Chapter 1-3, 9-11, & 13 Flashcards
0
Q
In 1873, the term nurse, used by junior enlisted medical personnel was replaced by?
A
Bayman
1
Q
How many Medal of Honor recipients total are there?
A
22
2
Q
What are the two Navy Hospital Ships?
A
USNS Comfort and USNS Mercy
3
Q
Before the Caduece, what was the Corpsman emblem?
A
Red Cross
4
Q
The first African American Loblolly
A
Joseph Anderson
5
Q
The Navy regulation first listed Loblolly Boy as an official rate in?
A
1814
6
Q
What is Soft Power?
A
The doctrine of using goodwill and cooperation to influence nations and peoples of the world.
7
Q
CWO4 Brian Dix, the Director of the Marine Corps’ Drum and Bugle Corps was inspired by HM3 Joe Worley to composed a military march entitled?
A
Corpsman Up
8
Q
Who where the first Navy physicians ably assisted by?
A
Loblolly Boys
9
Q
When did president William McKinley approved the act of Congress that organized the Hospital Corps into the Navy Medical Department?
A
17 June 1898
10
Q
In August 2009, the US Global War on Terror in Afghanistan and Iraq was rebranded what?
A
Overseas Contingency Operations
11
Q
In 1900, who was the first Corpsman to be awarded the Medal of Honor?
A
HA Robert Stanley
12
Q
When did Congress mandate the newly commissioned sailing warships that comprised of the first Naval Fleet?
A
2 March1799
13
Q
During the Congressional Mandate, “sick bay” was known as?
A
Cockpit
14
Q
In what wars did the Loblollies served with distinction?
A
Quasi War with France (1797-1800) and in the First Barbary War (1801-1805)
15
Q
Who was the Corpsman that participated in the flag raising at Mt. Suribachi along with six Marines?
A
Pharmacist Mate John Bradley
16
Q
When and who where the first women in the Hospital Corps?
A
During WW II (12 January 1944), Women Accepted for Volunteer Emergency Service (WAVES) was commissioned at Naval Hospital Bethesda, Maryland
17
Q
On 27 September 2001, Navy Surgeon General Michael Cowan ordered new signal flags to be flown above all Navy Medical Activities. What did the flags mean?
A
Charlie Papa: Steaming to Assist
18
Q
How many Naval vessels are named after Hospital Corpsmen?
A
14
19
Q
Who was the Dental Technician (DT) that received a Navy Cross on 06 November 1950?
A
DT Thomas A. Christensen
20
Q
When did Dental Technician (DT) rating, a separate enlisted specialty since 12 December 1947 merge with the Hospital Corps?
A
01 October 2005
21
Q
The first Loblolly POW
A
John Domyn
22
Q
The Navy’s first Loblolly Boy
A
John Wall
23
Q
The Iraqi conflict gave Navy Medicine an opportunity to utilize what?
A
Shock Trauma Platoon (STP)
24
What administrative tool/system is used aboard ship to track medical/dental readiness, supply inventory, log preventative medicine inspections, sick call, radiation exposure data, and manage medical training?
Shipboard Non-tactical Automatic Data Process (SNAP) Automated Medical System (SAMS)
25
What is used to issue changes to instructions and notices? How are they numbered? How are they filed?
Change Transmittal - numbered consecutively and the most current change is on top
26
SSIC - 8000 Series
Ordnance Material
27
What is used to provide a medium for recording special occurrences (serious injury or death, refusal of treatment, or noncompliant, or recommendations to the command are not followed due to the COs discretion) that may need to be reconstructed in detail at a later time?
Memorandum for the Record
28
Who reports all important occurrences to the OOD for entry into the duty log or journal of the command?
Senior Medical Department Representative a.k.a IDC/Medical or Dental Officer
29
SSIC - 4000 Series
Logistics
30
If HMs should doubt the disposal of certain records, who should be notified to determine the best course of action?
Superiors
31
What was developed to meet the need to record, report, and evaluate the maintenance requirements of the fleet and provide the organizational level with tools to plan, schedule and control planned maintenance effectively?
The standard Navy Maintenance and Material Management System (3-M)
32
SSIC - 13000 Series
Aeronautical and Astronautical Material
33
A warfare device signifies that the member is what?
Competent in their rate and have acquired additional knowledge that enhances understanding.
34
What are the two basic types of directives?
Permanent - regulate administration, establish policy, delegate authority, and assign mission function or tasks.
Temporary - issued as a notice (remain in effect for a year) to request comments or approval, and announce information such as a change of command or education and promotions opportunities.
35
What is a continuous process and must be monitored and reported on a regular basis to provide service leaders and operational commanders the ability to ensure a healthy and fit fighting force?
Individual Medical Readiness (IMR)
36
What specific 3-M system is used to regulate scheduled equipment maintenance?
Planned Maintenance System (PMS)
37
What are the specifics of the Fleets Hospitals?
HMs deploy with Expeditionary Medical Facilities (EMF) with up to 500 beds to meet the Combatant Commanders requirements (up to 60 days)
38
SSIC - 3000 Series
Operations and Readiness
39
What type of letter is used in correspondence to certain agencies of the United States Government?
Standard Letter
40
What Internet based tool tracks medical and dental readiness of every active duty or reserve Sailor or Marine regardless of their duty station?
Medical Readiness Reporting System (MRRS)
41
What classifies a Class 4 dental?
An individual who needs a dental exam or has oral conditions that are unknown.
42
What provides the opportunity to assess changes in a member's health on an annual basis that can potentially impact the ability to perform military duties and deploy worldwide? May be used to correct IMR deficiencies.
Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)
43
Who directs the actions of the Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB a.k.a Seabees) when responding to a natural disaster i.e. Hurricane Katrina?
Cognizant Authority
44
SSIC - 7000 Series
Financial Managment
45
SSIC - 2000 Series
Telecommunications
46
SSIC - 11000 Series
Facilities and Activities Ashore
47
SSIC - 9000 Series
Ships Design and Material
48
SSIC - 6000 Series
Medicine and Dentistry
49
SSIC - 1000 Series
Military Personnel
50
SSIC - 16000 Series
Coast Guard Missions
51
What are the division of personnel within the Fleet Marine Force (FMF)?
Combat personnel - provide medical and initial first aid to prepare the casualty for further evacuation
Support personnel - provide surgical and medical aid to those who need early definitive care and cannot be evacuated
52
What gateways allow SAMS and MRRS to communicate and share information with one another?
Central Data Repository (CDR) and Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)
53
What is the primary mission of the medical battalion?
- Casualty Collection
- Emergency Treatment
- Temporary Hospitalization
- Special Surgery
- Evacuation
54
Items that need to be reported include severe injuries, conditions that can effect the health of the crew, and damage or loss of medical and dental equipment. What must be reported directly to the CO and the OOD?
The name of the patients in serious condition with the information of the Next of Kin.
55
SSIC - 10000 Series
General Material
56
What are the personnel counts for a Battalion Aid Station (BAS)?
2 Medical Officers and 65 HMs
57
SSIC - 5000 Series
General Administration and Management
58
SSIC - 12000 Series
Civilian Personnel
59
What classifies a Class 3 dental?
Any condition that will result in an emergency condition within the next 12 months.
60
What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?
Classifying
61
What dental class is considered worldwide deployable?
Class 1 - No dental treatment is needed
Class 2 - An oral condition that is left untreated and does not have the potential to become an emergency within the next 12 months
62
What program ensures an effective means of resolving issues before the patient departs the facility?
Patient Contact Point Program
63
What two federal statutes are combined to establish the criteria for collecting, maintaining, and releasing medical treatment records?
Privacy Act and Freedom of Information Act
64
Newborns will not be denied care for a period of how many days? What type of TRICARE will they be in? How can the newborn be part of TRICARE PRIME?
- 60 Days
- TRICARE STANDARDS
- Newborn must be put on the Sponsor's page 2 and enrolled into DEERS
65
What are the different types of dental care?
Routine, emergency and elective
66
What instruction can HMs use as a guidance on care, evaluation, and medico-legal documentation for a victim alleged of rape or sexual assault?
NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3
67
Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), the official responsible for the records has how many working days to respond to the requestor?
20
68
What program is used to evaluate the degree of excellence in care delivered ands its results for future improvement?
Quality Assurance
69
The rendering of emergency dental treatment to any person when such treatment is necessary affects the priority categorization and will supersede an active duty person awaiting a routine procedure. True or False?
True
70
Under what act is it unlawful for the United States military to be used as an enforcer or to assist in the enforcement federal or state law?
Posse Comitatus Act
71
What program has the purpose to identify and monitor spouse or child abuse/neglect and sexual abuse in military families?
Family Advocacy Program
SECNAVINST 1752.3
72
Where do active duty personnels and their family members go, if there is any discrepancies with the database?
Referred sponsor's Personnel Support Detachment
73
Who is authorized to deliver an Active Duty member to federal law enforcement authorities and based upon what actions?
Commanding Officer with the presentation of a federal warrant
74
What is the reason many legal battles are lost?
Failure to adhere to proper administrative procedures.
75
Who is authorize to deliver an Active Duty member if he/she is requested by civil authorities, and the treatment facility is located within the requesting jurisdiction? Outside jurisdiction?
- Commanding Officer with a warrant present
| - General Court Martial
76
Failure to obtain consent from individuals may result in the healthcare provider being responsible for?
Malpractice and/or assault and battery upon the individual.
77
What is the computer-based enrollment and eligibility verification system that was developed to improve distribution and control of military healthcare services including the projection and allocation of costs for healthcare programs and to minimize fraudulent healthcare claims?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)
78
Where would you find more information for Medical Treatment Records?
MANMED Chapter 16
79
What form is the Uniformed Service Identification and Privilege Card Application?
DD 1172
80
What is designed to provide protection for individually identifiable health information that is maintained, transmitted, or received in electronic form?
Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Security Rule
81
Who is obligated to provide the patient with all necessary information to make a knowledgeable decision on a proposed medical procedure?
Medical Provider
82
What instruction is the Medical and Dental Care for Eligible Persons at Navy Medical Department Facilities?
NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3
83
Who is the command's primary advisor for all alcohol and drug matters?
Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA)
84
What reports are designed to promptly document all circumstances surrounding an event, to alert the Commanding Office, Command Risk Manager and other involved administrators and clinicians of a potential liability situation?
Quality Care Review (QCR)
85
Patients who present for non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card but are in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) database will not be provided medical care without first doing what? What can happen to the members who do not provide a valid ID after 30 days? And who can delay the punishment?
- Signing a statement that they are eligible and giving the reason why a valid ID card is not in their possession.
- Member can be billed as a civilian humanitarian non-indigent.
- Commanding Officer.
86
Which type of dental care relieves pain, control bleeding, and manage acute septic conditions or injuries to the oral-facial structures?
Emergency Dental Care
87
Are all military prisoners with active sentences allowed to receive medical care?
Yes
88
How many recalled days do personnel have to serve in order to be eligible for all dental services?
30 days
89
What type of situations does not require consent before a procedure?
Emergency Situations
90
Quality Care Review (QCR) reports cannot be obtained by individuals to help in legal actions against the hospital. When can the QCRs lose their "protected" status?
If they are misused or mishandled.
91
What are the three categories of eligible beneficiaries for prisoner patients?
- Enemy prisoners of war and other detained personnel
- Non-military federal prisoners
- Military prisoners
92
What legal doctrine serves as a final authority and determines the control of substitute consent?
State Law
93
Which type of prisoners are ONLY allowed emergency medical treatment?
Non-military federal prisoners
94
What creates business processes to protect the use and disclosure of Protected Health Information (PHI)?
Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule
95
What Act has the overall goal of providing safeguards for Protected Health Information (PHI) to ensure patient privacy is maintained?
Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
96
What program has the primary goal of helping resolve patient complaints and problems through patient intervention and negotiations?
Patient Relations Program
97
Which type of dental care is authorized by an evaluation of a dental officer? (Malocclusion, orthodontics, replacing amalgam fillings)
Elective Dental Care
98
What program is an enhancement of the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Service (CHAMPUS) and is a medical benefits program established to manage the care service in a military MTFs?
TRICARE
99
How many Patient Bill of Rights are there and what are they?
1. Medical Care and Dental Care
2. Pain Management
3. Respectful Treatment
4. Privacy and Confidentiality
5. Identity (provider)
6. Explanation of Care
7. Informed Consent
8. Research Projects
9. Safe Environment
10. MTF and DTF Rules and Regulations
100
What policy was established to provide a balance between the public and the privacy of the individual?
Privacy Act of 1974
101
Routine dental care is to assist who? And who assists the family members?
Routine - Active duty and reserves
TRICARE - Family members
102
How many months remaining must service members serve in order for their family members to be eligible to enroll into TRICARE dental plan?
12 months
103
What paperwork can indicate who can provide informed consent for the patient?
Advance Directive
104
Who're are the "Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) eligibility exceptions" that are authorized care but may not be authorized to be enrolled into DEERS?
- Secretary of the Navy Designees
- Foreign Military Personnel (NATO military personnel and family who are stationed in or passing USA, crews and passenger of visiting military aircraft and crews of ships of NATO nations that come into port)
105
Who are appointed in writing by the Commanding Officer and have their picture posted at the front desk or in the reception area visible to all the patients?
Patient Contact Representatives
106
Who is recommended to act as a witness when the patient is consenting to a medical procedure?
A staff member of the hospital who is "not" not involved with procedure
107
__________ are methods of managing environmental and health by placing a barrier between the contamination and the rest of the site, thus limiting exposure pathways?
Engineered Controls
108
Infectious waste are placed in containers and bags (double) labeled with the universal symbol and word of?
"BIOHAZARD" or be red in color
109
What color of drapes and gowns (may vary from each MTF) is considered sterile and should not be touched by anyone but the "scrubbed in" surgical staff?
Blue or green
110
Which flora is characterized as: do not survive and will not multiply on the skin; are not firmly attached to the skin; and are effectively removed by rubbing of the hands together and rinsing them under running water?
Transient
111
Scrub suits, gowns, head coverings, and face masks are considered what type of attire?
Operating room attire
112
What term is used for Instruments and materials that penetrate the skin, mucous membranes, or bone; must be sterile before use. (Surgical instruments, periodontal knives, and suture needles).
Critical items
113
Which classification of microorganism are plants that lack chlorophyll. Mold and yeast are forms of this, usually having firm cell walls and resembles plants more than animal? (Destroyed by heat and common examples are athletes foot and ringworm. Penicillin is derived from this).
Fungi
114
How many years are active duty healthcare personnel tested for HIV?
Every 2 years
115
All personnel must wear what in the surgical suite, dental treatment rooms (DTR), medical treatment rooms (MTR) and central sterilization room (CSR) where aerosols, particulates and splashes will be a possibility?
Face mask and shield
116
Which type of mask is a stiff, woven mask used for simple procedures for protection from splashing and aerosols?
Cone Masks
117
________ is an infection resulting from treatment in a hospital and is secondary to the patient's original condition and unrelated to the primary diagnosis?
Nosocomial infection
118
What is a non-sterile diagnostic test of a pre-vacuum sterilizer's ability to remove air from the chamber and detect air leaks?
Bowie-Dick Type Test
119
All personnel providing direct patient care, including civilian employees, volunteers, laboratory, and repair personnel who are potentially exposed to blood and saliva, must receive what vaccine?
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) vaccine
120
What are the second tier of infection prevention that has been designed for patients with confirmed or suspected pathogens that can be spread by airborne, droplet, or direct contact with the patient?
Transmission-based precautions
121
What is the least desirable method of cleaning is used in the operating room?
The use of mops
122
What is the term used to describe the sterilization, storage and handling of articles to keep them free of pathogenic organisms?
Surgical aseptic technique
123
The following precautions are for what transmission-based precaution:
- Place patient in a private room or one with another patient with the same organism and no other infections.
- Gloves and disposable gowns are worn. Both are removed before leaving the patients room and hands must be washed after glove removal.
- Patient care equipment is dedicated to a single patient. If not possible, the equipment is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected before another patient uses it.
Contact precautions
124
What consists of the daily measures taken to control the spread of pathogenic organisms while the patient is considered infectious?
Concurrent Disinfection
125
Which type of gloves are the least expensive type of non-sterile gloves and usually corn-starched to ease putting them on that are commonly used in routine procedures?
Latex Examination Gloves
126
How often are Bacillus Stearothermophilus spore strips used to test the sterilization process?
Weekly
127
Which microorganism classification are single-celled animals that do not have a rigid cell wall. Those living on dead organic matter or bacteria are harmless and those that are pathogenic survive freely in nature and must be spread by a carrier (Malaria)?
Protozoa
128
Air ventilation, heating, and air conditioning are factors that can affect what?
Habitability
129
What is defined as liquid or solid waste containing pathogens in sufficient numbers and of sufficient virulence to cause infectious disease in susceptible hosts exposed to the waste?
Infectious waste
130
At the beginning of each day, all the fixtures, equipment, and furniture in each operating room will be damp-dusted with what type of solution?
Antiseptic germicide
131
What type of head protection must be washed daily?
Cloth scrub
132
What are the two main hand washing agents used in the Navy?
Water-based and waterless
133
What is the instruction for "Dental Infection Control Program"?
BUMEDINST 6600.10
134
The following actions are taken for what transmission-based precaution:
- Patient should be placed in a private room or one with another patient infected with the same organism. If this is not possible a 3 ft partition should be maintained between the infected patient and any other patient.
- All healthcare provider should wear a mask within 3 ft of the patient.
- Place surgical mask over the patient's nose and mouth while transporting.
Droplet precautions
135
What form is the "Food Service Sanitation Inspection"?
NAVMED Form 6240/1
136
What is the instruction for "Nosocomial Infection Control Program"?
BUMEDINST 6220.9
137
What describes those practices used to prevent or interrupt the transfer of pathogenic organisms from person to person, place to place, or person to place?
Medical Asepsis
138
What is any animal capable of transmitting pathogens or producing human or animal discomfort or injury called? (i.e. inspectors arthropods and rodents)
Vector
139
What transmission-based precaution requires limited transport EXCEPT for essential purposes?
Contact precautions
140
What are the two types of flora the skin harbors?
Resident (normal) flora and transient flora
141
In a DTR, at the beginning of the day, the unit water lines and hoses should be flushed for how long? How long between patients?
1 minute. 30 seconds in between patients.
142
___________ are instruments, equipment, or material that do not orally penetrate or contact mucous membranes , but which are exposed to splatters, sprays, or splashing of blood, or are touched by contaminated hands? (Dental unit and medical exam table).
Non-critical Items
143
Which type of infectious waste is treated by steam sterilization or incineration and disposed by sanitary landfill?
Sharps in sharps containers
144
What transmission-based precaution should be used for patients infected or colonized with organisms that can be transmitted by direct contact with a provider or indirect contact ( Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) and Vancomycin Resistant E. coli (VRE))?
Contact precautions
145
Needles, scalpels,and sutures (sharps) should be disposed of in what container?
Rigid, puncture resistant red sharps container with a BIOHAZARD symbol.
146
If there is doubt about the sterility of an item, consider it ___________.
Unsterile
147
What hand washing agent contain 70% isopropyl alcohol and virtually disinfect the skin in 20 seconds; effective against bacilli, fungi, and viruses; volatile, flammable, evaporate quickly and dry the skin; and alcohol-based should only be used when hands are not visibly soiled?
Waterless Hand Washing Agents
148
What is the mechanism by which the infectious agent is transmitted from its reservoir to a susceptible host (i.e. air, water, food, dust, dirt, insects, inanimate objects, and other persons)?
Mode of Transmission
149
What type of laundry is considered when any laundry is soiled with blood or other potentially infectious material (OPIM) that is packed in a red biohazard container or bag, or in a leak proof plastic bag with a biohazard label?
Contaminated
150
Which type of mask is made from paper or other non-woven material and is worn by health professionals during surgery and at other times to catch the bacteria shed in liquid droplets and aerosols from the wearer's mouth and nose?
Surgical mask
151
Which type of gloves are sterile surgical gloves that are worn underneath the primary surgical gloves (double gloving); green and blue in color allowing more protection from needle sticks and making small punctures in the top gloves more visible?
Under Gloves
152
Which type of gloves are manufactured like sterile surgical gloves but are non-sterile that offer the highest quality and best fit at a greatly reduced cost when sterile surgical gloves are not required?
Procedural Gloves
153
Who must appoint, in writing, a Infection Control Officer (ICO) to assist in implementing an infection control program?
Commanding Officer (CO's) and Officers in Charge (OIC)
154
Vaccines used to protect Navy and Marine Corps personnel against certain diseases before exposure to infection are called what?
Prophylactic Immunizations
155
Published by the American Public Health Association (APHA), American Water Works Association (AWWA), and the Water Pollution Control Federation (WPCF): What latest edition do naval vessels follow for water testing requirements and procedures?
Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater
156
Who may be given the responsibility of inspecting food, food-service facilities, and investigating food-borne illness outbreaks when assigned as the Medical Department Representative (MDR) for a command or station?
HM
157
Pour liquid regulated waste into the sanitary sewer system through clinical sinks (not hand washing sinks)" unless what regulation prohibits this practice?
Local or state regulations
158
After completing the disinfecting of the contaminated items, the HM can take all metal and heat stable items where for sterilization?
Central Sterilization Room (CSR)
159
What instruction is the "Management of Infectious Waste"?
BUMEDINST 6280.1
160
These are organisms (insects, rodents, snakes, etc.) that adversely affect military operations and the well being of man and animal; attack real property, supplies, and equipment; or are otherwise undesirable?
Pests
161
Protective eyewear must have a slotted splash shields to provide maximum protection. True or False?
True
162
What term is defined as the state of being free of pathogenic organisms?
Asepsis
163
What instruction is used to report an incident as a mishap to the command safety officer and command risk manager?
OPNAVINST 5102.1
164
What are the approved method for disposing of wastes from shore activities?
Municipal or regional Wastewater collection and disposal systems
165
What transmission-based precaution are used for patients infected with microorganisms spread by coughing, sneezing, or talking such as influenza virus, adenovirus, and rhinovirus?
Droplet precautions
166
The removal or control of any one component in the following chain will control the infectious process. True or False?
1. Reservoir of Infectious Agents
2. Portal of Exit
3. Mode of Transmission
4. Portal of Entry
5. Susceptible Host
True
167
After twisting the top of the biohazard bag, tape twisted portion going towards the opening of the bag; What is the technique called when you bend the neck in half and tape the neck to it self known as?
Goose necking
168
Which type of infectious waste is treated by gelatinization and is disposed by sanitary sewer or sanitary landfill?
Bulk blood and other potentially infectious liquids
169
How long do you cleanse the puncture site or flush the eye with cool water for personnel who are exposed to a penetrating injury (needle stick or cut) or a splash (into the eye or onto mucous membranes) with contaminated fluids?
15 minutes
170
Where can clinical apparel be worn?
In the MTF/DTF only
171
__________ is an acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting?
Spray-Wipe-Spary
172
The medical departments aboard ships are required to include ice samples in any bacteriological analyses they perform on water. True or False?
True
173
This is usually a nurse or HM that is not scrubbed in that is free to grab gear for procedures and assist the surgical team?
Circulator
174
To perform hand piece maintenance on dental hand pieces the HM should remove hand pieces, lubricate and then operate it for how long?
30 seconds
175
___________ is a surgical entry into the tissues, cavities, organs, or repair of major traumatic injuries such as manipulation, cutting, or removal of any oral or perioral tissue during which bleeding occurs, or the potential for bleeding exists?
Invasive procedures
176
What can be lowered and minimize the potential risk by employing the following procedures:
- Clean cavity preparations with water, air, or an air and water combination.
- Use high-volume evacuator (HVE).
- Use rubber dams.
- Cover ultrasonic tanks when in use.
Aerosol
177
What is the Manual of Naval Preventive Medicine?
NAVMED P-5010
178
Which type of gloves are the highest quality, most expensive and best fitting; used for surgical and invasive procedures?
Sterile Surgical Gloves
179
What term is defined as the hygienic means of promoting health through prevention of human contact with hazards of wastes and this terms goal is to provide personnel with a clean and healthy work and living environment?
Sanitation
180
What is considered unsafe until properly disinfected and tested in the field?
Water
181
The proper water disposal of water waste materials control what water-borne diseases?
Cholera and typhoid fever
182
The following agents are what type of hand washing agents: chlorhexidine, alcohol, and iodophors among the active antimicrobial ingredients approved for hand washing?
Water-Based cleaning agents
183
How often are active duty healthcare personnel tested/screened for tuberculosis?
Annually
184
What instruction sets the standards for drinking water for U.S. Naval establishments both ashore and afloat?
BUMEDINST 6240.1
185
What is a set of specific practices and procedures performed under carefully controlled conditions with the goal of minimizing contamination by pathogens?
Aseptic Technique
186
While gowning the surgeon who is responsible for tying the gown?
Circulator
187
What transmission-based precautions occurs by the evaporation of droplets that can remain in the air for long periods or spread by dust particles that contain the infectious agent (measles, tuberculosis, chicken pox, etc.)?
Airborne precautions
188
What technique is used to clean and disinfect all unprotected "high touch" areas?
Spray-Wipe-Spray technique
189
An important step in the control of communicable disease is the expeditious preparation and submission of the what?
Medical Event Report
190
What is the term used for chemical dyes that determine whether conditions required for sterilization are met; known as internal or external indicators, dosage indicator, or process indicator?
Chemical indicator
191
What is a man or another living organism that affords an infectious agent nourishment or protection to survive and multiply?
Susceptible Host
192
What are classified as bacteria, bacterial spores, viruses, Protozoa, and fungi?
Micro-organisms
193
When the HM is preparing for a surgical case, what is the maximum length of the fingernail to avoid puncturing the gloves?
No longer than the tips of the fingers.
194
What is the avenue (respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, break in the skin, or by direct infection of the mucous membrane) by which the infectious agent enter the susceptible host?
Portal of Entry
195
Who inspects Navy and Marine Corps food-service facilities Together with the food-service manager, officer, or designated representative?
MDR
196
What instruction is the Food Service Training Program?
SECNAVINST 4061.1
197
The following are precautions for what transmission-based precautions:
- Place patient in a private, negative pressure room (6-12 exchanges per hour) with air being pumped outside or through a HEPA filter
- All personnel must wear Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) specified respiratory protection (N95 mask)
- Place a surgical mask over patient's nose and mouth while transporting.
Airborne precautions
198
What personal protective equipment (PPE) item is not necessarily worn while treating a patient under contact precautions?
Mask (Avoid touching the face with contaminated items)
199
What section of the ship determines the quantity stored or produced and performs the actual chlorination or bromination?
Ship's engineering section
200
What is the avenue (In a man: respiratory, intestinal, genitourinary tracts, and open lesions) by which the infectious agent leaves its reservoir?
Portal of Exit
201
Control of Communicable Disease Manual
NAVMED P-5038
202
The illness produced is the result of __________ ________ invading and multiplying in the host, or from the release of their toxins.
Infectious agents
203
Which microorganism classification vary in size from a single protein molecule to complicated bacterial cell and divided into three subgroups (bacterial, animal, and plant). Examples are: colds, smallpox, measles, rubella, herpes simplex, AIDS, and hepatitis. Most are susceptible to immersion in boiling water for at least twenty minutes (except hepatitis) and autoclaving is the preferred method of sterilization?
Viruses
204
Which type of mask is a lightweight, nose-and-mouth respirator that can provide some level of protection from viruses and small particles during surgery or airborne precautions?
N95 Respirator
205
Bed linens, towels, smocks, trousers and other protective attire are classified as?
Ordinary laundry
206
Eyewear or goggles, must have ________ side shields to provide maximum protection for all dental exams and treatments.
Solid
207
Which types of infectious waste is treated by incineration and is disposed by sanitary landfill or burial?
Pathological
208
What water based cleaning agent are water soluble complexes of iodine with organic compounds that are effective against all gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and viruses; may cause severe drying of the skin?
Iodophors
209
Immunizations procured for the Armed Forces are required to meet the minimum standards set by whom?
Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
210
What water based cleaning agent is an antiseptic marked as 4% chlorhexidine gluconate and with 4% isopropyl alcohol in a sudsy base that reduces transient and resident microbial with no adverse skin affect? (Approved as a surgical scrub).
Chlorhexidine Gluconate
211
What consists of measures taken to destroy pathogenic organisms remaining after the patient is discharged from isolation which is based on the recommendation of an Infection Control Committee?
Terminal Disinfection
212
Which flora is characterized as: can survive and will multiply on the skin; can be cultured repeatedly from the skin; and are usually of low virulence and are not easily removed?
Resident
213
What is the number of microorganism contaminating an object; known as billboard or microbial load?
Bioburden
214
Who performs sanitation inspections and provides recommendations to the Commanding Officer?
HM or the Medical Department Representative (MDR)
215
What is the name for a man (most frequent), animal, plants, or soil where infectious agents lives, multiplies, and reproduces so it can be transferred to a susceptible host?
Reservoir
216
What instruction is "Immunizations and Chemoprophylaxis"?
BUMEDINST 6230.15
217
What method of cleaning is used for an area of the floor occupied by the surgical team?
Wet vacuum method
218
Who will handle, disinfect, lubricate, and sterilize the dental hand pieces?
Central Sterilization Room (CSR) technician
219
For effective sterilization, the temperature must be maintained at what degree Celsius for at least 90 minutes, at 15 pounds per square inch of gauge pressure?
121 degrees C (250 degrees F)
220
What is considered the most desirable means of maintaining good health?
Prevention and control of diseases
221
__________ are instruments that frequently contact mucous membranes, but cannot be sterilized because of their design or inability to withstand heat? (Radiographic positioning devices and plastic impression trays).
Semi-critical Items
222
What affects the morale of shipmates when unclean or have disagreeable odor and promotes health and prevents diseases?
Personal Hygiene
223
What are the three sources where potable water for shipboard come from?
Ship's distillation plant, shore-to-ship delivery, or ship-to-ship transfer
224
Which type of infectious waste is treated by steam sterilization, chemical, disinfection, and incineration; and is disposed by sanitary landfill?
Microbiological
225
Aeration, coagulation, flocculation, filtration, reverse osmosis, and disinfection are all process for what?
Water treatment
226
Who's major role is to minimize disability by emphasizing immunization programs?
Preventive Medicine's
227
Communicable diseases may be transmitted from a carrier to a _______ _______.
Susceptible host
228
Treat used disposable sharps,such as needles, scalpel blades, capsules, disposable syringes, used burs, and broken instruments as ________ ________.
Regulated waste
229
Which type of gloves can be sterile or unsterile examination gloves made of synthetic latex that offer 3 times more puncture and tear resistance than rubber?
Nitrile Gloves
230
What do you not use as a surface disinfectant because of its caustic vapors and high cost?
2% Glutaraldehyde
231
What classification of microorganism take on the forms of a spore's shell-like coating to withstand unfavorable conditions and resistant to the effects of heat, drying, and most bactericidal chemicals?
Bacteria
232
What type of related shelf life presumes continued sterility until the package is damaged, wet, or torn?
Event-Related Shelf Life
233
What is a less lethal process than sterilization, which kills diseases causing micro-organisms?
Disinfection
234
After drying the instrument, what is the next step before sorting them out according to sets or packs?
Inspect instruments
235
The following ____-________ category items require chemical disinfection: dental delivery systems (DDS), consisting of chair, unit, and light; portable dental units; surgical table and chair; and x-ray apparatus.
Non-critical
236
Freshly sterilized items are NEVER placed on metal or cold surfaces. If they are what happens to the packages?
Become damp from the condensation and become contaminated
237
Anesthetic cartridges for non-surgical use should be dispensed under ______ ______ guidelines to prevent contamination of bulk supplies.
Unit dose
238
What instrument cleaning process would you use heavy duty utility gloves, face mask, plastic apron, and eye protection when placing instruments in a disinfectant solution, and then clean them under water?
Manual scrubbing
239
Who would you notify if the biological monitoring is found positive?
Notify the Infection Control Officer (ICO) and record test results in the sterilization log.
240
The item must be totally submerged in Glutaraldehyde solution for how many hours and anything shorter than that is considered disinfected?
10 hours
241
What type of chemical agent disinfectant classification is used chiefly on inanimate objects to destroy or inhibit the growth of harmful organisms or sterilants?
High-level disinfectant
242
All non-critical category items require at least what level of disinfection?
Intermediate
243
Due to the excessive amounts of exposure time required, corrosiveness, skin sensitization, and odor, Glutaraldehyde Solutions are not to be used as this?
Surface disinfectants
244
What are the three factors that influence germicidal procedures?
Nature of the material, bioburden, organic debris present, and the type and concentration of the germicide.
245
What type of material is used to wrap trays for the STERRAD sterilizer?
Polypropylene materials
246
One accepted method of sterilization for burs and diamonds are to place them in screw cap glass test tube or aluminum foil wrapped bur block and dry heat sterilize for how many minutes?
90 minutes at 320-345 degrees F
247
The use of a "_______ _______" is most practical while processing an instrument pack.
Test pack
248
Instruments being sterilized in the STERRAD do not have to be completely dry. True or False?
False
249
Chlorine Dioxide Solutions may be used as what level of disinfectants on semi-critical items that are not subject to corrosion?
High-level
250
What PPE's must be used for chlorine dioxide solutions?
Gloves (skin irritation), eye wear (eye irritation), adequate ventilation (when using surface disinfection) and closed containers (corrodes aluminum).
251
How many minutes is the rapid action for disinfection does chloride dioxide solution have? How many hours for sterilization?
3 minutes for disinfection and 6 hours for sterilization
252
What is the time-related shelf life for glass test tubes with screw caps?
Indefinite
253
The step of all contaminated reusable items being decontaminated by immersion in an EPA-registered disinfectant before handling can be eliminated if the items are cleaned in what?
Ultrasonic cleaner (bath)
254
What is the typical standard dry heat cycle?
90 minutes at 320-345 degrees F
255
Which type of monitoring a designed to assess whether sterilization actually occurred and to confirm that all bacteria and endoscopes have been killed
Biological Monitoring
256
Who repairs the sterilizers if there are leaks in the lines and improperly functioning gauges, dials, thermometers, doors, drain strainers, and valves?
Bio-Medical Technician
257
In the operating cycle, what stage introduces hydrogen peroxide into the chamber?
Injection Stage
258
When storing sterilized items, how should they be arranged?
Expiration, with later dates towards the rear.
259
What is the limit for the ultrasonic cleaning time to avoid damage to instruments?
5 minutes
260
How are trays placed on the STERRAD sterilizer rack and what should they not do with the sides of the chamber?
Placed flat and should not come into contact with the sides
261
How long are STERRAD sterilization stored for?
36 months
262
What are the two types of micro-organisms that are killed by all three levels of disinfection?
Lipid Viruses and Vegetative Bacteria
263
The period during which sterilized items are considered safe for use is known by what term?
Expiration date or shelf life
264
How are hinged instruments arranged during packaging?
Open
265
How often is the interior of the steam sterilizer cleaned because if not done _______ the chamber walls will collect mineral deposits and may become greasy?
Daily before being heated
266
What are all operating rooms using to sterilize wrapped, covered, opened instruments placed in perforated trays for 3 minutes at 270 degrees F (132 degrees C)?
High speed (Flash) sterilizers
267
How many cells do each cassette hold and the remaining cells are indicated by the printout at the end of each cycle?
10 cells
268
What type of monitoring has internal and external that involves the use of heat-sensitive chemical that changes color when exposed to certain conditions?
Chemical Monitoring
269
What are the physical methods of sterilization?
Moist heat under pressure and dry heat.
270
What are the three most commonly used sterilization monitors in the Navy?
Physical, Chemical, and Biological Monitors.
271
What chemical agent disinfectant classification are Glutaraldehyde Solutions?
High-level disinfectants
272
What is the safest method and provides an effective cleaning process, commonly used in hospitals or very large dental clinics, instruments are placed in cassettes or baskets, and results in "not touch" system to reduce potential injury?
Automated Washer Processor
273
Because of the serious Occupation Safety Health Agency (OSHA) problems with Ethylene Oxide (ETO) Gas, Healthcare facilities should purchase new ETO equipment. True or False?
False
274
To allow steam to circulate freely, how should packs be wrapped?
Loosely
275
You should remove the instruments for the ultrasonic unit by what means?
Mesh basket
276
What is the least expensive form of heat sterilization and operates by heating up air and transferring that heated air into the chamber with the instruments?
Dry-Heat Sterilization
277
How many hours do instruments and equipments are to be put on hold after a negative biological test and then distribute them?
48 hours
278
How full does the ultrasonic cleaner reservoir have to be at all times?
1/2 - 3/4 full
279
How often are cleaning solutions that must cover the items completely for the ultrasonic solution to occur have to be changed?
Daily or as needed
280
This sterilization process requires 20-40 minutes at 270 degrees F with 20 psi and the use of a mixture of the chemicals, including alcohol, formaldehyde, ketone, acetone, and water?
Chemical Vapor Sterilization
281
What are the two most common types of steam sterilizers used in the Navy?
Downward (Gravity) Displacement and Prevacuum
282
What type of sterilizer was designed to force air downward in the chamber from the top of the chamber and the actual timing does not begin until the temperature is above 245 degrees F (118 degrees C)?
Downward Displacement Autoclave
283
Where are instruments usually placed before placing them into the sterilizers?
Packs on metal trays or perforated cassettes
284
In the operating cycle, what stage removes air molecules and lower chamber pressure?
Vacuum Stage
285
At what temperature are all known organisms killed?
250 degrees F (121 degrees C)
286
What does a pH indicator in the medium color change mean when the ampules of endospores germinate and produces acids?
Failure in the sterilization process
287
Healthcare Treatment Facilities must have a _________ _________ _________ with the design and outfitting that includes work areas for receiving, cleaning, processing, sterilizing, storing, and issuing of instruments and equipment?
Central Sterilization Room (CSR)
288
The following criteria is what type of chemical disinfection:
- The degree of microbial kill or deactivation required.
- The composition and texture of the item being treated.
- The technical requirement and ease of use of the available agents.
Chemical
289
If the biological test fails multiply times, what would be the next step?
Secure sterilizer and notify biomedical repair technicians and the ICO
290
When using the event-related method, how often do all sterilizers must be biologically monitored?
Weekly
291
What type of sterilizer was designed to overcome the trapping of air in the chamber and is the most modern and economical autoclave to operate and requires the least time to sterilize a single load?
Prevacuum, High-temperature Autoclave
292
Disinfection is archived by what two means?
Heat and Chemical
293
Chlorine Dioxide Solution has the following disadvantages:
- Must be discarded daily.
- Has a 24 hour use as a sterilant.
- Does not readily penetrate inorganic debris.
True or False?
True
294
These are useful in the preparation of oral mucosa for local anesthesia, surgical procedures, and hand washing?
Iodophor antiseptics
295
The Environmental Protection Agency classifies disinfectants as?
High, intermediate, or low level.
296
What are the PPE's to handling Glutaraldehyde Solutions?
Gloves (hand irritation), eyes wear, and proper ventilation (extremely toxic vapors).
297
Do not place surgical knife blades or suture materials inside linen packs or on instrument trays before sterilization. True or False?
True
298
Pressure maintains temperature,it is not an indication of positive sterilization because other factors determine the pressure inside the sterilizer. True or False?
True
299
How often are biological monitoring performed for dry-heat sterilization?
Weekly
300
What step/area in the Central Sterilization Room (CSR) Functional Flow Chart where all the inspecting, sorting, wrapping, and packaging of contaminated materials occur?
Processing
301
Who can make an exception to the "do not rinse, scrub,or unnecessarily handle contaminated instruments or materials in MTRs/DTRs or other patient areas?
Commanding Officer (designee) or the Infection Control Officer under written direction.
302
The word "sterile" means free from or the absence of all living organisms. True or False?
True
303
The disadvantages of dry-heat sterilization are high temperatures destroy many rubber and plastic based materials, melt the holder of most metal impression trays, and weaken some fabrics, as well as discolor other fabrics and paper materials. True or False?
True
304
What is the type of chemical agent that loses effectiveness when the color changes from amber to clear, unstable at high temperatures, and can have rapid loss of antimicrobial activity when inactivated by hard water or alcohol (distilled or softened water is recommended for dilution)?
Iodophors
305
Items must be dry before they are handled or stored. True or False?
True
306
What was developed as a daily test for pre-vacuum sterilizers to determine if the air has been removed from the chamber during the pre-vacuum stage?
Bowie-Dick Test
307
This type of chemical agent is useful on metal, glass, rubber,and plastic, and are less toxic and corrosive than Glutaraldehyde Solutions?
Phenolics
308
What process of instrument cleaning is safer and more effective than manual scrubbing, eliminates possibility of puncture wounds, eliminates splatter of organism-laden debris and uses electrical energy to generate sound waves which extends the usage life of cutting instruments?
Ultrasonic cleaning
309
First test: chemical indicator failed. Second test: chemical and biological indicators are place and chemical fails. If the indicator fails again, who are notified?
The Infection Control Officer (ICO) and biomedical repair personnel
310
What is the last step to the sterilization process?
Wrapping and packaging
311
Ultrasonic cleaner produces a cleaning effect that generates sound waves that travel through liquid, where millions of bubbles form and burst continuously, which is commonly called what?
Cavitation
312
In the operating, what stage do radio frequency creates the electromagnetic field that converts the hydrogen peroxide into low temperature gas plasma?
Plasma Stage
313
What is the time-related shelf life for the following items: non-woven blue wrap and parchment paper or Dennison wrap?
30 days
314
What will happen to the indicator tape with the tabs down that is used to wrap instruments when exposed to the sterilization elements?
It will change color
315
What levels of a Glutaraldehyde-based solution are FDA registered?
2-3.2%
316
A biological pack will be placed on top of an instrument set and placed on the bottom shelf to the rear of the chamber with each load. True or False?
True
317
How many hours till the results are documented in the sterilization records and included in the monthly report to the Infection Control Officer?
48 hours
318
What type of sterilization uses low temperatures and sterilization is achieved in 4-12 hours at 120 degrees and also requires at least 16 hours of aeration after each cycle?
Ethylene Oxide sterilization
319
What is the only liquid chemical, if properly used, is capable of rendering an item sterile and is extremely caustic to skin, mucous membranes, and other tissues?
Glutaraldehyde
320
What are the chemical methods of sterilization?
Gas and liquid solutions
321
How many sinks are needed to allow personnel to perform the manual scrubbing method?
3
322
In what area of the Central Sterilization Room (CSR) will the HM take contaminated instruments after completion of a patient's treatment?
Receiving
323
A steam sterilizer may be referred auto by what other name?
Autoclave
324
Biological spore strips or ampules should be placed between several layers of folded wrapping material, and then the test pack is double-wrapped in the normal manner. True or False?
True
325
What type of related shelf life presumes that after the expiration date the item is considered outdated and should not be used?
Time-Related Shelf Life
326
What type of sterilization indicator will change color upon short exposure to sterilizing conditions such as steam, dry heat, or chemical vapor?
Internal Indicators
327
The advantages of of chemical vapor sterilization are:
- No corrosion, rusting, and dulling of instruments since water content is only 15 percent (if instruments are dry when placed in chamber).
- Prevents destruction of dental items.
- Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle.
True or False?
True
328
What type of monitoring involve looking at the gauges and readings on the sterilizer and recording the temperatures, pressure, and exposure time?
Physical Monitoring
329
What is the time-related shelf life for the following items: paper envelope (sealed with sterilization tape); non-woven blue wrap, plastic covered, heat-sealed; and peel plastic packs, heat-sealed or self-sealed?
365 days
330
When errors are made by improperly packaging items or overloading the sterilizer chamber, cool air pockets may form resulting in items not being sterilized. True or False?
True
331
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the ADA, and the Organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures (OSAP) recommend at least weekly. What is preferred?
Daily monitoring
332
What level of disinfection are iodophors and phenolics classified as?
Intermediate
333
What is the shelf life of an overwraped heat sealed plastic or nylon tubing (should only be overwraped after the pack has been sterilized)?
180 days
334
What is one of the greatest dangers encountered when using saturated steam under gravity cycles?
Trapping of air
335
What is used to seal both paper materials: form of bags or flat disposable wraps?
Adhesive indicator tape
336
The following __________-_________ category items require chemical disinfection: three way syringe tips, High-Volume Evacuator (HVE) saliva ejector, radiographic positioning devices, nitrous oxide masks, and breathing tubes.
Semi-critical
337
The biocidal activity of iodophors is accomplished with how many minutes of exposure?
10 - 25 minutes
338
In receiving and cleaning step, who decides where hand maintenance (disinfection, cleaning, and lubrication of dental hand pieces) should take place?
Command policies
339
Only biological monitoring can tell the HM wether or not sterilization has actually occurred. True or False?
True
340
In the operating cycle, what stage permits air into the chamber to return to atmospheric pressure?
Vent Stage
341
Chlorine dioxide is an effective surface disinfectant and sterilant. True or False?
True
342
All semi-critical category items should receive what level of disinfection?
High-level disinfection
343
In the operating cycle, what stage do hydrogen peroxide vapor penetrate packages?
Diffusion Stage
344
What should all Central Sterilization Rooms (CSRs) have where equipment, instruments, and materials are first introduced into the receiving area, and work their way through to the issue area in a specific order?
Functional Flow Chart
345
What is the major disadvantage of the chemical vapor sterilization?
The need for adequate ventilation
346
To protect and maintain all sterile items,the storage and issue areas should not be in the immediate vicinity of the contaminated processing areas is what step/area of the Central Sterilization Room (CSR) Functional Flow Chart?
Sterile Storage and Issue
347
Articles that require the same amount of time and same final steps should be sterilized together. True or False?
True
348
When selecting a product, what do you want to make sure on the label?
That it has an EPA registration number
349
All critical category items require sterilization before turning them in for service or repair. True or False?
True
350
What is the highest level of contamination control because of its results in the total destruction of all forms of microbial life?
Sterilization
351
What is allowed when you place all packages on edges, with large packs at the bottom of the chamber, and small packages in an upper layer crosswise to the lower layer?
Allow steam free passage
352
What step/area in the Central Sterilization Room (CSR) Functional Flow Chart where the space is determined by the available size, the degree of sufficient access for loading and unloading, and the ability to service the sterilizer occurs?
Sterilization
353
What is the most dependable and economical method of sterilization that is the method of choice for metalware, glassware, most rubber goods, and dry goods?
Steam under pressure (autoclave)
354
After the packs, instruments, and supplies are wrapped or placed into containers and sealed, they must be labeled with the identification number of the sterilizer, the preparer's initials, the dates of sterilization and expiration before they are placed in the sterilizer. True or False?
True
355
What type of sterilization indicator are chemical dyes that change color upon short exposure to sterilizing conditions, generally printed on packaging materials or supplied in tape form, and not sensitive enough and should not be used?
External Indicator
356
What are the four most commonly used chemical agents?
Glutaraldehyde and chlorine dioxide based solutions, iodophors, and phenolics.
357
What type of sterilization uses plasma state hydrogen peroxide to sterilize products unable to withstand steam sterilization parameters and have been approved in writing by the medical device manufacturer?
STERRAD Sterilization Procedure
358
What mechanisms contribute to the HM's continued growth in both healthcare knowledge and skills?
On-the-job training, in service classes and continuing education programs
359
What can affect the interpersonal relations between the patient and their healthcare providers?
Culture, race, religion, sex and age.
360
What must providers be alert to when providing care for the elderly patient's?
Mental and physical capabilities
361
Which interpersonal relation guides patient's life decisions and turn to them in times of distress, help give meaning to suffering and illness, and may also be helpful in the acceptance of future accidents or death? Give some examples of how HMs can help these types of patients.
Religion.
Provide chaplain referrals, inform staff of patient's beliefs and condition.
362
What concept refers to the mental, physical, and emotional state of being which enables the proper performance of one's vital functions and is considered to be the absence of disease or disability?
Health
363
Patient education is the responsibility of whom?
All members of the healthcare team
364
What is the place or event where the contact point person and the patient meet?
Contact Point
365
What concept is considered a state of soundness of mind, body and spirit free of pain or discomfort?
Wellness
366
What is included in the initial assessments and throughout the course of hospitalization?
Subjective and objective observations
367
What is one example that providers can do for elderly patient's to be able to reduce the patient's feelings of frustration, anger and resentment?
Self care
368
What is the instruction for Patient's Bill of Rights and Responsibilities?
BUMEDINST 6300.10: Chapter 10 "Healthcare Administration"
369
The _______ insignia of the HM marks the person as a member of a prestigious Corps worthy of respect?
Caduceus
370
The laboratory and/or radiological tests ordered, medications, treatments performed, patient referrals, patient disposition, patient education, and follow-up guidelines for the patient are included in what part of the SOAP note format?
Plan
371
The following guidelines are describing what personal traits:
- A standby must be present when examining or treating a member of the opposite sex.
- When caring for a patient, sensitivity to both verbal and nonverbal communication is paramount.
- Explanations and reassurances will go far preventing misunderstandings of actions or intentions.
Gender
372
Who's one common objective is to respond to those healthcare needs by assisting the patient in maintaining, restoring, rehabilitating, and then sustaining the physical or psychological well being of the patient?
Navy Healthcare Team including Corpsmen
373
Which communication barrier is the most common cause of communication failure or breakdown and the most difficult obstacle to identify?
Psychological Barrier
374
What consists of the four basic part: the sender of the message, the massage, the receiver of the message, and feedback (used to validate whether if the process works)?
Communication Process
375
What technique prompts the HM to evaluate the patient from the general appearance to detailed signs and symptoms of injury or illness?
Self questioning
376
_______ is defined as a group of socially learned, shared standards (perceptions, values, beliefs and goals) and behavior patterns (apparel, eating habits, and personal hygiene). Understanding of this enhances the quality and often the quantity of service a provider is able to make available.
Culture
377
Entries in the clinical record must include what?
Time, date, signature and rank of the HM who provided the care
378
An individual's true feelings are often communicated more accurately through ___________ communication than through ___________ communication.
Nonverbal: verbal
379
What is defined as the process that informs, motivates, and helps people adapt and maintain healthful practices and life styles?
Patient Education
380
Which mode of communication does not involve the use of words such as: dress, gestures, touching, body language, face and eye behavior, and even silence?
Nonverbal Communication
381
What is one of the most difficult skill to master?
Listening
382
What instruction is Provisions of Standbys During Medical Examinations?
BUMEDINST 6320.83
383
Which interpersonal relation has the potential to create a negative environment in the healthcare setting when factors such as differences in skin color motivate prejudicial segregation behaviors which the Navy Medicine Department will not tolerate?
Race
384
Which communication barrier consists of elements in the environment, such as noise?
Physical Barrier
385
What skill can be improved and enhanced by developing the attitudes and skills:
```
Hear the speaker out.
Focus on ideas.
Remove or manage distractions.
Maintain objectivity.
Concentrate on the immediate interaction.
```
Listening
386
What program is commonly known as the Patient Contact Program and it facilitates a two-way communication with patients so both complaints and complements are documented, tracked, and corrections made to improve the MTF/DTF experience?
Patient Contact Point Program
387
What term is used for the healthcare provider in any healthcare experience who is tasked by role and responsibility to provide a service to the patient?
Contact Point Person
388
HM's are governed legally by the Navy Regulations and BUMED policies and can only perform those assignments and duties while under the authority and direction of who?
The United States Government
389
Signs the HM can actually see, hear, touch, feel, or smell is what part of the SOAP note format?
Objective
390
What is the Navy Medical Department format note to standardize medical evaluation entries made in clinical records?
SOAP: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan
391
Patient rights and responsibilities are standards addressed by _________, who's goal is to promote excellence in providing healthcare services?
The Joint Commission (TJC)
392
What occurs when obstacles or barriers interfere with the message, transmission, receipt and understanding of the message?
Ineffective Communication
393
What term is used when an individual delivers improper care because of negligence or practicing outside of the standard of practice?
Malpractice
394
The term _____ is a classification assigned to a group of people who share inherited physical characteristics which can assist the provider in assessing the patient's needs, planning, and carrying out direct-care activities, and implementing patient education programs when identified.
Race
395
While the child is under care in the hospital, who is considered as the substitute parent and must gain the child's confidence and trust by offering explanations of what is going to be done in ways the child will understand (i.e. using a stethoscope and BP cuff on a teddy bear)?
Corpsmen
396
Who communicates their feelings in positive and negative ways such as: crying, kicking, or grabbing at the area of pain and also usually responds quickly and positively to cuddling, rocking, touching and soothing sounds?
Infants
397
The preliminary diagnosis of the patient's condition is what part of the SOAP note format?
Assessment
398
What is considered a legal document and is admissible as evidence in a court of law in claims of negligence and malpractice?
Clinical record
399
Which mode of communication is either spoken or written?
Verbal Communication
400
The information HMs process in the performance of their duties falls under the category of?
"Priviledged Communication"
401
What are the two basic modes of communication?
Verbal and nonverbal
402
The following are goals of _______ ________: promote patient self-care, promote behavior modification, and influence patient's attitude toward health and disease.
Patient education
403
A patient requests an HM's advice concerning the care they are undergoing. What is the best response for the HM to give?
Refer the patient to the nurse or physician responsible for the care.
404
Who displays the same feelings as an adult would when they feel ill; fear, anger, worry, and/or denial and will also need emotional support?
Children
405
The following are the three general purposes of ___________ ______________: collecting information to determine illness, assessing and modifying behavior, and providing health education.
Therapeutic Communication
406
Upholding patient confidentiality and the obligation to never abuse any medications that HMs have access to or tolerate abuse by others is demonstrating what personal traits?
Integrity
407
Who is the most important part of Navy Medicine's healthcare team and without them the healthcare team has little reason for existence?
The Patient
408
The standard of practice limitations imposed upon a healthcare provider are based on local regulations and?
The provider's training and experience
409
Helping the patient through trying experiences is the responsibility of who?
All contact point personnel
410
What is the one element making healthcare ethics different from general ethics and is considered the moral rule that distinguished the U.S. Navy Hospital Corps?
"Do your duty"
411
The understanding of the individual not only as a biological being, but also as a thinking, feeling person is the key to developing good __________ ____________. It is also described as "How one responds and regards others".
Interpersonal relations
412
What is defined as the face-to-face process of interacting that focuses on advancing the physical and emotional well-being of a patient?
Therapeutic Communications
413
Which communication barrier results from one's inaccurate perception of self or others; presence of some defense mechanism employed to cope with some form of threatening anxiety; or the existence of factors such as age, education, nationality, culture, language, or a multitude of socioeconomic factors?
Psychosocial Barriers
414
In the healthcare field, ________ means that providers are held responsible for their actions, must continue their education in the healthcare field, and provide the best healthcare possible?
Accountability
415
Symptoms verbally given to the HM by the patient or by a significant other is what part of the SOAP note format?
Subjective
416
The following describes what personal trait: excellent personal hygiene, neat hair styles, and spotless, proper uniforms areas entail for installing confidence as competent healthcare providers?
Personal appearance
417
What is the physical location where patients experience their first communication encounter with a person representing, in some role, the healthcare facility? (i.e. central appointment desks, telephones, patient affairs offices, emergency rooms, pharmacies, laboratories, record desks, clinics, and gate guards)
Initial Contact Point
418
Which communication barrier results from some kind of sensory dysfunction on the part of either the sender or the receiver such as: hearing impairments, speech defects and even vision problems?
Physiological Barrier
419
What nutritional support refers to feeding a patient using a tube that leads to the functioning gastrointestinal tract by nasogastric (NG) tube, nasoduodenal (ND) or nasojejunal (NJ) tube, stomach tube (G-tube) or small intestine (J-tube) due to the patient being unable to meet their nutritional needs by mouth?
Enteral Nutrition
420
What fatty acids are naturally occurring polyunsaturated fat that have been linked to lessening the risk for heart disease and improving joint health; can be found in salmon, halibut, walnuts, flax seed and supplementation?
Omega-3
421
Which vitamin is found in dairy, poultry, fish, protein containing foods?
Role - DNA, skin, nervous system, and digestive health.
Deficiency - Pellagra, smooth tongue, diarrhea.
Niacin
422
Which mineral is found in fluorinated drinking water, milk, egg yolks, and seafood?
Role - bone and teeth health.
Deficiency - tooth decay.
Flouride
423
What is the simplest type of sugar?
Glucose
424
Which vitamin is found in citrus fruits, peppers, tomatoes, potatoes, dark green vegetables, cantaloupe, and strawberries?
Role - Wound healing, assist absorption of iron.
Deficiency - Scurvy
Name - Ascorbic acid
Vitamin C
425
What nutritional support therapy is commonly used in cases where patients are unable to meet their nutritional needs by mouth and do not have a functioning gastrointestinal tract; feeding a patient via a vein, usually the subclavian vein, but peripheral veins can be used as well; this nutritional therapy is the most aggressive type?
Parenteral therapy
426
What type of diet is typically indicated for patients with trauma, underweight, failure to thrive, burns, wound healing, and after major surgery?
High calorie/ high protein diet
427
What defines a substance that contributes to growth or maintenance of the body?
Nutrient
428
Which mineral is found in red meat, fish, shellfish, poultry, eggs, dried fruits, and legumes?
Role - carrying oxygen via hemoglobin, energy metabolism.
Deficiency - Anemia
Iron
429
Dextrose, which is commonly used carbohydrate, is normally used in what form?
Intravenously
430
Which nutrient mainly act as enzymes or catalysts and they assist in making necessary chemical reactions occur in the body?
Vitamins
431
Which vitamin is found in milk, yogurt, meat, whole grain, and enriched breads and cereal?
Role - Energy metabolism, vision and skin health.
Deficiency - Cheilosis, photophobia, rash
Name - Riboflavin
Vitamin B2
432
What are the two types of saturated fat?
Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated
433
Some polysaccharides are know to contain up to how many carbon molecules?
Thousands
434
Disaccharides contain how many carbon molecules?
Two
435
What type of diet has a low sodium, low cholesterol, and low fat?
Cardiac diet
436
What type of diet is mainly used in the nutritional treatment of diabetes and is usually combined with a calorie restricted diet?
Carbohydrate consistent/controlled, diabetic diet
437
Meat, milk, and eggs are source of what nutrient?
Protein
438
What are the five food groups?
Grains, vegetables, fruits, milk, and meat and beans
439
Which of vitamin are found in animal products?
Role - New cell synthesis, maintains nerve cells.
Deficiency - Anemia, smooth tongue, fatigue
Name - Cyanocobalamine
Vitamin B12
440
Which mineral is found in seafoods, organ meats, and whole grains?
Role - works with vitamin E as an antioxidant.
Deficiency - Cardiomyopathy
Selenium
441
Which vitamin is found in dairy, liver, and leafy green vegetables?
Role - Vision, skin health, immunity, bone and tooth health.
Deficiency - Night blindness, anemia, corneal degeneration.
Name - Retinol
Vitamin A
442
The main role of fats is to?
Supply energy to the body.
443
Which mineral is found in meat, drinking water, nuts, beans, and whole grains?
Role - part of hemoglobin, collagen and some enzymes
Deficiency - Anemia
Copper
444
What is the leading cause of nutrition related diseases along with genetics and the environment in which people live?
Weight gain
445
Which vitamin is found in great leafy vegetables, plant fats, whole grains, nuts, and seeds?
Role - Antioxidant
Deficiency - Renal disease
Name - Tocopherol
Vitamin E
446
A healthy weight is defined as having a "healthy" ________ ________ ________.
Body Mass Index (18.5-24.9 kg/m^2 is normal) (divide a person's weight in kilograms (2.2 lbs = 1 kg) by the person's height in meters (2.54 cm = 1 inch))
447
Iron, zinc, iodine, selenium, copper, manganese, fluoride, chromium, molybdenum, are referred to as what minerals?
Trace minerals
448
Which vitamin is found in pork, liver, whole grains, legumes, and nuts?
Role - Energy metabolism, nervous system function.
Deficiency - Beriberi
Name - Thiamine
Vitamin B1
449
Vitamin C, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, B6, B12, frolic acid, pantothenic acid, and biotin are what type of vitamins?
Water soluble
450
Which nutrient is commonly referred to as the "building blocks" of the body; supports growth and maintenance of the body; builds enzymes, hormones, and antibodies to defend the body; and maintains fluid and electrolyte balance, preventing edema, and thus maintaining acid-base balance in the blood?
Protein
451
Which mineral is found in iodized salt, seafood, and bread?
Role - thyroid function, which regulate growth and development and metabolic rate.
Deficiency - Goiter and cretinism
Iodine
452
Which mineral is found in meats, fish, shellfish, poultry, grains, and vegetables?
Role - part of enzymes, immunity, wound healing, and taste.
Deficiency - Growth failure in children, retardation, lost of taste and poor wound healing.
Zinc
453
Which member of the lipid family increases the risk for heart disease, but it is a critical part of many hormones to include testosterone and estrogen; considered not essential in diets since the body can easily manufacture the amount needed?
Cholesterol
454
What type of diet is intended to promote slow weight loss; should be no lower than 1200 calories; and should be followed by a nutrition professional?
Calorie-restricted diet
455
Which mineral is found in salt, soy sauce, processed foods, meat, and cured meat?
Role - Normal fluid balance, nerve impulses, and major extra cellular ion.
Deficiency - Muscle cramps and altered mental status.
Sodium
456
What nutrient are molecular chains of carbon and hydrogen atoms bound together (i.e. sugar, starches, glycogen, and fiber) and its main role is to provide energy to the cells (mono-, di-, and polysaccharides)?
Carbohydrates
457
What is the total amount of water that a male needs to consume on a daily basis?
3.7 liters
458
What type of diet includes all the liquids served on clear liquid diets, with the addition of strained cream soups, milk, ice cream, pudding, and custard; used when a patient is tolerating a clear liquid diet, but may not be quite ready for a regular or modified diet; usually not intended for more than 2-3 days?
Full liquid diet
459
Which mineral is found in nuts, legumes, whole grain, seafood, chocolate, cocoa?
Role - Bone mineralization, protein synthesis, enzymes, muscle contraction, and transmission of nerve impulse.
Deficiency - Weakness, confusion, depressed, pancreatic hormone secretion, hypocalcemia and growth failure.
Magnesium
460
Which type of unsaturated fat contain two or more double bonds among the carbon atoms; found in canola oil, safflower oil, and soybean oil; and widely used for frying foods?
Polyunsaturated
461
What percentage loss of body water will cause heat injury or death?
5-7%
462
Glycogen is the storage form of glucose for animals and humans. True of False?
True
463
The recommended amount of protein for all adults is 0.8g/kg/day ((lbs divided by 2.2 = kg) multiply by 0.8g = protein per day). True or False?
True
464
Calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sodium, chloride, potassium, and sulfur are commonly referred to as what minerals?
Major
465
After consuming food a male needs to consume an average of how much free water? Female?
Male - 3 liters
| Female - 2.2 liters
466
What is the recommend fiber intake for women? Men?
Women - 25 grams
| Men - 37 grams
467
What type of diet is normally ordered for an individual who has not eaten for a few days or recovering from surgery; used to determine a patient's readiness for solid food; not nutritionally complete; thin liquids such as juices, broth, gelatin, Popsicles, tea, coffee, soft drinks, water, and ice are all allowed; and usually last for 2-3 days?
Clear liquid diet
468
What is the most important nutrient and is considered the medium in which all chemical reactions in the body takes place?
Water
469
Which mineral is found in animal tissue?
Role - Bone and teeth formation.
Phosphorus
470
Which diet is designed to meet specific disease-related nutritional needs?
Therapeutic or modified diets
471
One of the members in the lipid family, phospholipids, are manufactured by the human body. The most common is bile, which are produced where in the human body?
Liver
472
What is the total amount of water that a female needs to consume on daily basis?
2.7 liters
473
What vitamins are fat soluble?
A, D, E, and K
474
Which mineral is found in milk, bananas and other fruits?
Role - Normal fluid balance, protein and glycogen synthesis, nerve impulses, smooth muscle function (heart).
Deficiency - Dehydration, death.
Potassium
475
Which type of saturated fat contains one double bond between two carbon molecules; found in olive oil, peanut oil, and sesame oil; and they are considered generally healthy?
Monounsaturated
476
What type of diet is usually indicated for patients with wired jaws; it includes regular foods blended and strained to be able to go through a straw or a 60cc catheter tip syringe and every patient should have a wire cutting device in case of emergencies?
Dental liquid or blenderized liquid diet
477
What diet is helpful in the chronic management of many gastrointestinal diseases (diverticulosis, ulcerative colitis, IBS) and while on this diet, patient are highly recommended to drink adequate amounts of water to prevent constipation?
High fiber diet
478
Monosaccharides contain how many carbon molecules?
One
479
What type of diet is in indicative of renal or hepatic disease?
Protein restricted diet
480
Infants and children require a greater daily protein intake than adults? True or False.
True
481
There are 20 amino acids that make up all the proteins the body needs, how many of those are considered essential amino acids not made by the body?
Nine
482
Fructose, galactose, and glucose are what type of carbohydrate molecular size?
Monosaccharides
483
Which vitamin is found in the digestive tract, liver, eggs, green leafy vegetables, milk, and green tea?
Role - Blood clotting
Deficiency - Hemorrhaging
Name - Menidone
Vitamin K
484
What diet is modified in texture and consists of non crunchy or crispy foods that may require the gastrointestinal tract starting with the mouth considered nutritionally complete; indicated for patients with gastrointestinal disorders (GERD) and patients who cannot tolerate spicy or highly seasoned foods; fish, poultry, canned fruits, pastas, eggs, and well cooked vegetables?
Soft or bland diet
485
What diet is used when a person has Celiac's Disease, an inflammatory disease of the bowel?
Gluten free diet
486
Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are what type of carbohydrate molecular size?
Disaccharides
487
Starches, glycogen, and fiber are what type of carbohydrate molecular size?
Polysaccharides
488
Which mineral is found in meat, unrefined grains, and vegetable oil?
Role - works with insulin to regulate blood glucose levels and fat metabolism.
Deficiency - Abnormal glucose metabolism.
Chromium
489
What type of fat is not naturally occurring fats and are generally not considered a healthy fat?
Trans fat
490
What type of diet is required for gastrointestinal conditions where minimal stool production is warranted and nutritionally complete and with patients with diverticulitis active ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) flare ups, or post gastrointestinal surgery; requires 10-15 grams per day?
Residue/Fiber restricted diet
491
Which vitamin is found in shellfish?
Role - Amino acid and fatty acid metabolism, helps make RBCs.
Deficiency - Anemia, smooth tongue.
Name - Pyridoxine HCl
Vitamin B6
492
Proteins contain what amount of calories per gram?
Four
493
Which mineral is found in milk, oysters, tofu, green leafy vegetables, and legumes?
Role - Principle mineral of bones, muscle function, blood pressure.
Deficiency - Stunted growth and bone loss.
Calcium
494
Which mineral is found in salt and processed foods?
Role - Part of hydrochloric acid used in digestion.
Deficiency - Muscle cramps and altered mental status.
Chloride
495
Which mineral is found in protein containing foods?
Role - part of some amino acids, biotin, thiamine, insulin, stabilizes protein.
Sulfur
496
What diet is composed of all types of foods from the food guide pyramid and is well balanced and capable of maintaining a state of good nutrition, intended for convalescing patients who do not require a therapeutic diet, and also known as "general healthy diet"?
Regular diet
497
What are the three nutrients used by the body that contain calories?
Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
498
Water, carbohydrates, protein, fat, vitamins and minerals are considered what nutrient type?
Essential nutrient
499
Which vitamin is found in sunlight, milk, eggs, liver and sardines?
Role - Mineralization of bones.
Deficiency - Rickets, osteomalacia.
Name - Sunshine
Vitamin D
500
The base of a good healthy diet always begins with?
Food Pyramid
501
A person on a cholesterol restriction of 300 mg per day should have no more than how many whole eggs per day?
One (225mg of Cholesterol)
502
What diet is a texture modification of a regular diet that is typically indicated for patients who are edentulous, recovering from stroke, have failed Modified Barium Swallow, elderly and mentally disabled; nutritionally complete and is usually lower in fiber?
Puréed diet
