; and it is the most expensive and time consuming biological agent?
Viruses
358
Anthrax, Plague, and Tularemia are examples of what Biological Agent?
Bacteria
359
Humans become infected through bites from infective arthropods (ticks and deer fleas), handling infectious animal tissues or fluids, direct contact with, or ingestion of, contaminated matter, or inhalation of infective aerosols. How is Tularemia not spread from?
Person to person
360
Which radiation measurement device is a compact handheld, or pocket carried, tactical device that can measure prompt gamma/neutron doses from a nuclear event?
Radiac Set AN/UDR-13
361
Mace (CN),Dibenzoxazepine (CR), 2-Chlorobenzalmalononitrile (CS), Adamsite (DM) and Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) are examples of what type of chemical agents?
Riot-Control/Harassment Agents
362
Which type of Radiation Dermatitis occurs after heavy contamination of bare skin with beta emmiting material and it rarely develpos in situations where personnel are fully clothed?
Acute Radiation Dermatitis
363
Which common detection method is the most widely used method of detecting liquid chemical warfare agents that does not identify which specific agent gives the positive reading and it is a self-adhesive that attaches to most surfaces?
M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper
364
Decontamination of Blister agents within two minutes will reduce the toxic effects by what percentage?
50%
365
Which of the three types of Anthrax in humans is acquired when a spore enters the skin through a cut or an abrasion and occurs within 2 weeks after exposure to spores?
Cutaneous Anthrax
366
What equipment is in Mission-Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) level 2?
Mask/Hood = CarriedOver Garment = WornOver Boot = WornGloves = CarriedDecon/Antidote Kit = Carried
367
Which type of Radiation are electromagnetic waves that are able to trael many feet in the air and many inches through human tissue? Sometimes called "penetrating" radiation.
Gamma
368
How long do you wait after giving the first MARK 1 Kit before giving another in a patient with moderate symptoms?
10-15 minutes
369
When was the first large scale use of chemical agents?
WW I
370
What form is the "Certificate of Death (Overseas)"?
DD Form 2064
371
If federal government or local jurisdiction determine than an autopsy is not necessary, who is financially responsible for the movement of the remains and the pathologist's private autopsy fees?
Families
372
Who are authorized to make local payments of expenses incurred in areas under their jurisdiction OCONUS?
AreaCommanders
373
What form is the "Request of Funeral and/or Interment Expenses"?
DD Form 1375
374
Commanding Officers who receive request for at-sea disposition of remains or cremations will forward the request to who?
Fleet Commander-in-Chief (CINC) and requested port of embarkation
375
What are three ways utilized to determine positive identification?
DNA, fingerprint analysis and forensic odontology review
376
Remains transported by Air Mobility Command (AMC) aircrafts from OCONUS to CONUS port of entry will not be accompanied by an escort, who will act as an escort during the time of transport?
Flight Commander
377
Under what program are remains buried in temporary cemeteries (under the Graves Registration Program) normally disinterred and evacuated if conditions and capabilities permit?
Concurrent Return Program
378
When a search and recovery operation continuous longer than 36 hours, how often is a chronological progress report submitted to BUMED and Navy Casualty Office?
Every 24 hours
379
What form is used for "Report of Disposition and Expenditures Remains of the Dead"?
MED 5360-3
380
Who is overall the manager of the Navy and Marine Corps Decedent Affairs Program?
Navy Casualty, Navy Mortuary Affairs (Millington, TN)
381
Cremated remains of _________ _______ personnel will be hand carried by an escort, and transported using commercial air, rail, funeral director's vehicle, or other appropriate vehicle.
Active duty
382
If remains cannot be individually identified, the collective remains will be interred as a group interment. What national cemetery should group interment get buried at?
Midpoint of the two widely separated homes of record of known deceased individuals involved
383
How many signed copies of the Certificate of Death (Overseas (DD Form 2064)) must accompany the remains of the member to a CONUS point of entry from OCONUS?
3
384
What days will interment not be made in national cemeteries?
Saturday, Sunday, and Holidays
385
Authorized Decedent Affairs Program expenses are chargeable to the special open allotment held by?
BUMED
386
When requesting funds for services of deceased military personnel in the Navy and Marine Corps, the reports are not submitted to BUMED except when indicated in what two forms?
DD Form 2062 and DD Form 2063
387
What instruction is the "Navy Casualty Assistance Calls Program"?
BUPERINST 1770.1
388
Which method of transportation is used to transfer remains from the place of preparation to another local funeral home, to a local cemetery, or to a common-carrier terminal?
Funeral Coach
389
What is the appropriate uniform for burial?
Dress blues (if not available, dress whites)
390
The __________ ___ __________ Program provides for permanent disposition of remains of persons buried in temporary cemeteries who could not be evacuated under the Concurrent Return Program. This program is activated only upon the enactment of special legislation.
Return of Remains Program
391
Only one escort is authorized. More than one may be assigned; however the two escorts may not do what at the same time?
Serve
392
What contracts are awarded to funeral directions serving local area of activities anticipating three or more deaths per year?
Annual Contracts
393
Which method of transportation required an escort with the remains and may be supplemented by either rail or funeral coach transportation?
Commercial Air
394
What program is not part of the Decedent Affairs Program and is administered by the Chief of Naval Operations Personnel Command and the Commandant of the Marine Corps?
Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)
395
What are the two unauthorized clothing and thus not funded?
Shoes and headgear
396
Within how many hours after it is determined a casualty has occurred, must a casualty report be submitted?
Four hours
397
The Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD) should be notified of a death by a uniformed Navy or Marine Corps representative, during what hours of operation?
0500-2400
398
Except for Arlington National Cemetery, national cemeteries are under the jurisdiction of the Chief Memorial Affairs Director, Department of Memorial Affairs, Veterans' Administration, Washington, D.C. True or False?
TRUE
399
The representative of the Navy who will be required to perform services of a very special and personal nature is also known as __________ escort.
Naval Escort
400
Who may be able to provide mortuary services if death occurs in an area not served by Naval facilities?
Department of State
401
Which method of transportation may be authorized when commercial air is not available to the destination and the use of a funeral vehicle or rail would cause undue delay?
Charted Air Taxi
402
What program normally becomes operational when large numbers of military personnel are committed to a strategic area?
Concurrent Return Program
403
Remains of individuals that are in motorcycle accidents, automobile accidents, or under the care of the physician, autopsies are at the discretion of whom because it is not a requirement?
Discretion of the local medical examiner
404
To carry out the various responsibility of the Decedent Affairs Program, what are the five programs that have been established?
#NAME?
405
What form is the "Inventory of Personal Effects"?
NAVSUP Form 29
406
What program is only operational when authorized by the responsible commander during military operations?
Graves Registration Program (GR or GREGG)
407
Who is ultimately responsible for assigning an inventory board for the personal affects of a deceased member?
Commanding Officer (CO)
408
To be requested as an escort of remains, what are the three criteria that must be met (recommendations are a friend of the diseased, same religion, same unit, etc.)?
Same branch of service, status, and pay grade of the deceased
409
All personal effects of the deceased are to be collected and inventoried, except where the member occupied __________ or __________ housing and the spouse requires no assistance.
Government or Public housing
410
Who in the ship or station where the deceased was attached will obtain the certificate from the civil authorities?
Medical Officer or the Medical Department Representative (MDR)
411
Problems concerning arrangements of a Navy escort that cannot be resolved by the responsible command should be referred to whom? Problems with the Marine Corps?
#NAME?
412
Under what jurisdiction is Arlington National Ceremony?
Department of the Army
413
An initial notification is made by the Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO) who schedules a follow-up notification to complete the paperwork associated with the death within how many hours?
24 hours
414
When placing the remains in a transfer case,the remains is wrapped in what?
#NAME?
415
The board consisting of the CO and one other will send five copies of the inventory form (NAVSUP Form 29) to the _______ Officer for completion, disposition, and signature.
Supply Officer
416
When the remains of eligible military personnel, whose determination of death has been made but the remains are non-recoverable, reimbursement may be allowed if presented within the approved time frame after notification of the NOK of the date of death. Who must PADD submit the receipted invoices or certified claim for reimbursement?
Navy Mortuary Affairs
417
Annual contracts and one-time contracts cover what type of expenses?
Primary expenses
418
To minimize cellular deterioration, remains may be refrigerated below what degrees Fahrenheit prior to the transportation?
36-40 degrees Fahrenheit (2.2-4.2 degrees Celsius)
419
Personnel Casualty Report should be sent as what urgency message?
Priority
420
What two places do a copy of the condolence letter must be sent to?
Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM) and Office of the Judge Advocate General (OJAG) Investigations Division
421
What are the three classifications of national cemeteries?
#NAME?
422
When death occurs OCONUS, how many signed copies of DD 2064 will accompany the remains to CONUS?
3
423
When a death occurs CONUS, how many certified copies of the civil certificate of death will accompany the remains from CONUS to OCONUS?
3
424
When the Return of Remains becomes activated, who is responsible for notifying fields of activities of its activation?
Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED)
425
Which of the five programs is normally operational on a worldwide basis during peacetime, but may also be used during major conflicts?
Current Death Program
426
Personnel under the jurisdiction of the Department of the Navy are eligible for what?
Decedent Affairs
427
Who has no jurisdiction over deaths occurring on naval reservations?
Civil authorities
428
Which method of transportation is not authorized within CONUS without the Chief of Naval Operations (OP-414) approval?
Government Air
429
Who are normally not allow to attend ceremonies aboard naval ships or aircrafts?
Civilians
430
When an autopsy is desired but not required permission must be granted from the Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD). True or False?
TRUE
431
What instruction is the "Decedent Affairs Manual"?
OPNAVINST 5360.1
432
What form is used for "Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains (OCONUS)"?
DD Form 2062
433
The escort selected by the Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD) is also known as _________.
Special Escort
434
Honors for services at Arlington National Cemetery are coordinated by the superintendent of the cemetery with _______ or the ______.
BUMED or the CMC
435
Exceptions for at-sea disposition that cannot be resolved at the delegated authority level will be referred to who for final determination?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
436
What contract are created through Navy Casualty Office, Chief of Naval Operations (OPNAV) to a funeral home when an annual contract is not in effect?
One-time Contracts
437
When requesting funds for services of deceased military personnel other than Navy and Marine Corps, what form is used?
MED 5360-3 "Report of Disposition and Expenditures Remains of the Dead"
438
What are the two sizes of 18-gauge silver tone metal sealer with a cut top caskets?
-Standard= 23x78 inches-Oversize= 25x81 inches
439
Who may remains be consigned (turned over) to?
Funeral director, director or superintendent of a national cemetery, or the consignee designated by the Navy Mortuary Affairs, PADD or someone designated by the PADD
440
What arrangement is made by the Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD) and is coordinated between the PADD, Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO), Navy Mortuary Affairs, and the funeral home?
Private Arrangements
441
Duty watch personnel from where, is available 24 hours a day to receive message traffic, phone calls, and email traffic from OCONUS command when a death occurs?
Navy Personnel Command (NAVPERSCOM)
442
Who's responsibility is it to manage the Decedent Affairs Program on small independent operational units and on board naval vessels?
CO, OIC, Medical Service Corps Officer, and the senior corpsman under the guidance of Navy Mortuary Affairs.
443
What type of message should be used to notify Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) and Navy Mortuary Affairs of a disaster resulting in the death of naval members?
Priority
444
To whom should claims be submitted to in areas outside the jurisdiction of the area commanders?
BUMED
445
When transporting remains of death resulting from a communicable disease, there is a gummed "2x4" label placed on the head end of the transfer case that states?
CONTAGIOUS
446
When the mortician is unable to arrest the _____ of the remains, they will not be accepted for burial at sea because the remains will detract the dignity of the ceremony and will have a detrimental effect on the crew of the vessel.
Odor
447
What must be obtained if a death occurs within one of the 50 United States or District of Columbia?
Civil certificate of death
448
Who are required for the submission of a Personnel Casualty Report?
All active duty members, retired navy inpatient at MTF, DoD civilians, and dependents
449
What type of expenses are incurred in connection with the recovery, preparation, encasement, and burial of the remains (dressing, uniform, cosmetics, etc.)?
Primary Expenses
450
Who will report the death of a military member to civil authorities?
Commanding Officer (CO)
451
The _________ __________ Program provides professional mortuary services,supplies, and related services incident to the care and disposition of remains of persons eligible for theses services. Under this program, remains are shipped to a place designated by the primary next of kin also known as Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD).
Current Death Program
452
What must the priority message include?
Identification of dead or missing personnel, equipments required, and technical help required.
453
What may authorize the establishment of one or more permanent American cemeteries in the overseas area and may give Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD) the option of having the remains buried therein or shipped to another place of their choosing?
Special legislation
454
What type of expenses are incurred in connection with the funeral and burial of remains?
Secondary Expenses
455
What is the minimum amount of recognition that is required for the Commanding Officer (CO) to be satisfied about remains being considered identified?
Two: fingerprint and dental compressions
456
Who will establish the final conclusions and take actions that are required for final disposition of the remains if shipped from outside CONUS to CONUS?
Navy Mortuary Affairs
457
When an escort is not available, the cremations may be transported by registered mail, air, or surface transportation to the PADD or an individual designated by the PADD. Which of the three is the preferred method of transportation?
Registered mail
458
What must be obtained from civil authorities to remove the remains from a naval reservation either for shipment or burial?
Transit or burial permit
459
To whom, must an application requesting a commercial headstone be submitted?
Veterans' Administration (VA)
460
For cases that are pending identification, the personnel casualty report status shall categorize the service member as?
Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN)
461
Military honors for interment in national cemeteries are the responsibility of whom?
Member's service
462
The Commanding Officer must write a letter of condolence to the appropriate NOK within what time frame?
48 hours
463
What are the four methods of transportation within the United States?
Government air, commercial air, charted air taxi, and funeral coach
464
What program details a Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO), a commissioned officer or enlisted personnel, to personally contact Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD) and SNOK with problems surrounding the death and information about member's personal effects, estate, SGLI, funeral planning, and allowances?
Casualty Assistance Calls Program
465
Cremation will not be permitted if any member of the deceased's Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD) or SNOK object. True or False?
TRUE
466
What form is the "Statement of Recognition"?
DD Form 565
467
When a death occurs CONUS, who's responsibility is it to make sure that the personal notification is made?
Member's Commanding Officer (CO)
468
Claims relating to primary, secondary, and transportation costs within CONUS will be forwarded where?
Navy Mortuary Affairs
469
A Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO) is normally assigned to assist the needs of family members for what period of time?
90 days to 9 months depending on the needs of the families
470
How many certified copies of the civilian certificate of death should accompany the remains outside CONUS destinations?
Ten
471
The _________ _________ Program combines the Current Death Program and Graves Registration Program. This program provides for the search, recovery, and evacuation of remains to a processing point; identification and preparation of remains in a mortuary; and shipment, for permanent disposition to a final designation designed by the Person Authorized Direct Disposition (PADD).
Concurrent Return Program
472
National cemeteries no longer have facilities for viewing remains, so if the NOK desires one before interment, the remains must be consigned to a local _________ _________.
Funeral director
473
The _________ ___________ Program provides the search, recovery, evacuation to a temporary cemetery or a mortuary, initial identification, disposition of personal effects found, and burial in the temporary cemeteries.
Graves Registration Program (GR or GREGG)
474
How many copies of the Statement of Recognition (DD Form 565) must accompany the remains?
2
475
Who is responsible for coordinating transportation arrangements for the remains with the local Navy Personnel Transportation Office (NAVPTO) or SATO travel office?
The Decedent Affairs Officer (DAO) or designated official
476
What type of expenses are incurred when an active duty member, eligible retiree, or eligible dependent are moved?
Transportation Expenses
477
Who may request an autopsy if he or she deems it necessary?
Commanding Officer (CO)
478
What form is used for "Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains (CONUS)"?
DD Form 2063
479
Who must submit a Personnel Casualty Report when a member becomes a casualty?
The service member's Commanding Officer
480
What must be performed on the remains of active duty if the death is considered accidental, intentional, suicide, homicide, or absent care of a physician?
Autopsy
